Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What kind of signaling?
Cell targets itself
A
Autocrine
2
Q
What kind of signaling?
Signaling across gap junctions
A
Juxtacrine
3
Q
What kind of signaling?
Signal to nearby cell
A
Paracrine
4
Q
What kind of signaling?
Signal to distant cell via bloodstream
A
Endocrine
5
Q
What kind of receptors for growth/survival mechanisms?
A
Receptor kinases/phosphatases
6
Q
Increase osmolarity means what?
A
higher solute concentration
7
Q
Systemic dehydration = ________ osmolarity
A
higher osmolarity
8
Q
The Gs protein coupled receptor acts via which effector enzyme?
A
Adenylyl cyclase
9
Q
The Gi protein coupled receptor acts via which effector enzyme?
A
Phosphodiesterase
10
Q
The Gq protein coupled receptor acts via which effector enzyme?
A
Phospholipase
11
Q
Which G protein is associated with vasoconstriction?
A
Gq
12
Q
Which adrenergic receptor forms IP3 & increases Ca++?
A
Gq
or
Alpha-1
13
Q
Glucocorticoids have a(n) ________ effect and inhibit ____________
A
anti-inflammatory
cyclooxygenase
14
Q
Which signaling molecule is pro-inflammatory w/ effects r/t anaphylaxis & asthma?
A
leukotrienes
15
Q
Which signaling molecules are pro-inflammatory w/ effects r/t acute inflammation?
A
Prostaglandins
Prostacyclins
16
Q
Which signaling molecule is pro-inflammatory w/ effects r/t chronic inflammation?
A
Thromboxanes
17
Q
The other name for COX 1 & COX 2
A
Cyclooxygenase
18
Q
What do NSAIDS inhibit?
A
Cyclooxygenase
aka
(COX 1/COX2)
19
Q
Which G protein would increase HR
A
Gs
20
Q
What kind of secretion for transudative inflammation?
A
Thin serous
21
Q
What kind of inflammation for pus secretion?
A
Suppurative
22
Q
Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to the fetus?
A
IgG
23
Q
Most abundant immunoglobulin?
A
IgG
24
Q
1st secreted immunoglobulin?
A
IgM
25
Anti parasitic and mast cell immunoglobulin?
IgE
26
Immunoglobulin for type 1 HS reactions?
IgE
27
Which immunoglobulin increases basophils?
IgD
28
Which immunoglobulin increases secretions?
IgA
29
What's the other name for WBCs?
Leukocytes
30
The most abundant leukocyte?
Neutrophils (PMNs)
31
Leukocyte for targeting parasites?
Eosinophils
32
Leukocyte that plays a role in allergies/mast cells
Basophils
33
What type of leukocytes are macrophages?
Monocytes
34
CD__ t-cells and CD__ t-cells are required to form _______ __ ______
CD4
CD8
Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs)
35
T-cells are found in the _________ of the lymph node
Pericortex
36
B-cells are found in the _________ of the lymph node
Cortex
37
What 2 cells kill via apoptosis?
NKTs
CTLs
38
Which T-cells activate B-cells?
Th-2 cells
39
This type of hypersensitivity reaction consists of Th-2 cells activating B-cells that release IgE. These IgE bind to FC-receptors on mast cells resulting in mast cell activation and mediator release
Type 1 HS
40
Autoimmune disorders are typically which type of HS reaction?
Type II HS reactions
41
This type of HS reaction is characterized by excessive opsonization
Type II HS
42
This type of HS reaction is results from the formation and deposition of immune complexes (IgG+antigen or IgM+antigen) into blood vessels, skin, glomeruli, etc. that triggers complementation and phagocytosis in that area.
Type III HS
43
This type of HS relates to issues w/ CD4 and CD8 T-cell activation
Type IV HS
44
DM type 1
MS
Poison Ivy
PPD skin test
What type of HS reactions?
Type IV HS
45
Lupus is what type of HS reaction?
