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AFN Patho Exam Review > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of signaling?

Cell targets itself

A

Autocrine

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2
Q

What kind of signaling?

Signaling across gap junctions

A

Juxtacrine

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3
Q

What kind of signaling?

Signal to nearby cell

A

Paracrine

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4
Q

What kind of signaling?

Signal to distant cell via bloodstream

A

Endocrine

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5
Q

What kind of receptors for growth/survival mechanisms?

A

Receptor kinases/phosphatases

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6
Q

Increase osmolarity means what?

A

higher solute concentration

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7
Q

Systemic dehydration = ________ osmolarity

A

higher osmolarity

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8
Q

The Gs protein coupled receptor acts via which effector enzyme?

A

Adenylyl cyclase

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9
Q

The Gi protein coupled receptor acts via which effector enzyme?

A

Phosphodiesterase

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10
Q

The Gq protein coupled receptor acts via which effector enzyme?

A

Phospholipase

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11
Q

Which G protein is associated with vasoconstriction?

A

Gq

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12
Q

Which adrenergic receptor forms IP3 & increases Ca++?

A

Gq

or

Alpha-1

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13
Q

Glucocorticoids have a(n) ________ effect and inhibit ____________

A

anti-inflammatory

cyclooxygenase

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14
Q

Which signaling molecule is pro-inflammatory w/ effects r/t anaphylaxis & asthma?

A

leukotrienes

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15
Q

Which signaling molecules are pro-inflammatory w/ effects r/t acute inflammation?

A

Prostaglandins

Prostacyclins

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16
Q

Which signaling molecule is pro-inflammatory w/ effects r/t chronic inflammation?

A

Thromboxanes

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17
Q

The other name for COX 1 & COX 2

A

Cyclooxygenase

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18
Q

What do NSAIDS inhibit?

A

Cyclooxygenase

aka

(COX 1/COX2)

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19
Q

Which G protein would increase HR

A

Gs

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20
Q

What kind of secretion for transudative inflammation?

A

Thin serous

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21
Q

What kind of inflammation for pus secretion?

A

Suppurative

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22
Q

Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to the fetus?

A

IgG

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23
Q

Most abundant immunoglobulin?

A

IgG

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24
Q

1st secreted immunoglobulin?

A

IgM

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25
Q

Anti parasitic and mast cell immunoglobulin?

A

IgE

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26
Q

Immunoglobulin for type 1 HS reactions?

A

IgE

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27
Q

Which immunoglobulin increases basophils?

A

IgD

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28
Q

Which immunoglobulin increases secretions?

A

IgA

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29
Q

What’s the other name for WBCs?

A

Leukocytes

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30
Q

The most abundant leukocyte?

A

Neutrophils (PMNs)

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31
Q

Leukocyte for targeting parasites?

A

Eosinophils

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32
Q

Leukocyte that plays a role in allergies/mast cells

A

Basophils

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33
Q

What type of leukocytes are macrophages?

A

Monocytes

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34
Q

CD__ t-cells and CD__ t-cells are required to form _______ __ ______

A

CD4

CD8

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs)

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35
Q

T-cells are found in the _________ of the lymph node

A

Pericortex

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36
Q

B-cells are found in the _________ of the lymph node

A

Cortex

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37
Q

What 2 cells kill via apoptosis?

A

NKTs

CTLs

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38
Q

Which T-cells activate B-cells?

A

Th-2 cells

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39
Q

This type of hypersensitivity reaction consists of Th-2 cells activating B-cells that release IgE. These IgE bind to FC-receptors on mast cells resulting in mast cell activation and mediator release

A

Type 1 HS

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40
Q

Autoimmune disorders are typically which type of HS reaction?

A

Type II HS reactions

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41
Q

This type of HS reaction is characterized by excessive opsonization

A

Type II HS

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42
Q

This type of HS reaction is results from the formation and deposition of immune complexes (IgG+antigen or IgM+antigen) into blood vessels, skin, glomeruli, etc. that triggers complementation and phagocytosis in that area.

A

Type III HS

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43
Q

This type of HS relates to issues w/ CD4 and CD8 T-cell activation

A

Type IV HS

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44
Q

DM type 1
MS
Poison Ivy
PPD skin test

What type of HS reactions?

A

Type IV HS

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45
Q

Lupus is what type of HS reaction?

A

Type III

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46
Q

DM type II
Graves disease
MG

What type of HS reaction?

A

Type II

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47
Q

Anaphylaxis
Environmental allergens

What type of HS reaction?

