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BIO 141 Lecture > Exam #1 > Flashcards

Exam #1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the basic components of a cell?

A

Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, extracellular fluid and extracellular matrix

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2
Q

what is the plasma membrane composed of?

A

phospholipids, cholesterol, proteins

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3
Q

What percent of Plasma membrane is made up of lipids?

A

98%

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4
Q

What percent of the lipids that make up the plasma membrane are phospholipids?

A

75%

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5
Q

What is the function of cholesterol in a phospholipid?

A

To hold phospholipids still and stiffen the membrane

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6
Q

What kind of lipids attach to the heads of a phopholipid?

A

Glycolipid

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7
Q

Phospholipids are nonpolar and polar which makes them what?

A

Amphipathic

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8
Q

The head of the phospholipid is while the tail is what?

A

Hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails

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9
Q

what is tissue fluid also known as?

A

Interstitial fluid

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10
Q

What is the fluid outside of the cells that includes interstitial fluid?

A

Extracellular fluid

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11
Q

What is the extracellular matrix?

A

Space around the outside of the cell adjacent to the plasma membrane

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12
Q

What is the cell theory?

A
  1. All cells only arise from cells
  2. Every living organism is composed of cells
  3. Cell is the smallest unit of life
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13
Q

The plasma membrane has permeability because of what two things?

A

Phospholipids and integral proteins

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14
Q

Membrane proteins are also known as what?

A

Integral proteins

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15
Q

What is the purpose of a channel protein?

A

Allows for movement of specific substances across the plasma membrane

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16
Q

What are the two types of channel proteins?

A

A leak channel and a gated channel

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17
Q

what is a leak channel?

A

a channel that is always open to allow material to pass through continually

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18
Q

what is a gated channel?

A

A channel that opens and closes under different circumstances

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19
Q

What are the three types of gated channels

A

Ligand, voltage and mechanical gated

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20
Q

what is a ligand gated channel?

A

A channel that responds to chemical messengers

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21
Q

what is a voltage gated channel?

A

Senses a change in potential voltage across the plasma membrane

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22
Q

what is the purpose of a receptor protein?

A

it binds extracellular substances via Chemical signals by which cell communicate and can enter the target cell

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23
Q

A receptor protein is ____ because it binds on to a unique active site

A

specific

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24
Q

What is a cell identity marker or recognition protein?

A

tells which cells belong and which are foreign invaders

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25
Q

what is a cell adhesion protein?

A

Cells stick to one another and to extracellular material through the membrane

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26
Q

what is a second messenger protein

A

when a messenger binds to the surface receptor of the cell it may trigger changes within the cell that produce a second messenger in the cytoplasm.

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27
Q

A second messenger protein involves what kind of proteins?

A

transmembrane and peripheral

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28
Q

what do peripheral proteins help with ?

A

stability

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29
Q

Carrier proteins are used in what type of transport mechanism?

A

passive

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30
Q

What do carrier proteins do?

A

move substances in or out of the cell and its specific

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31
Q

what are the three types of carrier proteins?

A
  1. uniport
  2. cotransport
  3. countertransport
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32
Q

what is uniport?

A

Carriers with one type of solute

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33
Q

what is cotransport?

A

Carriers move two or more solutes through a membrane simultaneously in the same direction via symport

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34
Q

what is counter transport?

A

carriers move two or more solutes in opposite direction via an antiport

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35
Q

All cells have an antiport called?

A

Sodium potassium pump which removes sodium ions and brings in potassium ions

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36
Q

Enzyme membrane proteins are also known as what

A

catalysts

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37
Q

name the types of Passive mechanisms

A

Simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis and filtration

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38
Q

What is simple diffusion?

A

The net movement of molecules or ions DOWN and concentration gradient without the use of a protein carrier

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39
Q

What factors affect diffusion?

A
  1. steepness of the gradient
  2. molecular size
  3. temperature
  4. electrical or pressure gradients
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40
Q

Why don’t passive mechanisms require ATP?

A

The random motions of particles provide energy

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41
Q

what is facilitated diffusion?

A

Process of transporting a chemical through a cellular membrane down with the aid of a carrier protein that doesn’t use ATP

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42
Q

Facilitated diffusions allows solutes to move in what direction?

