Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a stroke?

A

Physiological condition which occurs when the blood supply to part of
the brain is interrupted leading to insufficient supply of oxygen and
nutrients to the area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do strokes first present?

A
Alteration in consciousness
■ Headache
■ Aphasia
■ Facial weakness or asymmetry
■ Incoordination
■ Ataxia
■ Visual loss, vertigo, double vision, unilateral hearing loss, nausea,
vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the FAST mean?

A

F- face dropping
A- arm weakness
S- speech difficulty
T- time to call 911

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the different types of strokes?

A

Focal Ischemic

Global Ischemic

Hemorrhagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a Focal Ischemic stroke?

A

Is the result from vessel occlusion which causes a focal defect

Ct scan shows Edema presents with reduced density
(darker region)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is acetylcholine affected with AD?

A
Changes neurotransmission.
■Decreases in acetylcholine in AD 
patients 
– Choline acetyltransferase 
synthesis decreases
– Loss of neurons in the basal 
nucleus of Meynert
decreases projections
– Common treatment in AD 
are acetyl cholinesterase 
inhibitors, drugs keep it around longer in neuron so that you end up with same amount, works early on
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a Global Ischemic stroke?

A

It is the Global reduction in blood flow (for example through cardiac
insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a Hemorrhagic stroke?

A

It is the Rupture of a blood vessel

A CT scan shows Iron in blood absorbs Xrays- creates hyperdense
white region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is lack of blood flow so detrimental?

A
■ Brain consumes massive amount of
energy to maintain ion gradients!
– But only stores a 120 second ATP
supply
– And neurons have no glycogen
storage
– Evolutionary trade off: increased
neuronal number but constant
need for nutrient perfusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What generates the most ATP?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation generates the most
ATP, requires both glucose and oxygen which is delivered through the circulatory system.

ATP usage is in neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What provides the brain with oxygen and glucose?

A

Cerebral vascular provides the brain with
glucose and oxygen

Diffusion requires vessel to be within 50um of
neurons - Lots of capillaries!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the typical clotting cascade?

A

bleeding happens- clotting factors- Prothrombin- Thrombin- Fibrinogen (soluble)- Fibrin(insoluble)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the typical cascade of clot degradation?

A
  1. TPA (a clot buster and FDA approved treatment of stroke)
  2. Plasminogen- plasmin
    3.Fibrin- degraded
    clot breaks up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two types of blood clots?

A

■ Intrinsic
– Triggered by internal damage to the blood vessel
■ Extrinsic
– Triggered by trauma
– Of interest for stroke because of atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Atherosclerosis?

A

Build up of fatty deposits in large
and medium-sized arteries leading
to the formation of plaques
■ Severe build-up blocks blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the Pathogenesis of plaque formation?

A

■ Foam cells weaken the arterial wall
■ Smooth muscle cells invade the plaque and form a fibrous cap
■ If the cap ruptures, an embolus is released, travels through the blood stream
– If it gets stuck- ischemic stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Ischemic Cascade?

A
Theres a flow disturbance
Rapid:
O2 depletion
energy failure
terminal depolarization
ion homeostasis failure

Secondary:
excitotoxicity
SD-like depolarizations
disturbance of ion homeostasis

Delayed:
inflammation
apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The Ischemic Cascade leads to what?

A

O2 and glucose
depletion lead to energy failure
■ ATP cannot be synthesized in adequate amounts

Loss of resting
membrane potential
■ Na+/K+ stops functioning
– Resting membrane potential slowly lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Terminal depolarization in the ischemic cascade?

A
■ Neurons hit
depolarization
threshold within
minutes
■ Unregulated action
potentials begin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the Calcium influx in the Ischemic Cascade?

A
■ Action potential initiates the
opening of the voltage-gated
Ca2+ channel at the axon
terminal
– Further depolarization of
the neuron
Look at slide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes Neuronal death?

A
Neuronal death in the core results primarily
from edema and necrosis
■ As ions enter the cell, osmosis
occurs leading to cell swelling
(edema)
■ Cellular membranes are
ruptured
■ Necrosis ensues

(Mitochondrial damage, cell membrane disruption, production of free radicals, cytoskeletal breakdown, and DNA fragmentation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes Neuronal death?