A

Type I

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48
Q

High ferritin = _____ iron (Fe) levels

A

low

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49
Q

What does a positive APP or APR mean?

A

Positive acute phase protein

or

Positive acute phase reactant

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50
Q

Is ferritin a positive APP?

A

Yes

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51
Q

What does histamine do to endothelial cells in the capillaries?

A

Makes them contract = increase capillary permeability

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52
Q

Which cytokine causes increased fibrinogen levels leading to increase coagulation?

A

IL-6

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53
Q

Which leukocyte is not typically found in chronic inflammation?

A

Neutrophils (PMNs)

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54
Q

Which 2 leukocytes are primary phagocytes?

A

Neutrophils & monocytes

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55
Q

Best type of immunity for any EC antigens?

A

Humoral immunity

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56
Q

Best type of immunity for any IC antigens?

A

Cellular immunity

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57
Q

What acute phase protein (APP) causes an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) during inflammation?

A

Fibrinogen

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58
Q

ESR increased. Does this mean inflammation or no?

A

Yes

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59
Q

Which Th cells turn into Tregs?

A

Th0

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60
Q

The _______ is the specific piece of antigen that the antibody binds to

A

Epitope

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61
Q

Which compliment pathway for parasites?

A

Alternate pathway

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62
Q

A low molecular weight protein hormone of the immune system

A

Cytokine

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63
Q

Which cells secrete perforin to induce apoptosis?

A

CTLs

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64
Q

Which 2 cytokines help terminate inflammation?

A

IL-10

TGF-beta

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65
Q

During mast cell degranulation, _________ is the primary cytokine released

A

histamine

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66
Q

When you think mast cell, think ________

A

histamine

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67
Q

Histamine primarily causes what?

A

Increased capillary permeability

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68
Q

What immunoglobulin is made in response to a booster vaccine?

A

IgG

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69
Q

What immunoglobulin is first made to normal vaccines

A

IgM

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70
Q

What makes a sequela different from a complication?

A

A sequela is a new problem that is still there after the primary acute problem has been resolved

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71
Q

Loss of growth control (cancer)

A

Neoplastic

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72
Q

Increase in a number of cells in a organ tissue. Requires DNA synthesis

A

Hyperplasia

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73
Q

Change of cell types d/t chronic irritation/inflammation

A

Metaplasia

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74
Q

Deranged cell growth (varied size, shape and appearance). Considered pre-malignant

A

Dysplasia

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75
Q

Increase in cell/organ size. Doesn’t require DNA synthesis

A

Hypertrophy

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76
Q

Site of polypeptide synthesis

A

rER

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77
Q

Site of postranslational polypeptide processing

A

Golgi

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78
Q

Byproduct of muscle metabolism

A

NH3 (amines)

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79
Q

2 substances that carry NH3 out of the body to the urea cycle

A

Alamine

Glutamine

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80
Q

The kidneys can get ride of ____ in the urea cycle

A

H+

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81
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytoplasm

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82
Q

T-cells are apart of ________ immunity

A

cellular

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83
Q

B-cells are apart of ________ immunity

A

humoral

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84
Q

Leukocytes are made in what?

A

Red bone marrow

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85
Q

Site of T-cell maturation

A

Thymus

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86
Q

This type of cell bridges the innate and adaptive immune system

A

NKTs

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87
Q

Site of b-cell maturation

A

Bone marrow

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88
Q

MHC-II gets paired w/ what t-cell?

A

CD4+

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89
Q

When basophils enter tissue, they are called ______ cells

A

mast cells

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90
Q

Mast cells are coated w/ what immunoglobulin?

A

IgE

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91
Q

Which leukocyte will primarily be present for acute inflammatory phase?

A

PMNs (neutrophils)

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92
Q

When monocytes enter tissues, they are called _________

A

Macrophages

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93
Q

what’s the name for macrophages in the nervous system?

A

Glial cells

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94
Q

These types of leukocytes are very common in the epithelial tissue

A

Dendritic cells

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95
Q

Selection process when T-cells are assessed if they can bond to MHC-I/II

A

Positive selection

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96
Q

Selection process when T-cells are assessed if they have a high affinity for self antigen

A

Negative selection

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97
Q

If T-cells have high affinity for self antigen, do they make the selection process?

A

Nope

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98
Q

What type of antibody receptors do B-cells primarily possess?

A

IgD

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99
Q

What kind of receptors do both B-cells and T-cells have?

A

Non-RTK (non-receptor tyrazine kinase)

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100
Q

Main transcription factor regarding T/B-cells and inflammatory process?