A

Move both ways across the plasma membrane

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43
Q

steroid hormones are ____ which allow them to dissolve through the lipid bilayer

A

nonpolar/ lipid solutes

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44
Q

Large polar ( non lipid soluble) molecules require what carrier protein?

A

Glucose

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45
Q

Define osmosis

A

diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane

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46
Q

The direction of the net flow during osmosis is determined by what?

A

water concentration gradient

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47
Q

The sides with a high concentration of solutes have a ____ concentration of water?

A

lower

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48
Q

How can cells increase the rate of osmosis?

A

By installing more aquaporins

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49
Q

what is an aquaporin?

A

channel proteins that allow water to pass more easily

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50
Q

define osmotic pressure

A

amount if pressure that would have to be applied to one side of a selectively permeable membrane to STOP osmosis

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51
Q

what is reverse osmosis?

A

process by which a mechanical pressure is applied to one side of the system override osmotic pressure and drive water through a membrane against the concentration gradient

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52
Q

The net movement of water across a membrane will be from a area of ____ sodium to ___ sodium

A

Lower sodium to higher sodium

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53
Q

What is filtration

A

using pressure gradient to move substances with the help of a protein carrier.

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54
Q

what is hydrostatic pressure?

A

Physical force generated by a liquid such as blood pressure

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55
Q

Water follows ____

A

salt

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56
Q

Define tonicity and list the types

A

Relative solute concentration of two fluids.
Hypotonic, hypertonic and isotonic

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57
Q

Tonicity affects?

A

the fluid volume and pressure within a cell

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58
Q

Tonicity has the ability to cause ?

A

osmosis

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59
Q

Define hypotonic

A

Having a concentration lower of non permeating solutes in the ICF.
Absorbs H20 and swells

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60
Q

Hypotonic has a net __ in cell

A

net gain in cell

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61
Q

define hypertonic

A

Having a concentration higher of non permeating solutes in ICF
Cells will lose H20

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62
Q

hypertonic has a net ___ of H20 in the cell

A

net loss

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63
Q

Define isotonic

A

total concentration of non permeating solutes is the same as ICF
No change in cell volume or shape

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64
Q

What is the net change of H20 in a isotonic solution?

A

There is no net loss or gain of water within the cell

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65
Q

NaCl is what percent of which type of solution?

A

0.9 % of isotonic solution also referred to as normal saline

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66
Q

Active mechanisms consume ____?

A

ATP

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67
Q

what are the types of Active mechanisms?

A

Active transport and vesicular

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68
Q

Define active transport

A

process which carries a substance through a membrane UP the concentration gradient using ATP

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69
Q

ATP supplies energy by transferring a ______ to a transport protein making it _____.

A

Phosphate and becomes ADP

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70
Q

An active transport protein is a ?

A

pump which binds solutes transport against chemical gradient

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71
Q

The sodium potassium pump ( one cycle) consumes how many atp? and exchanges what?

A

Consumes 1 atp and exchanges 3 Na ions for 2 potassium ions

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72
Q

The sodium potassium pump generates what?

A

The resting membrane potential

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73
Q

What is the resting membrane potential?

A

Inside of the membrane becomes negatively charged relative to the outside

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74
Q

ATP ———-> ADP + P is an example of what reaction?

A

Exergonic reaction

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75
Q

What are the functions of the sodium potassium pump?

A
  1. secondary active transport
  2. regulation of cell volume
  3. maintenance of membrane potential
  4. heat production
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76
Q

What are the membranous organelles?

A

Nucleus, mitochondria, small vesicles, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex

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77
Q

Name the non-membranous organelles

A

Ribosomes and centrosomes

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78
Q

what is a proteasome

A

Gets rid of nonfunctional proteins

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79
Q

What is the function of peroxisomes?

A

To use molecular oxygen to oxidize organic molecules

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80
Q

where are peroxisomes most abundant?

A

In the liver and kidney

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81
Q

Purpose of the mitochondria

A

Site for ATP synthesis

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82
Q

Where specifically is ATP synthesized in the mitochondria?

A

The cristae

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83
Q

How much ATP is in the Cristae?

A

36-38 ATP that must have oxygen

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84
Q

The matrix can make how much ATP without oxygen?