A
Neuronal death in the core results primarily
from edema and necrosis
■ As ions enter the cell, osmosis
occurs leading to cell swelling
(edema)
■ Cellular membranes are
ruptured
■ Necrosis ensues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the Ischemic penumbra?

A
■ Ischemic penumbra- tissue
surrounding the core that is
perfused insufficiently by
collateral vessels
■ Focus of intervention
strategies
– Can be saved if
perfusion occurs within
6- 24 hours
Excitotoxicity leads to cell death in the
penumbra
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are treatments for strokes? (tPA)

A

■ Intravenous administration of tPA protein to
promote clot breakdown
■ Must be administered within the first 4.5
hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are treatments for strokes? (Mechanical thrombectomy)

A

■ Angioplasty
■ Physical removal of the clot
through endovascular surgery
with a stent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an experimental stroke treatment?

A

NMDA blocker

look at slide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is action potential?

A

Electrical signals travel down the axon as
ion channels open and close

Every cell has a voltage (difference in electrical charge) across its plasma membrane called a membrane potential
■ The resting potential is the membrane potential of a neuron not sending signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is resting membrane potential?

A

Maintained predominantly by the potassium leak channel
– Aided by sodium leak channel and Na+/K+ pump
Gated ion channels are responsible for electrical signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is hyperpolarization?

A

The inside of the cell more negative
– For example, K+ exiting the cell or Cl entering the cell

Graded hyperpolarizations produced
by two stimuli that increase
membrane permeability to K+.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is depolarization?

A

The inside of the cell becomes more
positive
■ For example, Na+ channels open and
Na+ diffuses into the cell

Graded depolarizations produced
by two stimuli that increase
membrane permeability to Na+.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is action potential concerning polarization?

A

An action potential is an extreme depolarization
of the neuron

(c) Action potential triggered by a
depolarization that reaches the
threshold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the first step of an action potential?

A
Resting state: Voltage gated Na+ and K+
channels are closed;
resting potential is
maintained by ungated
channels (not shown).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the second step of an action potential?

A
Depolarization: A stimulus
(ligand) opens some Na+
channels; if threshold is
reached, an action
potential is triggered.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the third step of an action potential?

A
More Na+ channels
(voltage gated)
open, K+ channels remain
closed; interior of cell
becomes more positive.
Membrane polarity
becomes the reverse
of resting state.
3
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the fourth step of an action potential?

A
Repolarization: voltage-gated
Na+ channels close and
inactivate; voltage-gated
K+ channels
open, and K+ rushes out;
interior of cell becomes
more negative than outside.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the fifth and final step of an action potential before the resting state?

A

The voltage-gated K+ channels close relatively slowly, causing
a brief undershoot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why do action potentials only work in one direction?

A
-Inactivated Na+ channels
behind the zone of
depolarization prevent the
action potential from traveling
backwards
-During the refractory period after an action potential, a second action potential cannot be initiated because of the temporary inactivation of the Na+ channels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why do action potentials only work in one direction?

A
-Inactivated Na+ channels
behind the zone of
depolarization prevent the
action potential from traveling
backwards
-During the refractory period after an action potential, a second action potential cannot be initiated because of the temporary inactivation of the Na+ channels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens in the nodes of Ranvier during an action potential?

A
-Voltage-gated channels are
restricted to nodes of Ranvier
■ Action potentials in myelinated
axons jump between the nodes of
Ranvier in a process called saltatory
conduction
38
Q

What happens when an action potential reaches the synaptic terminal?

A
1- Increased Ca2+
level through
voltage-gated Ca2+
channels cause
vesicles
to release
neurotransmitters
by exocytosis
2- Neurotransmitters
can act as ligands
that affect ion
channels on the
posy-synaptic neuron
39
Q

How do chemical synapses integrate information?

A

When a neurotransmitter makes a neuron less likely to fire, it is
inhibiting its firing: Inhibitory post
-synaptic potential (IPSP)– GABA
■ When a neurotransmitter makes a neuron
more likely to fire, it causes an excitatory
postsynaptic potential (EPSP)–Glutamate
■ The summation of excitation and inhibition determines whether or not it will transmit a nerve signal

40
Q

Can a single EPSP trigger an action potential?

A

A single EPSP is usually too small to trigger an

action potential in a postsynaptic neuron

41
Q

What is temporal summation?