A

NFKB

101
Q

What cytokine aids in the differentiation of T-cells and B-cells?

A

IL-2

102
Q

Which cells have a heterodimer type receptor consisting of 2 main molecules?

A

NKTs

103
Q

Self antigen is presented on MHC-__

A

MHC-I

104
Q

Which motif of the NKT-R will bind to self antigen?

A

ITIM

105
Q

Which motif of the NKT-R will bind to pathogen?

A

ITAM

106
Q

Where exactly is site of T/B-cell exposure to antigen?

A

Lymph nodes

107
Q

Lymph ______ are associated w/ mucosa

A

Lymph nodules

108
Q

Tonsils are examples of lymph _______

A

nodules

109
Q

What specialized cells are in mucosa to present antigen to T/B-cells

A

M-cells

110
Q

Which pulp in the spleen causes erythrolysis of old non-functioning RBCs?

A

Red pulp

111
Q

In which pulp in the spleen are the T/B-cells exposed to antigen?

A

White pulp

112
Q

The spleen makes what from processing hemoglobin and Fe from the lysis of old RBCs?

A

Bilirubin

113
Q

TLR receptors are found on the ________ _________ of ________ cells

A

Cell membrane of phagocytes

114
Q

Most abundant antibody in the serum?

A

IgG

115
Q

(T/F) antibody is the same thing as immunoglobulin

A

True

116
Q

Name the two types of opsonins

A

Antibodies

Compliment

117
Q

Anitbodies bind to _____ receptors on the phagocyte

A

FC-receptors

118
Q

Compliments on the pathogen bind to ______ receptors on the phagocyte

A

compliment receptors

119
Q

The lysosome mainly dose what?

A

Breaks down stuff (pathogens)

120
Q

NFKB is a _________ ________ that aids the release of _________

A

Transcription factor

cytokines

121
Q

Which cytokine is primarily an anti-viral?

A

INF-gamma (Interferon gamma)

INF-y (abbreviation)

122
Q

Which t-cell is good for killing viruses?

A

CTLs

123
Q

CTLs secrete what cytokine to kill viruses?

A

INF-gamma (interferon gamma)

124
Q

Main cytokine that increases capillary permeability and helps “kickstart” the inflammatory process.

A

TNF-alpha

125
Q

Which 2 cytokines are the most potent pro-inflammatories?

A

TNF-alpha

IL-1

126
Q

Which cytokine for causing fever?

A

IL-1

127
Q

APR cytokine?

A

IL-6

128
Q

Which cytokines attract PMNs?

A

IL-8

129
Q

What does chemotaxis mean?

A

Attracts WBCs (PMNs)

130
Q

Which cytokine activates NKTs and Th1 (CD4+) cells?

A

IL-12

131
Q

Which compliment pathway binds to antigen/antibody complexes on the pathogenic cell?

A

Classic pathway

132
Q

Which compliment pathway binds to oligosaccharides (sugars)?

A

MBL pathway

133
Q

Primary compliment pathway in mucous membranes?

A

MBL pathway

134
Q

Which compliment pathway results in random activation of C3 in the serum? Also pathway for parasites.

A

Alternate pathway

135
Q

The name for the big pore created by compliments killing pathogens via compliment pathways.

A

MAC (membrane attack complex)

136
Q

Which compliment protein forms the MAC?

A

C5b

137
Q

The major pro-inflammatory compliment protein?

A

C3a

138
Q

Are compliment proteins cytokines?

A

Yes

139
Q

Which compliment protein increase opsonization & phagocytosis?

A

C3b

140
Q

Which compliment protein helps prevent type III HS reactions?

A

C3b

141
Q

C3b helps prevent which type of HS reaction?

A

Type III

142
Q

Where does C3b take antigen/antibody complexes to get rid of them?

A

Spleen

143
Q

Which 2 compliment protein causes vasodilation/increase vascular permeability?

A

C5a/C3a

144
Q

What do APCs use to present antigen on their cell membrane?

A

MHC

145
Q

what is the main goal of inflammation?

A

to recruit/activate more WBCs to promote healing

146
Q

does the vascular response or cellular response come first in inflammation?