Type III
46
DM type II
Graves disease
MG
What type of HS reaction?
Type II
47
Anaphylaxis
Environmental allergens
What type of HS reaction?
Type I
48
High ferritin = _____ iron (Fe) levels
low
49
What does a positive APP or APR mean?
Positive acute phase protein
or
Positive acute phase reactant
50
Is ferritin a positive APP?
Yes
51
What does histamine do to endothelial cells in the capillaries?
Makes them contract = increase capillary permeability
52
Which cytokine causes increased fibrinogen levels leading to increase coagulation?
IL-6
53
Which leukocyte is not typically found in chronic inflammation?
Neutrophils (PMNs)
54
Which 2 leukocytes are primary phagocytes?
Neutrophils & monocytes
55
Best type of immunity for any EC antigens?
Humoral immunity
56
Best type of immunity for any IC antigens?
Cellular immunity
57
What acute phase protein (APP) causes an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) during inflammation?
Fibrinogen
58
ESR increased. Does this mean inflammation or no?
Yes
59
Which Th cells turn into Tregs?
Th0
60
The _______ is the specific piece of antigen that the antibody binds to
Epitope
61
Which compliment pathway for parasites?
Alternate pathway
62
A low molecular weight protein hormone of the immune system
Cytokine
63
Which cells secrete perforin to induce apoptosis?
CTLs
64
Which 2 cytokines help terminate inflammation?
IL-10
TGF-beta
65
During mast cell degranulation, _________ is the primary cytokine released
histamine
66
When you think mast cell, think ________
histamine
67
Histamine primarily causes what?
Increased capillary permeability
68
What immunoglobulin is made in response to a booster vaccine?
IgG
69
What immunoglobulin is first made to normal vaccines
IgM
70
What makes a sequela different from a complication?
A sequela is a new problem that is still there after the primary acute problem has been resolved
71
Loss of growth control (cancer)
Neoplastic
72
Increase in a number of cells in a organ tissue. Requires DNA synthesis
Hyperplasia
73
Change of cell types d/t chronic irritation/inflammation
Metaplasia
74
Deranged cell growth (varied size, shape and appearance). Considered pre-malignant
Dysplasia
75
Increase in cell/organ size. Doesn't require DNA synthesis
Hypertrophy
76
Site of polypeptide synthesis
rER
77
Site of postranslational polypeptide processing
Golgi
78
Byproduct of muscle metabolism
NH3 (amines)
79
2 substances that carry NH3 out of the body to the urea cycle
Alamine
Glutamine
80
The kidneys can get ride of ____ in the urea cycle
H+
81
Where does glycolysis occur?
Cytoplasm
82
T-cells are apart of ________ immunity
cellular
83
B-cells are apart of ________ immunity
humoral
84
Leukocytes are made in what?
Red bone marrow
85
Site of T-cell maturation
Thymus
86
This type of cell bridges the innate and adaptive immune system
NKTs
87
Site of b-cell maturation
Bone marrow
88
MHC-II gets paired w/ what t-cell?
CD4+
89
When basophils enter tissue, they are called ______ cells
mast cells
90
Mast cells are coated w/ what immunoglobulin?
IgE
91
Which leukocyte will primarily be present for acute inflammatory phase?
PMNs (neutrophils)
92
When monocytes enter tissues, they are called _________
Macrophages
93
what's the name for macrophages in the nervous system?
Glial cells
94
These types of leukocytes are very common in the epithelial tissue
Dendritic cells
95
Selection process when T-cells are assessed if they can bond to MHC-I/II
Positive selection
96
Selection process when T-cells are assessed if they have a high affinity for self antigen
Negative selection
97
If T-cells have high affinity for self antigen, do they make the selection process?
Nope
98
What type of antibody receptors do B-cells primarily possess?
IgD
99
What kind of receptors do both B-cells and T-cells have?
Non-RTK (non-receptor tyrazine kinase)
100
Main transcription factor regarding T/B-cells and inflammatory process?