A

two ATP

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85
Q

Define inclusions

A

any visible object in the cytoplasm of the cell other than an organelle or cytoskeletal element typically is a foreign body

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86
Q

What is the glycocalyx

A

The outer covering of the cell external to the plasma membrane
its fuzzy

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87
Q

Name the functions of the glycocalyx

A

protection, cancer defence , transplant compatibility, immunity to infection, cell adhesion, fertilization and embryonic development.

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88
Q

What is purpose of a microvilli?

A

increase the surface area for absporbtion

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89
Q

describe. glycoprotein

A

protein with a carbohydrate attached

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90
Q

describe glycolipid

A

lipid with a carbohydrate attached

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91
Q

The amount of potassium ions will be ___ inside the cell compared to the number of sodium ions.

A

HIGHER

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92
Q

Define element

A

Simplest form of matter with unique chemical properties

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93
Q

Each element is defined by what?

A

an atomic number

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94
Q

what are the major elements found within the body?

A

O,C, H,N,Ca, P

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95
Q

What are the lesser elements found within the body?

A

K, Na and S

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96
Q

What is inside the atomic nucleus?

A

Protons and neutrons

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97
Q

Where are electrons located?

A

Around the nucleus in electron shells

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98
Q

The # of electrons are equal to the # of ______

A

Protons

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99
Q

what are valance electrons?

A

electrons found in the outer most shells

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100
Q

The first electron can have only ___ electrons

A

2

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101
Q

What are isotopes

A

Elements with different number of neutrons

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102
Q

Radioisotopes are____

A

unstable

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103
Q

define radioactivity

A

is the process of decay

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104
Q

define ionizing radiation

A

High energy radiation emitted by radioisotopes and ejects electrosn from atoms thus converting atoms to ions

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105
Q

ionizing radiation destroys____ and ___

A

destroys molecules and produces danger free radical and ions in human tissue

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106
Q

Define physical half life

A

The time required for 50% if its atoms to decay to more stable isotopes

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107
Q

define biological half life

A

The time required for 50% of it to disappear from the body

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108
Q

Each element has ____ radioisotopes

A

at least 1

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109
Q

Define ions

A

Charged particles with unequal # of protons and electrons

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110
Q

define anion

A

Gains electrons and acquires a negative charge (-)

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111
Q

Define cation

A

Loses electrons acquires a positive charge (+)

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112
Q

Ions with opposite charges ______ each other

A

attract

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113
Q

What are electrolytes?

A

Substances that ionize in water ( acids,bases or salts) and forms solutions that are capable of conduction electricity

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114
Q

What are free radicals

A

Unstable, highly reactive particles with an odd # of electrons

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115
Q

define molecule

A

2 or more atoms united by chemical bond

116
Q

define a compound

A

twow or more elements combined

117
Q

define isomer

A

identical molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms

118
Q

define molecular weight

A

sum of the atomic weights of its atoms

119
Q

what is a chemical bond

A

force that holds molecules together or attract 1 molecule to another

120
Q

what are the types of chemical bonds

A

ionic,covalent, hydrogen

121
Q

what is an ionic bond

A

weak attract between cation and anion

122
Q

identify a covalent bond

A

sharing of 1 or more pairs of electrons

123
Q

what is a non polar covalent bond

A

electrons are shared equally

124
Q

what is a polar covalent bond

A

electrons are shared unequally

125
Q

what is a hydrogen bond

A

weak attraction between atoms with a partial negative charge and a partial positive charge

126
Q

List the order of chemical bonds from strongest to weakest

A

Covalent, ionic and hydrogen

127
Q

what is a mixture

A

substance physically blended but not chemically combined

128
Q

water is know as the _______ solvent

A

universal

129
Q

What is a solution

A

solutes mixed with 1 or more solvents

130
Q

colloids are mixtures that are

A

too large and scatter light particles

131
Q

define emulsion

A

suspension of liquid to another
ex: oil and vinegar

132
Q

Acid is a proton____

A

donor because it releases H+ in H20

133
Q

Base is a proton _____

A

acceptor OH- accepts H+

134
Q

define pH

A

acidity measured in terms of molarity of hydrogen ions

135
Q

a pH of zero is considered what?