A

Vascular first, then cellular

147
Q

TLRs bind directly to the _______ on the pathogen

A

PAMPs/DAMPs

148
Q

C3a/C5a activate _____ cells to release their cytokines such as _________, ___________, and __________

A

Mast cells

Histamine

Prostaglandins

Leukotrienes

149
Q

Rubor means

A

Redness

150
Q

Calor means

A

Warmness

151
Q

Dalor means

A

Pain

152
Q

Tumour means

A

swelling/edema

153
Q

IL-6 goes to the _____ to activate the APR

A

Liver

154
Q

WBCs need both _______ and ________ on their surface to adhere to the adhesion molecules and selectin on the endothelial surface of the vasculature

A

Oligosaccharides

Integrin

155
Q

Process when the integrins and oligosaccharides on the WBCs and the selections and adhesion molecules on the endothelium of the vasculature are all in a high affinity state allowing them to bond to each other

A

Margination

156
Q

Integrins will bind to _______

A

Adhesion molecules (ICAMs)

157
Q

Oligosaccharides bind to _______

A

Selectins

158
Q

What molecules on the endothelium in the vasculature pull the WBCs in?

A

Adhesion molecules (VCAM/PECAMs)

159
Q

Process where WBCs change shape to get pulled into the vasculature by the adhesion molecules

A

Diapedesis

160
Q

Fibrinogen is released by the ____

A

liver

161
Q

Ferritin reduces ________

A

Iron (Fe)

162
Q

If CRP levels are increased, do we have inflammation?

A

Yes (C-reactive proteins)

163
Q

Serum amyloid A does what 2 things

A

chemokine (Attracts PMNs)

increases prostaglandin synthesis

164
Q

Is serum amyloid A an inflammatory marker?

A

Yes

165
Q

What is secreted at the end of inflammatory process to counteract increased fibrinogen?

A

Alpha 1 - antitrypsin

aka

a1-antitrypsin

166
Q

DIC is caused by what

A

Systemic micro coagulations d/t increased cytokine release (IL-6) and increased APR activity releasing a ton of fibrinogen

167
Q

Growth hormone is released from the ______ gland

A

Pituitary gland

168
Q

IGF-1 is made from what hormone?

A

Growth hormone

169
Q

What stress hormone is released from IL-1/IL-6/TNF-alpha going to the brain?

A

ACTH (adreno corticotrophic hormone)

170
Q

ACTH causes release of _______

A

Cortisol

171
Q

Cortisol is a _________

A

glucocorticoid

172
Q

What 2 things during inflammation cause gluconeogenesis?

A

Cortisol

IGF-1

173
Q

Where does the glucose for gluconeogensis come from in inflammation?

A

Protein catabolism (leads to muscle waisting)

Fatty acid metabolism (leads to ketoacidosis)

174
Q

Aldosterone, released in the stress response, causes you to hold on to ____ and get rid of _____

A

Na

K

175
Q

Extreme luekopoesis in the bone marrow causes a ______ _______ (where there is a bunch of immature leukocytes and no more mature ones)

A

Left shift

176
Q

If there is a problem with diapedesis of WBCs then there is a problem with what molecules

A

Adhesion molecules

177
Q

What cells are going to be mainly present during chronic inflammation?

A

Monocytes

Lymphocytes (T/B-cells)

178
Q

CD4+ cells only receive antigen when it is presented on ______

A

MCH-II

179
Q

A ________ _________ is required along with the MHC-II antigen and CD4+ receptors to activate T-helper cells

A

Secondary signal

180
Q

What 2 cytokines differentiate CD4+ cells into Th1 cells?

A

IL-2

INF-gamma

181
Q

Treg cells secrete what 2 cytokines?

A

IL-10

TGF-beta

182
Q

What cells carry antigen straight to B-cells, bypassing the CD4+ to Th2 route?

A

FDCs (follicular dendritic cell)

183
Q

Which immunoglobulin can perform passive immunity?

A

IgG

184
Q

Immunoglobulins are apart of the ________ immune system? (very broad answer)

A

Humoral

185
Q

Which T-cell is required for the co-stimulation w/ CD8+ cells to make CTLs?

A

Th1 cells

186
Q

Which cell can secrete granulysin?

A

CTLs

187
Q

In what way do CTLs kill WBCs when inflammation is coming to an end?

A

By secreting death ligand that induces apoptosis

188
Q

Which compliment pathway is particularly important in the respiratory tract/mucosa?

A

MBL pathway

189
Q

What is a common example of type III HS reaction?

A

Vasculitis

190
Q

What WBC for acute infection?

A

PMNs (Neutrophils)

191
Q

How do neutrophils kill?

A

Phagocytosis

192
Q

What cells do NKTs primarily kill?

A

Infected host cells

193
Q

Do NKTs primarily kill bacteria?

A

No (mainly infected host cells)

194
Q

How does granulysin work differently than granzymes to induce apoptosis?