A

Two ESPS, (time) summation, creates an action potential

42
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

Same charge: Adding enough positive charges from different
neurons can be enough
to trigger an action
potential

Opposing charges: Adding together opposing charges can prevent an action potential

43
Q

What are seizures?

A

■ Abnormal, highly synchronous electrical activity of a restricted brain
region, or in some cases encompassing the whole brain
■ Having a seizure does not make a person epileptic

Seizures can be detected using an EEG
■ Electroencephalograph (EEG)

44
Q

What are the different types of seizures?

A
Seizures
■ Focal (Partial) Seizures
– focal seizure without
cognitive impairment
(simple)
– focal seizure with cognitive
impairment (complex)
 Generalized Seizures
– Absence
– Tonic-clonic
– Atonic
– Myoclonic
45
Q

What is Status Epilepticus?

A

■ A seizure that lasts longer than 5 minutes, or having more than 1
seizure within a 5 minutes period, without returning to a normal level
of consciousness between episodes
■ Medical emergency that can lead to death

46
Q

What is Epilepsy?

A

Spontaneous, repeated unprovoked seizures
■ Genetic/idiopathic epilepsy
– Channelopathies
– Presents in early childhood and adolescence
Symptomatic or acquired epilepsy
– Well defined underlying cause
Seizures are caused by excitation/inhibition imbalance

47
Q

Why does Epilepsy require network firing?

A

■ Group of neurons spontaneously develop synchronous firing
– Excitation passed through gap junctions
– Alterations in inhibitory signals from basket cells

– Groups of neurons that are individually hyperexcitable
■ Increase in extracellular K+
– Abnormal interactions between groups of neurons
■ Ion channel mutations

48
Q

What is Epileptogenesis?

A

■ Little research done on period of time before seizures begin when rewiring most likely occurs

49
Q

What reuptake happens by Astrocytes?

A

Reuptake of Glutamate; Excess glutamate taken in by
astrocytes at the synapse and
converted to glutamine

50
Q

How do ion channels change with epilepsy?

A

■ Exome sequencing often reveals mutation in ion channels in
individuals suffering from epilepsy
– De novo
– familial

51
Q

What are the genetics of Epilepsy?

A
Monozygotic twins- if one is
affected, there is a 50-60%
chance the other will be as well
■ Dizygotic Twins- 15%
■ Closely related relative have a 5X
higher risk of developing epilepsy
than the general population
Epilepsy Tends to Have Autosomal
Dominant Inheritance
52
Q

What is Monogenetic Epilepsy?

A

Single gene mutation seems to explain the development of disease
■ SCN1A- encodes for the alpha subunit of the neuronal voltage gated
channel responsible for the AP

53
Q

What is the SCNA1 mutations with epilepsy?

A
■ Missense mutations
may or may not cause
epilepsy
■ Truncations almost
anywhere are causative
■ Different mutations
cause different
phenotypes
SCN2A mutations are seen in familial epilepsy
54
Q

What are KCNQ2 mutations in epilepsy?

A
Voltage gated K+ channel
■ Mutations tend to slow
the repolarization of the
cell
■ Associated with benign
familiar neonatal
seizures
55
Q

What are GABA receptor mutations?

A

Reduced GABA receptor mediated inhibition-> increased excitability of pyramidal neurons

56
Q

What are multigenetic causes of epilepsy?

A

■ Combination of small changes leads to a phenotype that may confer
heightened susceptibility to seizure under certain conditions
– Stress
– Hypoxia
– Development linked to a combination of genetic and
environmental factors/triggers

57
Q

How is Kainic acid used?

A
Chemical induction through
injection of glutamate
receptor agonist
■ Focal seizures- often used to
mimic frontal lobe seizures
58
Q

What is the Kindling Model?

A
Recurrent electrical
stimulation
■ Ultimately seizures present
without stimulation
■ Examine latent period- time
before spontaneous seizure
formation
59
Q

What are Mouse Model advantages?

A

■ EEG abnormalities mirror those seen in humans
■ Abnormal network connections in hippocampus and cortex can be observed
■ Manipulation of transmitter systems shown to cause seizures in mice
– Increase Glutamate
– Decreased GABA
■ Changes in ion channels- gene mutation research
■ Structural changes lead to epilepsy (lesion model)
■ Trauma, infection and vascular changes can be studied

60
Q

What is Astrocytes (emerging targets)?

