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General Microbiology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which medical doctor first used phenol as an antiseptic and disinfectant.

a. Pasteur
b. Snow
c. Semmelweiss
d. Lister

A

d. Lister

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2
Q

Which of these is Koch’s third postulate?

a. Pathogens should be isolated from artificially infected individuals
b. Pure pathogens given to a health individual should cause disease
c. Pathogens should be found in all sick individuals and no well individuals
d. Pathogens should be isolated from sick individuals

A

b. Pure pathogens given to a health individual should cause disease

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3
Q

What bacteria structures did Cohn discover?

a. Endospores
b. Inclusion bodies
c. Flagella
d. Nuclei

A

a. Endospores

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4
Q

Which of Whittaker’s kingdoms contained prokaryotes?

a. Plantae
b. Fungi
c. Monera
d. Archaea

A

c. Monera

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5
Q

Which of these is smallest in size?

a. Yeast
b. Bacterium
c. Virus
d. Arachaea

A

c. Virus

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6
Q

What disease was Snow tracking in London when he did his epidemiological work?

a. Cholera
b. Plague
c. Pneumonia
d. Influenze

A

a. Cholera

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7
Q

Which of these is an acellular microbe?

a. Bacterium
b. Bacteriophage
c. Yeast
d. Archaea

A

b. Bacteriophage

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8
Q

What type of microbes do bacteriologists study?

a. Prokaryotes
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Algae

A

a. Prokaryotes

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9
Q

Who used swan necked flasks to disprove spontaneous generation of microbes?

a. Lister
b. Koch
c. Pasteur
d. Snow

A

c. Pasteur

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10
Q

Which scientist used a simple microscope to first view live bacteria?

a. Pasteur
b. Flemming
c. Hooke
d. Leeuwenhoek

A

d. Leeuwenhoek

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11
Q

Distinguish which list of structural properties and activities are true for ALL cells.

a. cytoplasmic membrane, ribosomes, metabolism, motility
b. cytoplasmic membrane, ribosomes, growth, differentiation
c. cytoplasmic membrane, ribosomes, growth, communication
d. cytoplasmic membrane, ribosomes, metabolism, evolution

A

d. cytoplasmic membrane, ribosomes, metabolism, evolution

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12
Q

Which of the following best explains how organisms are currently placed into the three major cell lineages or domains?

a. physical characteristics
b. analysis of ribosomal RNA genes
c. metabolic characteristics
d. analysis of the entire genomic DNA

A

b. analysis of ribosomal RNA genes

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13
Q

Arrange the following types of microorganisms in the order in which they evolved on Earth.

a. anaerobes, anoxygenic phototrophs, aerobes, oxygenic phototrophs, multicellular organisms
b. anaerobes, multicellular organisms, aerobes
c. aerobes, oxygenic phototrophs, anoxygenic phototrophs, anaerobes, multicellular organisms
d. anaerobes, anoxygenic phototrophs, oxygenic phototrophs, aerobes, multicellular organisms

A

d. anaerobes, anoxygenic phototrophs, oxygenic phototrophs, aerobes, multicellular organisms

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14
Q

Specify which of the following is a major microbial ecosystem.

a. plants and animals
b. fungi
c. sunlight
d. the atmosphere

A

a. plants and animals

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15
Q

Identify which of the following situations would be harmful rather than beneficial.

a. nitrogen-fixing bacteria in root nodules
b. Escherichia coli as part of the microbial flora in the human colon
c. microorganisms in the rumen of cattle
d. Escherichia coli in ground meat

A

d. Escherichia coli in ground meat

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16
Q

Differentiate between industrial microbiology and biotechnology.

a. Industrial microbiology uses naturally occurring microbes to make low-cost products, while biotechnology uses genetically engineered microbes to make high-cost products.
b. Industrial microbiology uses naturally occurring microbes to make low-cost products, while biotechnology uses genetically engineered microbes to make low-cost products.
c. Industrial microbiology uses genetically engineered microbes to make low-cost products, while biotechnology uses genetically engineered microbes to make high-cost products.
d. Industrial microbiology uses naturally occurring microbes to make high-cost products, while biotechnology uses genetically engineered microbes to make low-cost products.