A

Acidic

136
Q

a pH of 7 is considered what?

A

neutral

137
Q

a pH of 14 is considered what?

A

basic or alkaline

138
Q

a change from one pH to another is how much?

A

10 fold change

139
Q

what is the blood ph range?

A

7.35-7.45

140
Q

what is energy?

A

the capacity to do work

141
Q

define potential energy

A

energy contained because of its position

142
Q

chemical energy is

A

energy stored in bonds of molecules

143
Q

define free energy

A

energy available to do useful work

144
Q

define kinetic energy

A

energy of motion and doing work

145
Q

heat is what type of energy

A

kinetic because its the energy of molecular motion

146
Q

define chemical reaction

A

a covalent bond or ionic bond is formed or broken

147
Q

define decomposition reaction

A

large molecules broken into 2 or more smaller molecules
AB——> A+B

148
Q

define synthesis reaction

A

2 or more molecules combined to form a larger one
A+B——–> AB

149
Q

define exchange reaction

A

2 molecules exchange atoms or groups of atoms
AB+CD———> AC+ BD

150
Q

define reversible reaction

A

can go in either direction under different circumstances

151
Q

reversible reaction must follow what law?

A

the law of mass action, they proceed from reactants in the greater quantity to lesser ones

152
Q

a reversible reaction exists in what state?

A

State of equilibrium, the ratio of products to reactants is stable

153
Q

is a synthesis reaction endergonic or exergonic?

A

endergonic

154
Q

is a decomposition reaction endergonic or exergonic?

A

exergonic

155
Q

What three things affect reaction rates?

A

concentration, temperature and catalysts

156
Q

what is a catalyst?

A

Catalyst temporarily bind to reactants , hold them in in favorable positions to react and may change shape

157
Q

define anabolism

A

energy storing synthesis reaction ( endergonic)

158
Q

define endergonic

A

requires energy input

159
Q

define oxidation

A

molecules give up electrons and release energy

160
Q

what is a oxidizing agent

A

a substance in a redox chemical reaction that gains or “accepts”/”receives” an electron from a reducing agent.
Any substance that oxidizes another substance

161
Q

oxidizing agent an electron ____

A

acceptor

162
Q

define reduction

A

a molecule gains electrons and energy

163
Q

when you accept electrons you _____?

A

reduce.

164
Q

When you donate an electron this is known as the _____ agent

A

reducing

165
Q

REDOX reaction is

A

the exchange of electrons between reactants

166
Q

catabolism is

A

a exergonic reaction meaning it is energy releasing

167
Q

what is a functional group

A

Small cluster of atoms that determine the unique properties of a organic molecule

168
Q

dehydration synthesis

A

creation of larger molecules from smaller monomers were water molecule is released

169
Q

hydrolysis

A

two molecules join into a larger one and eject a a water molecule

170
Q

how are covalent bonds broken

A

they are broken by adding an OH to one side of the molecule and a H to the other

171
Q

What is the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen in carbohydrates

A

2:1

172
Q

what is the carbohydrate isomer?

A

C6,H2,06
1:2:1

173
Q

are carbohydrates hydrophilic or hydrophobic

A

hydrophillic

174
Q

what is the monomer of a carbohydrate?

A

monosaccharide

175
Q

give an example of a monosaccharide

A

glucose or fructose

176
Q

give an example of a disaccharide

A

sucrose, lactose, maltose

177
Q

give an example of polysaccharide

A

glycogen or starch

178
Q

what is the function of a lipid

A

energy, structure and signaling

179
Q

are lipids hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

hydrophobic

180
Q

monomer of lipids?

A

fatty acids and glycerol

181
Q

fatty acids are in a _____ chain

A

carbon

182
Q

saturated fatty acids

A

tightly packed solid @ room temp and single bonds only

183
Q

unsaturated fatty acid

A

plant fat that is liquid at room temp and has 1 or more double bonds

184
Q

phospholipid

A

major component of a cell mebrane

185
Q

steroid

A

cholesterol primarily

186
Q

cholesterol is arranged in what pattern

A

ring

187
Q

what is the most abundant lipid

A

tryglyceride

188
Q

what are the monomers of a protein

A

amino acid

189
Q

amino acids are made up of what?