A
■ Excess glutamate taken in by
astrocytes at the synapse and
converted to glutamine
■ Mutation to transporter (EAAT2)
linked to seizures
■ Mutation to Kir4.1
K+ channel
– extracellular K+
not cleared
– Enhances BDNF
secretion (high
concentrations
linked to epilepsy)
61
Q

How are stem cells connected to epilepsy (emerging targets)?

A

■ Neurogenesis altered following seizures
■ Newborn cells are not incorporated properly into
the circuitry
■ Leads to more seizures

62
Q

What is the Mammalian Target of Rapamycin (mTOR)?

A
Signaling protein associated with growth
and proliferation
■ mTOR in the brain is regulated by
pathways involved in glutamatergic,
excitatory transmissions
■ Rapamycin – drug that can inhibit mTOR
63
Q

How do Antiepileptic drugs work?

A

Act to raise the threshold for neuronal network excitability
■ Over 20 drugs available that target different proteins
■ Augmenting GABA response
Reduction in Na+ channel activity
■ Alter neurotransmitter release

64
Q

What is the goal of epileptic drugs?

A

■ “Freedom from seizures” for 2/3 of individuals
■ Does not always equate with normal EEG activity- just reduction in
behavioral problems

65
Q

How does surgery for epilepsy work?

A

Removal of brain abnormalities that are causing the seizures
■ Surgeon maps areas of the cortex that are essential for language, motor, and
sensory function.
Deep Brain Stimulation
■ Stimulation of the vagus nerve or specific brain structure in focal
seizures can desynchronize the EEG

66
Q

What diet helps epilepsy and why?

A

Ketogenic Diet
■ Typically used in children with drug resistant epilepsy
Switches the bodies primary energy source
from glucose to ketones
– Ketones are created by the liver from
fats
■ Possible that ketones are directly
responsible for seizure reduction?
■ Increase mitochondria production?
■ ATP from glycolysis normally inhibits the K+
channel?

67
Q

How does the nervous system age?

A
■ Neuroplasticity robust throughout
life
■ Lack of brain atrophy
■ Only minor structural changes to
neurotransmission
■ “benign forgetfulness of the
elderly
■ Neurotransmitter levels do not decrease significantly with age
68
Q

What is Dementia?

A

■ Loss of global cognitive ability

■ Syndrome- does not arise from a singular cause

69
Q

What exam do they have people take to gauge dementia?

A
Mini-mental status exam
■ Normal: 25 or higher
■ Mild impairment: 21-24
■ Moderate impairment:
10-20
■ Severe impairment: <10
70
Q

What is frontotemporal dementia?

A

Most common dementia in those under 65 years of age
■ Deterioration of the frontal lobe
Changes in social and personal behavior
– Apathy and social withdraw
– Lack of inhibition (stealing, speeding, disinhibited sexual drive)
– Compulsive behaviors
– Loss of speech fluency- cannot articulate language but can fully
comprehend it
– Loss of executive function- decreased ability to plan and organize
tasks

71
Q

How are memories strengthened and lost?

A

Memories are strengthened through long-term
potentiation:
The more times a memory moves through the cortex- MLT
pathway, the stronger it becomes
– Strengthened synapse due to increased AMPA
insertion
Memories are lost through long-term depression:
■ Low stimulation of a neuron leads to decreased AMPA receptors – increased
difficult to trigger the neuron

72
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Predominant form of dementia
AD symptomology aligns with deteriorative
progression

73
Q

How is memory distributed in the brain?

A

You have declarative (things you have to think about) and non declarative memory(things you dont, reflexes, not hippocampus dependent

74
Q

What memory does storytelling require and why?

A
Story telling requires semantic and episodic memories to be brought together
 Declarative memories thought to be
stored in the cortex
■ Semantic memories are associated with
the region responsible for the task
■ Information must be brought together to
tell a story
– Cortical-medial temporal lobe
network
75
Q

What is AD cellular pathology?

A

■ Amyloid Plaques
– extracellular
■ Neurofibrillary tangles
– intracellular

76
Q

What are microtubules?

A
■ Long hollow tubes
■ Composed of alpha and beta
tubulin
■ Largest cytoskeletal element
■ Compression resistant
■ Dynamic
Provides : Motility of vesicles and organelles
77
Q

What are Tau proteins?

