Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The outer layer of the embryo is produced by which primary germ layer?

A

Ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The posterior region of the drosophila oocyte contains relatively high levels of which active protein?

A

The Caudal an Manos Gene (codes for Homeodomain Transcription Factor) develop posterior while Bicoid and Hunchback Gene develop anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If the surface tension of (B) is stronger than (a) cells will likely segregate as in:

A

If there is more surface tension in b, the cells will migrate more centrally towards b or go towards the middle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mutations affecting myostatin gene lead to

A

The muscle hypertrophy/hyperplasia is a rare genetic condition that reduces body fat and increases skeletal muscle size. If muscles stop dividing then it is an example of a gene having defective splicing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pioneer Transcription Factors

A
  1. Binds to condensed chromatins (heterochromatin)
  2. Open DNA
  3. Repress Chromatin and bind to DNA
  4. Recruits transcription factors and histones modifying enzymes that induce specific cell lineage
  5. Initiate regulatory events
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mutations affecting a splicing site can lead to:

A
  1. Developmental phenotypes, abnormalities, diseases and cell death
  2. They can have deletions that are needed to correct disruption in reading frames
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or false: Eukaryotic genes expressed in specific cell types are regulated by enhancer sequences that influence gene transcription in both time and space.

A

True, it tells the location and when gene expression occurs. Enhancers recruit transcription factors to start transcription after they have banded to promoter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cadherins function via direct binding between cadherin molecules on one cell and

A

This is cell to cell adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

RNA transcripts are translated into an active protein after

A

Fertilization and post transcriptional regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The mediator complex

A

Aids in forming the transcription pre-initation complex. Subunit assembly is needed to regulate expression of RNA Polymerase II transcripts. Chromatin DNA that coils around nucleosome will bind and stabilize RNA Polymerase II and cofactors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Quail cells differ from chick cells for:

A

Quail eggs look different because they have heterochromatin that is concentrated around the nucleoli.
They put some quail embryos in a duck embryo and were able to trace the DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gene activation can result from

A

Transcription factors that bind to enhancers and promoters.
Enhancer will recruit the factors to start transcription.
Factor will bind to promoter, where RNA Polymerase II binds and they form the transcription complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Enhancers can

A
  1. Recruits transcription factors to start transcription
  2. Intensify the level
  3. Interacts with distal promoters
  4. Active genes on same chromosome
  5. Binds to different specific Transcription Factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Transcription factors can

A
  1. Determine Cell Specific gene expression
  2. Silencers (repressors) will prevent transcription
  3. Promote transcriptions by binding to the promoter
  4. Master TF controls batteries of functional related genes (Ex: AB on all genes)
  5. Control on/off genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Catherine can have a cytoplasmic region that binds directly to:

A

The actin cytoskeleton of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which nuclease is commonly found in transcriptionally repressed genes?

A

The 5th base
Modification of cytosine after DNA replication, cytosine is converted 5 methyl cytosine and blocks transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tissue specific expression of genes can be controlled

A

Differential gene expression
By Enhancer regions of genes expressed cell types. Cell Differentiations leads to stem cells. Cells have specific features necessary for function. Specification is multistep process. Speciation that determination then differentiation. Is specification there’s still a possibility for change, but once determined it won’t change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following processes is utilized for modulation of gene expression?

A

A modular transcriptional regulatory region is Pax6 as an activator of distinct gene. It needs specific transcription factors to happen. It has enhancer elements to express genes. They can be in different regions, with different enhancers.
Med 26, initiates the elongation complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

miRNA can

A

Prevent translation during post transcription. Specific genes encode miRNA and can silence certain RNA that wants to be translated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

methylated DNA

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In-situ hybridization and immune labelling using antibodies are techniques respectively used to label mRNA and proteins. Which of the following statements is true?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following concepts is true (somatic cells and genome…)?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chromatin Immuno-Precipitation Sequencing (ChiP-Seq) is

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A mouse cloned from nuclei derived from a B or T lymphocyte will

25
Q

In cell dissociation and re-aggreation experiments the relative position of cells depends upon

26
Q

MI430 in Zebrafish

27
Q

Different combination of transcription factors can induce cells to acquire different fates

28
Q

Which of the following cellular events is crucial for bat wing formation

29
Q

Genomic imprinting is the phenomenon by which

30
Q

SPlice variants of the Drosophila DsCam

31
Q

How many types of histone proteins are in a condensed nucleosome?

32
Q

Chimeric quail-chicken animals are generated to

33
Q

Methylation of histones occurs on the amino acid

34
Q

Methylation of histone H3 can result in

35
Q

Developmental abnormalities can result fro exposure to exogenous agents including

36
Q

Which process is utilized during tissue morphogenesis

37
Q

The DNA methylation pattern in the zygote becomes modified during the processof differentiation

38
Q

Which one of the listed proteins has a role in keeping chromatin condensed?

39
Q

Whittaker experiment on tunicates proved that

40
Q

Highest transcriptome similarities among vertebrate occur during.

41
Q

A syndrome is

42
Q

Which of the following characteristics makes the frog a good animal model for the study of development?

43
Q

Degradation of mRNA molecules

44
Q

Non uniform mRNA distribution within a cell can result from

45
Q

c-Kit mutations lead to

46
Q

Maternal mRNA in the developing Zebrafish is cleared as a the result of

47
Q

Homologous structures

48
Q

To de-differentiate somatic cells into a pluripotent stem cell

49
Q

Which of the following sentences better defines what ribosomal selectivity is?

50
Q

Reprogramming of somatic cells can be

51
Q

Casein mRNA stability

52
Q

Micro RNA inhibit translation by

53
Q

Futile cycle mutants fail to go through pronuclear fusion

54
Q

Autonomous specification

55
Q

Autonomous

A

Inherited determinants

56
Q

Conditional

A

Conditions/interactions with other cells effects development. Morphogens, molecules that trigger activation of different cell types based on concentrations.

57
Q

Synacytial

A

Nuclei divides, there are factors in the cytoplasm that triggers differential, distinct gene expression based on its position in the blastoderm, anterior-posterior axis.

58
Q

Molarity

A

Genes in a different part of the body have different enhancers and same DNA but read differently

59
Q

2 ways to inhibits translation

A
  1. Degrading RNA occurs if the seed complement is perfect.
  2. Block transcription occurs if the seed complement is imperfect.