A

amino group ( NH+), carboxyl ( COO-) and r group

190
Q

what is a peptide

A

2 or more amino acids joined by peptide bonds

191
Q

peptide bonds need what element specifically?

A

nitrogen

192
Q

how many amino acids are in the body?k

A

20

193
Q

what makes up the protein’s structure?

A

keratin

194
Q

name the levels of protein structure

A

primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary

195
Q

what is the primary level ( protein)

A

sequence of amino acids

196
Q

what is the secondary level of amino acids

A

Alpha helix or beta pleated sheets shape held together by hydrogen bonds

197
Q

define tertiary level of protein structure

A

bending and folding of proteins into globular and fibrous shapes

198
Q

define quaternary level of protein structure

A

2 or more poly peptides chains by noncovalent forces such as ionic or hydrogen bonds

199
Q

define denaturation

A

conformation change in extreme heat or pH

200
Q

what is a communication ligand?

A

chemical messenger released by 1 cell to signal either itself or a different cell

201
Q

what is the building block of nucleic acid

A

nucleotide

202
Q

What are the complementary base pairs of DNA?

A

AT CG

203
Q

what are the complementary base pairs of RNA

A

AU CG

204
Q

transcription

A

process of copying DNA sequence into RNA sequence

205
Q

Transcription is a ____ event

A

nuclear

206
Q

in transcription what unwinds the DNA

A

RNA polymerase

207
Q

what are the 3 stop codons

A

uga,uaa,uag

208
Q

what is the start codon

A

AUG

209
Q

define translation

A

synthesizing a chain of amino acids called a polypeptide

210
Q

mRNA

A

brings genetic code to ribosomes

211
Q

Trna brings amino acids to

A

ribosomes

212
Q

translation is a. _____ event

A

cytoplasmic

213
Q

enzymes ____ a reactions activation energy

A

lowers

214
Q

the suffix ase indicates what

A

enzymes

215
Q

all enzymes are what biomolecule?

A

protein

216
Q

enzymes are ____ to the substrate

A

specific

217
Q

define active site

A

where substrates bind and reactions takes places

218
Q

you need _____ for a reaction to occur

A

the active site

219
Q

define induced fit

A

enzymes changes shape slightly when it binds to the substrate resulting in an even tighter fit.

220
Q

what factors can affect an enzyme

A

temperature and pH

221
Q

what are the steps of an enzyme

A
  1. substrate enters the active site of enzyme
  2. becomes the enzyme substrate complex or lock and key model. this is because the enzyme changes shape slightly as the substrate binds
  3. products leave the active sight and the enzyme is recycled
222
Q

name the body cavities

A

ventral and dorsal

223
Q

what makes up the ventral cavity

A

thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

224
Q

what makes up the dorsal cavity

A

the cranial and vertebral cavitiy

225
Q

what is anatomical position

A

standing upright, arms by the side with palms facing forwards and feet flat

226
Q

define homeostasis

A

state of equilibrium of the internal environment maintained by dynamic process of feedback and regulation

227
Q

define anatomy

A

the study of structure

228
Q

define physiology

A

the study of functions of the body

229
Q

what is gross anatomy

A

examining the external structures of the body

230
Q

what are the parts of a gross anatomy

A

inspection,palpation, auscultation, percussion and dissection

231
Q

inspection is

A

physical exam or making a clinical DX from surface appearance

232
Q

palpatation

A

feeling a structure with the hands

233
Q

auscultation

A

listening to natural sounds made by the body

234
Q

percussion

A

examiner taps on the body and feels of abnormal resistance and listens to emmitted sounds

235
Q

percussion abnormalities include

A

pockets of fluid, air or scary tissue

236
Q

dissection

A

examining structure by cutting and separating human body tissue to reveal tissue relationships

237
Q

define medical imaging

A

nonsurgical ways of looking into the body

238
Q

list the type of medical imaging

A

radiography, ultrasound, mri, pet CT scan

239
Q

x-ray or radiography

A

dense tissue , white

240
Q

CT/ CAT

A

3d images

241
Q

Ultrasound US

A

use of soundwaves

242
Q

MRI- magnetic resonance imaging

A

best of soft tissue

243
Q

Positron emission tomography

A

metabolic state of tissue

244
Q

hippocrates

A

the father of medicine and created the hippocratic oath

245
Q

aristotle

A

believed complex structures were built from simpler parts

246
Q

robert hooke

A

first tos see and name cells with a compound microscope

247
Q

antony van leeuwenhoek

A

invented a simple microscope to look at fabrics at a greater magnification ( 200x)