A

a. Industrial microbiology uses naturally occurring microbes to make low-cost products, while biotechnology uses genetically engineered microbes to make high-cost products.

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17
Q

Hypothesize the most plausible reason why scientists accepted spontaneous generation for so many years.

a. Spontaneous generation was based on many hundreds of different observations. Based on the wealth of data, it must be true.
b. Biology was an experimental science from the beginning, and scientists could not falsify spontaneous generation.
c. Many people believed in life forces that could create life from nonliving matter.
d. Biology was primarily an observational science for many hundreds of years until the acceptance of the scientific method.

A

d. Biology was primarily an observational science for many hundreds of years until the acceptance of the scientific method.

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18
Q

Which of the following best states the germ theory of disease?

a. Only pure cultures of microorganisms cause disease.
b. Some microorganisms can cause disease.
c. All microorganisms can cause disease.
d. Something in the air caused healthy people to become sick.

A

b. Some microorganisms can cause disease.

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19
Q

Arrange Koch’s postulates in the correct order.

a. pathogen present in all cases of disease; pathogen grown in pure culture; pathogen able to cause disease in healthy host; pathogen re-isolated
b. pathogen present in all cases of disease; pathogen grown in pure culture; pathogen re-isolated; pathogen able to cause disease in healthy host
c. pathogen grown in pure culture; pathogen present in all cases of disease; pathogen re-isolated; pathogen able to cause disease in healthy host
d. pathogen present in all cases of disease; pathogen able to cause disease in healthy host; pathogen grown in pure culture; pathogen re-isolated

A

a. pathogen present in all cases of disease; pathogen grown in pure culture; pathogen able to cause disease in healthy host; pathogen re-isolated

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20
Q

Which statement illustrates how the development of enrichment culture techniques by Beijerinck contributed to our knowledge of microbial diversity?

a. Enrichment culture technique allows targeting of specific metabolic groups by using selective nutrients at atmospheric incubation conditions.
b. Enrichment culture technique allows targeting of specific metabolic groups by using common nutrients at atmospheric incubation conditions.
c. Enrichment culture technique allows targeting of specific metabolic groups by using selective nutrients and incubation conditions.
d. Enrichment culture technique allows targeting of specific metabolic groups by using common nutrients but selective incubation conditions.

A

c. Enrichment culture technique allows targeting of specific metabolic groups by using selective nutrients and incubation conditions.

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21
Q

What type of microbe contains axial filaments?

a. Yeast
b. Acid fast
c. Spirochetes
d. Chlamydia

A

c. Spirochetes

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22
Q

What is the most abundant macromolecule in a cell?

a. DNA
b. Protein
c. RNA
d. Water

A

b. Protein

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23
Q

What are bacterial cell walls composed of?

a. Cellulose
b. Chitin
c. Lignin
d. Peptidoglycan

A

d. Peptidoglycan

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24
Q

What term refers to rod-shaped bacteria in chains?

a. Pallisades
b. Streptococci
c. Staphylobacilli
d. Streptobacillus

A

d. Streptobacillus

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25
Q

What limits the resolving power of a microscope?

a. The image’s magnification
b. Wavelength of light used
c. Number of lenses used
d. Price of the lenses

A

b. Wavelength of light used

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26
Q

What type of microbe contains teichoic acid?

a. Gram positive
b. Acid fast
c. Mycoplasma
d. Gram negative

A

a. Gram positive

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27
Q

What size are prokaryotic ribosomes?

a. 70S
b. 40S
c. 60S
d. 80S

A

a. 70S

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28
Q

What gets larger as cell size decreases?

a. Surface area
b. Volume
c. Genome size
d. Surface area : volume ratio

A

d. Surface area : volume ratio

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29
Q

What is volutin an example of?

a. Organelle
b. Vacuole
c. Inclusion body
d. Spore

A

c. Inclusion body

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30
Q

Which of these microbes does not contain murein?

a. Gram negative
b. Acid fast
c. Gram positive
d. Mycoplasma

A

d. Mycoplasma

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31
Q

An organism of the genus Staphylococcus is ________, while an organism of the genus Spirochaeta is ________.

a. spherical / coiled
b. rod shaped / coiled
c. spherical / rod shaped
d. coiled / spherical

A

a. spherical / coiled

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32
Q

The morphology of a cell influences its

a. metabolism.
b. surface-to-volume ratio.
c. motility and surface-to-volume ratio.
d. motility.