NFKB
101
What cytokine aids in the differentiation of T-cells and B-cells?
IL-2
102
Which cells have a heterodimer type receptor consisting of 2 main molecules?
NKTs
103
Self antigen is presented on MHC-__
MHC-I
104
Which motif of the NKT-R will bind to self antigen?
ITIM
105
Which motif of the NKT-R will bind to pathogen?
ITAM
106
Where exactly is site of T/B-cell exposure to antigen?
Lymph nodes
107
Lymph ______ are associated w/ mucosa
Lymph nodules
108
Tonsils are examples of lymph _______
nodules
109
What specialized cells are in mucosa to present antigen to T/B-cells
M-cells
110
Which pulp in the spleen causes erythrolysis of old non-functioning RBCs?
Red pulp
111
In which pulp in the spleen are the T/B-cells exposed to antigen?
White pulp
112
The spleen makes what from processing hemoglobin and Fe from the lysis of old RBCs?
Bilirubin
113
TLR receptors are found on the ________ _________ of ________ cells
Cell membrane of phagocytes
114
Most abundant antibody in the serum?
IgG
115
(T/F) antibody is the same thing as immunoglobulin
True
116
Name the two types of opsonins
Antibodies
Compliment
117
Anitbodies bind to _____ receptors on the phagocyte
FC-receptors
118
Compliments on the pathogen bind to ______ receptors on the phagocyte
compliment receptors
119
The lysosome mainly dose what?
Breaks down stuff (pathogens)
120
NFKB is a _________ ________ that aids the release of _________
Transcription factor
cytokines
121
Which cytokine is primarily an anti-viral?
INF-gamma (Interferon gamma)
INF-y (abbreviation)
122
Which t-cell is good for killing viruses?
CTLs
123
CTLs secrete what cytokine to kill viruses?
INF-gamma (interferon gamma)
124
Main cytokine that increases capillary permeability and helps "kickstart" the inflammatory process.
TNF-alpha
125
Which 2 cytokines are the most potent pro-inflammatories?
TNF-alpha
IL-1
126
Which cytokine for causing fever?
IL-1
127
APR cytokine?
IL-6
128
Which cytokines attract PMNs?
IL-8
129
What does chemotaxis mean?
Attracts WBCs (PMNs)
130
Which cytokine activates NKTs and Th1 (CD4+) cells?
IL-12
131
Which compliment pathway binds to antigen/antibody complexes on the pathogenic cell?
Classic pathway
132
Which compliment pathway binds to oligosaccharides (sugars)?
MBL pathway
133
Primary compliment pathway in mucous membranes?
MBL pathway
134
Which compliment pathway results in random activation of C3 in the serum? Also pathway for parasites.
Alternate pathway
135
The name for the big pore created by compliments killing pathogens via compliment pathways.
MAC (membrane attack complex)
136
Which compliment protein forms the MAC?
C5b
137
The major pro-inflammatory compliment protein?
C3a
138
Are compliment proteins cytokines?
Yes
139
Which compliment protein increase opsonization & phagocytosis?
C3b
140
Which compliment protein helps prevent type III HS reactions?
C3b
141
C3b helps prevent which type of HS reaction?
Type III
142
Where does C3b take antigen/antibody complexes to get rid of them?
Spleen
143
Which 2 compliment protein causes vasodilation/increase vascular permeability?
C5a/C3a
144
What do APCs use to present antigen on their cell membrane?
MHC
145
what is the main goal of inflammation?
to recruit/activate more WBCs to promote healing
146
does the vascular response or cellular response come first in inflammation?