A
Microtubules stabilizing
protein
– Holds together
microtubule bundles
■ Function dependent on
phosphorylation
78
Q

What is Tau phosphorylation?

A
■ 6 isoforms- longest is 441
amino acids in length
– Normally phosphorylated
at 3 sites
– 79 possible
phosphorylation sites
79
Q

How does Tau tangle in AD?

A
■ Hyperphosphorylation of tau
(seen in AD) disrupts
microtubule integrity
■ Once microtubules
breakdown paired helical
fibrils (PHFs) are formed
– Insoluble aggregates
Tau hyperphosphorylation disrupts axonal
transport
80
Q

What are Amyloid plaques?

A
■ First described by Rudolf Virchow
– Starch like structures
– Waxy
■ 1984: the amino acid structure of the
plaques was determined
– Amyloid beta (Ab) peptides clustered
together
81
Q

What are Amyloid beta (AB) derived from?

A
Ab derived from processing of APP
 APP (amyloid precursor
protein)
– Large transmembrane
glycoprotein
– Cleaved by three different
secretases (alpha, beta,
and gamma)
82
Q

How is APP processing in neurons?

A

Incorrectly uses alpha-secretase to gamma-secretase (its nonamyloidogenic

83
Q

What are AB40 and AB42 aggregates?

A
Ab40 and Ab42 are hydrophobic
peptides
– Upon cleavage, these peptide
form insoluble aggregates
– 42 more hydrophobic and more
toxic
84
Q

How is Trisomy 21 associated with AD?

A
■ Gene for APP found on Did you know…
the 21st chromosome
– DS patients have
heightened
accumulation of
Ab42 at a younger
age
85
Q

How does AB work in the synapse?

A
Application of Ab oligomers
on hippocampal sections
impairs neurotransmission
– Decrease LTP
– Increase LTD
■ Increase neuronal
activity increases the
release of Ab
■ Negative feedback loop – Small amounts not as harmful, pathological amounts lead to
synaptic death
■ High concentrations of Ab42 leads to inflammation
86
Q

What is the alternative theory of AB42?

A
g-secretase plays an important
role in Notch signaling
– Signaling pathway in
development and cell
polarity generation
■ Possible Notch was the only
intended substrate and Ab is
erroneous
87
Q

What is the Prion hypothesis?

A
Ab42 acts like a prion
and causes further
misfolding and
aggregation of APP
cleavage products
– Shown in mouse
models of the
disease
88
Q

What are types of Alzheimer’s diseased types?

A

■ Late-onset
– 80-90% of all cases
– Unclear of there is a genetic component
■ Early-onset
– Before the age of 60
– Most rapid progression
– Most are familial
■ Familial
– <5% of all cases
– Normally affects individuals in early 40s
– Associated genes found on Chromosome 1, 14, and 21

89
Q

What is Aduhelm?

A
Received FDA accelerated approval
■ Antibody targeting amyloid plaques
– Successfully shown to reduce
plaques in patients
– Two phase 3 clinical trials- one
met the primary endpoint and the
other did not
■ Annual price tag set at $56,000
90
Q

What was The Nun Study?

A

■ Longitudinal study assessing risk
factors and development of dementia
■ 1- lesions to the brain speed cognitive
impairment
■ 2- greater idea density decreases risk
■ 3- Neurofibrillary tangles most closely
associated with clinical diagnosis of AD
■ 4- “idea density” correlates with disease

91
Q

What are the 4 major targets of AD treatments?

A

beta-secretase inhibitors
gamma-secretase inhibitors
AB aggregation inhibitors
immunotherapy

92
Q

What variant is associated with late-onset of AD?

A

Apolipoprotein E (ApoE)
■ APOE2- protective against AD
■ APOE3- most frequent in
Caucasians
■ APOE4- risk factor for AD
– 40-60% individuals with
one allele will develop
late-onset AD
APOE binding to its receptor has been associated with increased APP transcription
– APOE4 binds more tightly to the receptor that APOE2
■ Can decreasing the affinity of binding diminish disease progression?

93
Q

What is a possible explanation for APOE?

A
■ One possible explanation:
– APOE2- strengthens and
protects BBB
– APOE4- alters tight
junctions and make BBB
more leaky