A

They open Ca++ channels and the Ca++ stimulates apoptotic pathways

195
Q

What 2 WBC types will you primarily see w/ chronic inflammation?

A

Monocytes

Lymphocytes (T/B-cells)

196
Q

What 3 main types of receptors do macrophages have on their surface to bind to pathogens?

A

TLRs (bind directly to PAMPs/DAMPs)

Fc-repetors (binds to antigen/antibody complex)

Compliment receptors (bind to compliment)

197
Q

Which 2 cytokines go to mainly the brain?

A

IL-1

TNF-alpha

198
Q

What does CRP do (other than being a marker of inflammation?)

A

It acts as an opsonin (like a compliment)

199
Q

Programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

200
Q

What type of cell death causes inflammation?

A

Necrosis (think MI w/ necrotic myocardial tissue)

201
Q

Blood pH is primarily control by ________ feedback

A

negative

202
Q

Partuition and lactation are examples of _________ feedback

A

positive

203
Q

Most predominant type of feedback for homeostasis?

A

negative

204
Q

The purpose of cells are dependent on their ________

A

structure

205
Q

Remember all the organelles in a cell have the same ________ _________

A

cell membrane

206
Q

What in lysosomes help with phagocytosis?

A

Lytic enzymes

207
Q

What makes a cell membrane fluid and flexible?

A

Cholesterol

208
Q

Cell membranes are made of a ____________ bilayer

A

phospholipid

209
Q

Structural and functional components of cells are made of ________

A

proteins

210
Q

These are cytoplasmic extensions that increase surface area for cell absorption

A

Microvilli

211
Q

What anchors cilia to cell surface

A

basal body

212
Q

Long slender extensions of plasma membrane (also help with movement)

A

cilia

213
Q

control movement of DNA strands during cell division

A

centrioles

214
Q

site of polypeptide synthesis

A

Ribosome

215
Q

What are polypeptides

A

building blocks of proteins

216
Q

A site does what

A

reads the codon

217
Q

P site does what

A

builds the polypeptide chain

218
Q

Ribosomes are bound to what organelle

A

rER

219
Q

what does the secondary and tertiary structuring of polypeptides?

A

rER

220
Q

What 2 organelles have dual membranes

A

Mitochondria

Nucleus

221
Q

Where does the TCA cycle occur

A

Matrix of mitochondria

222
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs from what complex

A

ETC (electron transport chain)

223
Q

Where are antioxidants found?

A

Mitochondria

224
Q

What 2 organelles perform post-translational processing of proteins

A

rER

Golgi

225
Q

What organelle processes lipids?

A

sER

226
Q

What organelle is responsible re-synthesis damaged membranes?

A

sER

227
Q

Cholesterols and hormones made in what organelle?

A

sER

228
Q

(T/F) the golgi modifies both proteins and lipids

A

true

229
Q

What’s the other name for lytic vesicles?

A

lysosomes

230
Q

Where are lysosomes made?

A

Golgi

231
Q

Juxtacrine communication occurs through which cellular junctions?

A

gap junctions

232
Q

Adipose tissue is what type of tissue?

A

Connective

233
Q

Ion move across membranes via _________ transport

A

facilitated

234
Q

Water diffusion is considered _________ transport

A

simple

235
Q

facilitated diffusion is considered ________ transport

A

passive

236
Q

Is simple diffusion linear or does it plateau?

A

linear

237
Q

What affects simple diffusion rate?

A

concentration gradients

surface area

permeability

238
Q

Which type of diffusion has a rate plateau when carrier proteins get saturated

A

facilitated diffusion

239
Q

In facilitated diffusion, is diffusion rate higher when there is less solute concentration or lower concentration?

A

lower concentration (carrier proteins aren’t overwhelmed)

240
Q

Movement of solute against concentration gradient

A

Active transport

241
Q

Primary active transport requires what?

A

ATP or GTP

242
Q

Secondary active transport uses the primary transported molecule’s ___________ ____________ to piggyback a ride

A

concentration gradient

243
Q

Lipophilic ligands have receptors in the _______

A

nucleus

244
Q

Cholesterols/steroids have receptors in the __________

A

nucleus

245
Q

Receptors _________ and _________ a signal

A

detect/regognize

amplify

246
Q

Acetylcholine opens ion channels and causes cell __________

A

depolarization

247
Q

Most widely used 2nd messenger in cell signaling

A

cAMP

248
Q

Does Gs increase PKA effects?

A

yes

249
Q

Does Gi increase PKA effects?

A

no

AFN Patho Exam Review (1 decks)

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