248
Q

schledidan and schwanna

A

concluded that all organisms are composed of cells. creators of the cell theory

249
Q

william harvey

A

discovered circulation

250
Q

what parts of a experimental design ensures objective and reliable results

A

sample size, controls, accountable for psychosomatic effects, avoid experimenter’s bias, statistical testing and peer review

251
Q

sample size

A

of subjects in a study

252
Q

controis

A

constraints that the experimenter places on the experiment to ensure each subject has the same conditions

253
Q

control group

A

group that doesnt recieve the zperimental trewatment

254
Q

psychosomatic

A

effects ona. subjects state of mind of their physiology

255
Q

placebo

A

substance w/o significant physiological effect on the body

256
Q

statistical testing

A

provides statement of probability that the treatment was effective

257
Q

peer review

A

Critical evaluation by experts in the field

258
Q

inductive

A

set of empirical observations, seeking patterns. and theorizing about the patterns. Can be falsifiable using a test on observable data

259
Q

hypotheticdeductive

A

asking a question and creating a hypothesis

260
Q

theory

A

explanatory statement or set of statement derived from facts, laws and confirmed hypothesis

261
Q

law of nature

A

generalization about the predictions because of the way matter and energy behave

262
Q

natural selection

A

the process by which individuals with certain heritable traits tend to produce more surviving offspring than individuals without those traits

263
Q

evolution

A

change in populations over a period of time

264
Q

adaptation

A

any heritable trait that increases the fitness of an individual with that trait compared to individuals without it in a particular environment

265
Q

levels of organization

A

chemical,cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organismal level

266
Q

what are the defining characteristics of life

A

organization, metabolism, cellular composition`, development( growth and differentiation ) responsiveness, reproduction and evolution

267
Q

what is a positive feedback mechanism

A

amplification of the stimuli changes

268
Q

what is a negative feed back loop

A

senses a change and activates a mechanism to negate or reverse it

269
Q

what are the parts of a neg feedback loop

A

receptor, integrating center, and effector

270
Q

receptor

A

senses change and sends info to the integrating center

271
Q

integrating center

A

compares the info received from the receptor to the normal levels for the body then sends the appropriate response to the effector

272
Q

effector

A

carries out the final corrective action

273
Q

list the organ systems

A

respiratory, skeletal, muscular, endocrine, lymphatic, integumentary, reproductive, urinary, cardiovascular, nervous , digestive

274
Q

integumentary system function and organs

A

protection, regulates temperature and prevents water loss, skin, hair nails

275
Q

digestive system organs and function

A

breaks down food into substances that cells can absorb
mouth, stomach, liver, intestines

276
Q

lymphatic system function and organs

A

returns fluid to blood and defends against pathogens
thymus, lymph node

277
Q

respiratory system function and organs

A

removes CO2 from the body anbd delivers O2 to blood
nasal passage, trahea, lungs

278
Q

urinary system function and organs

A

controls H20 balance and removes waste from blood and excretes it
urinary bladder, kidney

279
Q

reproductive system organs and function

A

M: produce sex hormones and deliver gamete to female
F: produce sex hormones and support embry, produce milk
mammary glands, uterus, epididymis

280
Q

skeletal system function and organs

A

support body and enables movement with the help of the muscular system
bones, joints, cartilage

281
Q

muscular system function and organs

A

skeletal muscles and tendons

282
Q

nervous system function and organs

A

detects and processes sensory information and activates the body’s response
brain, spinal cord and peripheral nerves

283
Q

endocrine system function and organs

A

secretes hormones that regulate body processes
pancrea, thyroid gland, pituitary gland

284
Q

cardiovascular system functions and organs

A

delivers O2 and nutrients to tissues and equalizes temp in body
heart and blood vesseks

285
Q

where is glycogen stored

A

liver and skeletal muscle

BIO 141 Lecture (1 decks)

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