Vascular first, then cellular
147
TLRs bind directly to the _______ on the pathogen
PAMPs/DAMPs
148
C3a/C5a activate _____ cells to release their cytokines such as _________, ___________, and __________
Mast cells
Histamine
Prostaglandins
Leukotrienes
149
Rubor means
Redness
150
Calor means
Warmness
151
Dalor means
Pain
152
Tumour means
swelling/edema
153
IL-6 goes to the _____ to activate the APR
Liver
154
WBCs need both _______ and ________ on their surface to adhere to the adhesion molecules and selectin on the endothelial surface of the vasculature
Oligosaccharides
Integrin
155
Process when the integrins and oligosaccharides on the WBCs and the selections and adhesion molecules on the endothelium of the vasculature are all in a high affinity state allowing them to bond to each other
Margination
156
Integrins will bind to _______
Adhesion molecules (ICAMs)
157
Oligosaccharides bind to _______
Selectins
158
What molecules on the endothelium in the vasculature pull the WBCs in?
Adhesion molecules (VCAM/PECAMs)
159
Process where WBCs change shape to get pulled into the vasculature by the adhesion molecules
Diapedesis
160
Fibrinogen is released by the ____
liver
161
Ferritin reduces ________
Iron (Fe)
162
If CRP levels are increased, do we have inflammation?
Yes (C-reactive proteins)
163
Serum amyloid A does what 2 things
chemokine (Attracts PMNs)
increases prostaglandin synthesis
164
Is serum amyloid A an inflammatory marker?
Yes
165
What is secreted at the end of inflammatory process to counteract increased fibrinogen?
Alpha 1 - antitrypsin
aka
a1-antitrypsin
166
DIC is caused by what
Systemic micro coagulations d/t increased cytokine release (IL-6) and increased APR activity releasing a ton of fibrinogen
167
Growth hormone is released from the ______ gland
Pituitary gland
168
IGF-1 is made from what hormone?
Growth hormone
169
What stress hormone is released from IL-1/IL-6/TNF-alpha going to the brain?
ACTH (adreno corticotrophic hormone)
170
ACTH causes release of _______
Cortisol
171
Cortisol is a _________
glucocorticoid
172
What 2 things during inflammation cause gluconeogenesis?
Cortisol
IGF-1
173
Where does the glucose for gluconeogensis come from in inflammation?
Protein catabolism (leads to muscle waisting)
Fatty acid metabolism (leads to ketoacidosis)
174
Aldosterone, released in the stress response, causes you to hold on to ____ and get rid of _____
Na
K
175
Extreme luekopoesis in the bone marrow causes a ______ _______ (where there is a bunch of immature leukocytes and no more mature ones)
Left shift
176
If there is a problem with diapedesis of WBCs then there is a problem with what molecules
Adhesion molecules
177
What cells are going to be mainly present during chronic inflammation?
Monocytes
Lymphocytes (T/B-cells)
178
CD4+ cells only receive antigen when it is presented on ______
MCH-II
179
A ________ _________ is required along with the MHC-II antigen and CD4+ receptors to activate T-helper cells
Secondary signal
180
What 2 cytokines differentiate CD4+ cells into Th1 cells?
IL-2
INF-gamma
181
Treg cells secrete what 2 cytokines?
IL-10
TGF-beta
182
What cells carry antigen straight to B-cells, bypassing the CD4+ to Th2 route?
FDCs (follicular dendritic cell)
183
Which immunoglobulin can perform passive immunity?
IgG
184
Immunoglobulins are apart of the ________ immune system? (very broad answer)
Humoral
185
Which T-cell is required for the co-stimulation w/ CD8+ cells to make CTLs?
Th1 cells
186
Which cell can secrete granulysin?
CTLs
187
In what way do CTLs kill WBCs when inflammation is coming to an end?
By secreting death ligand that induces apoptosis
188
Which compliment pathway is particularly important in the respiratory tract/mucosa?
MBL pathway
189
What is a common example of type III HS reaction?
Vasculitis
190
What WBC for acute infection?
PMNs (Neutrophils)
191
How do neutrophils kill?
Phagocytosis
192
What cells do NKTs primarily kill?
Infected host cells
193
Do NKTs primarily kill bacteria?