A

c. motility and surface-to-volume ratio.

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33
Q

The terms “run” and “tumble” are generally associated with

a. chemotaxis.
b. eukaryotic cells.
c. clustering of certain rod-shaped bacteria.
d. nutrient transport.

A

a. chemotaxis.

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34
Q

Using phase contrast microscopy on a wet mount of live cells, you observe motile bacilli moving rapidly and randomly through the field of view, changing directions after a brief tumble and taking off in a different direction. These cells are exhibiting ________ motility.

a. swimming
b. twitching or gliding
c. twitching
d. gliding

A

a. swimming

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35
Q

Archaeans have archaella that rotate like bacterial flagella though they

a. are longer than bacterial flagella.
b. have greater diameters than bacterial flagella.
c. only rotate in one direction.
d. consist of multiple protein types

A

d. consist of multiple protein types

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36
Q

In general, most cell inclusions function as energy reserves or as a reservoir of structural building blocks.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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37
Q

Based on the table of attributes given below, which of the following statements are FALSE about the two organisms?

Characteristic Bacterium A Bacterium B
Endospore formation yes no
Capsule no yes
Type IV pili yes no
Flagella no no
Morphology bacillus bacillus

a. Both bacteria may attach to surfaces.
b. Bacterium B is likely to exhibit motility.
c. Bacterium B likely forms a slime layer better than Bacterium A.
d. Bacterium A is more resistant to heat and ultraviolet light.

A

b. Bacterium B is likely to exhibit motility.

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38
Q

Bacteria with type IV pili

a. have capsules that promote dehydration.
b. possess tubular or stalk-like extensions of their cells.
c. live in aquatic environments.
d. likely exhibit twitching motility.

A

d. likely exhibit twitching motility.

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39
Q

Hydrolytic enzymes function in the

a. transport of substrates within the cell.
b. regeneration of the periplasm.
c. chemotactic response, particularly in gram-negative Bacteria.
d. initial degradation of nutrients.

A

d. initial degradation of nutrients.

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40
Q

The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) layer is found ONLY in the cell walls of

a. gram-positive Bacteria.
b. Eukarya.
c. gram-negative Bacteria.
d. Archaea.

A

c. gram-negative Bacteria.

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41
Q

Lysozyme is an enzyme that can ultimately lyse and kill eukaryotic cells by breaking β-1, 4-glycosidic bonds in peptidoglycan.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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42
Q

The peptide interbridge crosslinking between peptidoglycan layers is found ONLY in the cell walls of

a. Archaea.
b. gram-positive Bacteria.
c. gram-negative Bacteria.
d. Eukarya.

A

b. gram-positive Bacteria.

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43
Q

Bacteria stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because of differences in the cell

a. cytoplasm.
b. wall.
c. nucleus.
d. chromosome.

A

b. wall.

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44
Q

Some membrane proteins are involved in bioenergetic reactions, while others are involved in membrane transport.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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45
Q

The lipids in the cytoplasmic membrane of Bacteria and ________ contain ester linkages, while the cytoplasmic membrane of ________ contain ether linkages.

a. Archaea / fungi
b. Eukarya / Archaea
c. Archaea / Eukarya
d. Eukarya / prokaryotes

A

b. Eukarya / Archaea

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46
Q

Compared to Eukaryotes, Bacteria and Archaea have ________ surface-to-volume ratios, causing ________ nutrient exchange.

a. lower / lower
b. lower / higher
c. higher / higher
d. higher / lower

A

c. higher / higher

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47
Q

Small acid-soluble proteins (SASPs) protect DNA from ultraviolet light and are found in high numbers within

a. gram-negative Bacteria.
b. endospores.
c. gram-positive Bacteria.
d. inclusion bodies.

A

b. endospores.

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48
Q

Some archaea have unique phospholipids in their cytoplasmic membrane that

a. form a monolayer due to the presence of diglycerol tetraethers.
b. form a bilayer due to the presence of phosphatidylethanolamine.
c. form a stable ring structure due to the presence of crenarchaeol.
d. form a bilayer due to the presence of sterols.

A

a. form a monolayer due to the presence of diglycerol tetraethers.