No (mainly infected host cells)
194
How does granulysin work differently than granzymes to induce apoptosis?
They open Ca++ channels and the Ca++ stimulates apoptotic pathways
195
What 2 WBC types will you primarily see w/ chronic inflammation?
Monocytes
Lymphocytes (T/B-cells)
196
What 3 main types of receptors do macrophages have on their surface to bind to pathogens?
TLRs (bind directly to PAMPs/DAMPs)
Fc-repetors (binds to antigen/antibody complex)
Compliment receptors (bind to compliment)
197
Which 2 cytokines go to mainly the brain?
IL-1
TNF-alpha
198
What does CRP do (other than being a marker of inflammation?)
It acts as an opsonin (like a compliment)
199
Programmed cell death
Apoptosis
200
What type of cell death causes inflammation?
Necrosis (think MI w/ necrotic myocardial tissue)
201
Blood pH is primarily control by ________ feedback
negative
202
Partuition and lactation are examples of _________ feedback
positive
203
Most predominant type of feedback for homeostasis?
negative
204
The purpose of cells are dependent on their ________
structure
205
Remember all the organelles in a cell have the same ________ _________
cell membrane
206
What in lysosomes help with phagocytosis?
Lytic enzymes
207
What makes a cell membrane fluid and flexible?
Cholesterol
208
Cell membranes are made of a ____________ bilayer
phospholipid
209
Structural and functional components of cells are made of ________
proteins
210
These are cytoplasmic extensions that increase surface area for cell absorption
Microvilli
211
What anchors cilia to cell surface
basal body
212
Long slender extensions of plasma membrane (also help with movement)
cilia
213
control movement of DNA strands during cell division
centrioles
214
site of polypeptide synthesis
Ribosome
215
What are polypeptides
building blocks of proteins
216
A site does what
reads the codon
217
P site does what
builds the polypeptide chain
218
Ribosomes are bound to what organelle
rER
219
what does the secondary and tertiary structuring of polypeptides?
rER
220
What 2 organelles have dual membranes
Mitochondria
Nucleus
221
Where does the TCA cycle occur
Matrix of mitochondria
222
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs from what complex
ETC (electron transport chain)
223
Where are antioxidants found?
Mitochondria
224
What 2 organelles perform post-translational processing of proteins
rER
Golgi
225
What organelle processes lipids?
sER
226
What organelle is responsible re-synthesis damaged membranes?
sER
227
Cholesterols and hormones made in what organelle?
sER
228
(T/F) the golgi modifies both proteins and lipids
true
229
What's the other name for lytic vesicles?
lysosomes
230
Where are lysosomes made?
Golgi
231
Juxtacrine communication occurs through which cellular junctions?
gap junctions
232
Adipose tissue is what type of tissue?
Connective
233
Ion move across membranes via _________ transport
facilitated
234
Water diffusion is considered _________ transport
simple
235
facilitated diffusion is considered ________ transport
passive
236
Is simple diffusion linear or does it plateau?
linear
237
What affects simple diffusion rate?
concentration gradients
surface area
permeability
238
Which type of diffusion has a rate plateau when carrier proteins get saturated
facilitated diffusion
239
In facilitated diffusion, is diffusion rate higher when there is less solute concentration or lower concentration?
lower concentration (carrier proteins aren't overwhelmed)
240
Movement of solute against concentration gradient
Active transport
241
Primary active transport requires what?
ATP or GTP
242
Secondary active transport uses the primary transported molecule's ___________ ____________ to piggyback a ride
concentration gradient
243
Lipophilic ligands have receptors in the _______
nucleus
244
Cholesterols/steroids have receptors in the __________
nucleus
245
Receptors _________ and _________ a signal
detect/regognize
amplify
246
Acetylcholine opens ion channels and causes cell __________
depolarization
247
Most widely used 2nd messenger in cell signaling
cAMP
248
Does Gs increase PKA effects?
yes
249
Does Gi increase PKA effects?
no