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49
Q

Eukaryotes have ________ in their cytoplasmic membranes, which serve to strengthen and stabilize the membrane and make it less flexible. Many bacteria have similar molecules, known as ________, in their cytoplasmic membranes that have a similar role.

a. phospholipids / lipopolysaccharides
b. lipids / phospholipids
c. ether bonds / ester bonds
d. sterols / hopanoids

A

d. sterols / hopanoids

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50
Q

The cell wall of a Gram-positive bacterium is composed of a thick ________ layer.

a. poly-β-hydroxybutryic acid (PHB)
b. peptidoglycan
c. protein
d. lipopolysaccharides (LPS)

A

b. peptidoglycan

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51
Q

Which group of proteobacteria are most genetically similar to our mitochondria?

a. Gamma
b. Delta
c. Alpha
d. Beta

A

c. Alpha

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52
Q

What bacterium gave us the polymerase that we use in PCR?

a. Bacillus stearothermophilus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Thermus aquaticus
d. Deinococcus radiodurans

A

c. Thermus aquaticus

53
Q

Which of these is the largest group of cultured bacteria?

a. Firmicutes
b. Actinobacteria
c. Proteobacteria
d. Spirochetes

A

c. Proteobacteria

54
Q

Which group of bacteria are oxygenic phototrophs?

a. Purple sulfur bacteria
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Green sulfur bacteria
d. Firmicutes

A

b. Cyanobacteria

55
Q

Which group of microbes includes the acid fast bacteria?

a. Archaea
b. Firmicutes
c. Proteobacteria
d. Actinobacteria

A

d. Actinobacteria

56
Q

Which group of proteobacteria includes the cause of gastic ulcers?

a. Alpha
b. Epsilon
c. Gamma
d. Beta

A

b. Epsilon

57
Q

What group of bacteria are the low G+C gram positives?

a. Proteobacteria
b. Actinobacteria
c. Firmicutes
d. Spirochetes

A

c. Firmicutes

58
Q

Which bacterium is used to produce sauerkraut?

a. Lactobacillus
b. Proteus
c. Leuconostoc
d. Clostridium

A

c. Leuconostoc

59
Q

Which of these bacteria would most likely make an endospore?

a. Escherichia
b. Bacillus
c. Lactobacillus
d. Chlamydia

A

b. Bacillus

60
Q

What form of Chlamydia cells infects new host cells?

a. Polar body
b. Black body
c. Reticulate body
d. Elementary body

A

d. Elementary body

61
Q

Which bacillus-shaped genus are primarily intracellular parasites of arthropods such as crustaceans and insects?

a. Roseospirillum
b. Wolbachia
c. Klebsiella
d. Coxiella

A

b. Wolbachia

62
Q

Which of the following is NOT a trait of rickettsias?

a. They are obligate intracellular parasites.
b. They have not been cultivated in the absence of host cells.
c. They lack cell walls.
d. Both the host and parasite are required in order to be alive and metabolically active.

A

c. They lack cell walls.

63
Q

While not all members of ________ are pathogenic, two medically relevant species cause meningitis and gonorrhea in humans.

a. Staphylococcus
b. Enterobacter
c. Neisseria
d. Shigella.

A

c. Neisseria

64
Q

A pseudomonad that loses its R plasmid in the soil is LEAST likely to

a. survive a habitat dominated by antibiotic-producing Streptomyces spp.
b. cause an infection in a human.
c. colonize a surface.
d. infect a shrub.

A

a. survive a habitat dominated by antibiotic-producing Streptomyces spp.

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT a member of the Deltaproteobacteria?

a. Desulfovibrio
b. Geobacter
c. Syntrophobacter
d. Campylobacter

A

d. Campylobacter

66
Q

Which species does NOT produce endospores?

a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Clostridium pasteurianum
c. Paenibacillus popilliae
d. Bacillus cereus

A

a. Listeria monocytogenes

67
Q

Which of the following is LEAST commonly associated with endospore-forming bacteria?

a. They are saprophytic.
b. They can survive adverse environmental conditions.
c. They are primarily soil dwellers.
d. They are coccus-shaped organisms.

A

d. They are coccus-shaped organisms.

68
Q

Mycoplasmas lack cell walls, thus

a. frequently exist as obligate symbionts.
b. they have a larger cytoplasmic volume.
c. they are unable to survive conditions under which protoplasts lyse.
d. they have a higher sensitivity to osmotic lysis.

A

a. frequently exist as obligate symbionts.

69
Q

Due to the presence of mycolic acids in the cell wall of Mycobacterium spp., the ________ staining procedure can be used as a diagnostic tool to identify this genus.

a. lipo
b. Gram
c. DAPI
d. acid-fast

A

d. acid-fast

70
Q

Chlamydiae are most commonly transmitted throughout environments by insects.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

71
Q

How are archaea similar to eukaryotes?

a. They use RNA as their genome
b. They have operons
c. They have 70S ribosomes
d. They have introns

A

d. They have introns

72
Q

What is postulated to be the upper temperature limit for life on Earth?

a. 150 C
b. 120 C
c. 250 C
d. 100 C

A

a. 150 C

73
Q

What pigment do some archaea use to capture light energy?

a. Chlorophyll A
b. Bacteriorhodopsin
c. Bacteriochlorophyll
d. Rhodopsin

A

b. Bacteriorhodopsin

74
Q

When were arachae first described as a group?

a. 1920s
b. 1870s
c. 1990s
d. 1970s

A

d. 1970s

75
Q

What group of archaea contain crenarchaeol?

a. Thaumarchaeota
b. Crenarcheota
c. Euryarchaeota
d. Nanoarchaeota

A

b. Crenarcheota

76
Q

What kind of growth conditions do methanogens require?

a. Oxic
b. Brightly illuminated
c. Anaerobic
c. Nitrogen rich

A

c. Anaerobic

77
Q

What group of microbes includes the methanogens?

a. Firmicutes
b. Nanoarchaeota
c. Euryarchaota
d. Crenarchaeota

A

c. Euryarchaota

78
Q

Which of these is NOT an adpatation for living at high temperature?

a. Unsaturated fatty acids in phospholipids
b. High intracellular solute concentration
c. Positive DNA supercoiling
d. Tetraether lipids

A

a. Unsaturated fatty acids in phospholipids

79
Q

Where would the DNA in an archaea be found?

a. Nucleus
b. Nucleomorph
c. Nucleolus
d. Nucleoid

A

d. Nucleoid

80
Q

What sugar is found in pseudopeptidoglycan but not true peptidoglycan?

a. NAT
b. NAG
c. NAM
d. NAR

A

a. NAT

81
Q

One factor that seems to aid in maintaining lipid stability in hyperthermophilic Archaea is that dibiphytanyl tetraether lipids form a(n)

a. interlocking lattice with the cell wall.
b. interlocking bilayer cytoplasmic membrane.
c. covalently bonded monolayer cytoplasmic membrane.
d. pseudomembrane immediately inside the cytoplasmic membrane.

A

c. covalently bonded monolayer cytoplasmic membrane.

82
Q

Proteins known as ________ function to refold partially denatured proteins.

a. histones and chaperonins
b. HU proteins
c. chaperonins
d. histones

A

c. chaperonins

83
Q

What is thought to be the maximum temperature for life to exist?

a. 125°C
b. 500°C
c. 250°C
d. 150°C

A

d. 150°C

84
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about the crenarchael genera Sulfolobus?

a. Sulfolobus is a gram-positive rod.
b. Sulfolobus can grow chemoorganotrophically.
c. Sulfolobus grows in sulfur-rich hot alkaline springs.
d. Sulfolobus is an anaerobic chemolithotroph

A

b. Sulfolobus can grow chemoorganotrophically.

85
Q

Laboratory isolation of Nanoarchaeum equitans requires the presence of

a. fatty acids.
b. Ignicoccus.
c. oxygen.
d. sunlight.

A

b. Ignicoccus.

86
Q

Most known methanogens are nonhalophilic

a. thermophiles.
b. psychrophiles.
c. mesophiles.
d. extremophiles.

A

c. mesophiles.

87
Q

Some of the largest naturally occurring plasmids occur in the

a. methanogens.
b. Archaea lacking cell walls.
c. genus Thermococcus.
d. extreme halophiles.

A

d. extreme halophiles.

88
Q

Retinal in prokaryotes is part of

a. phototaxis.
b. light-driven ATP synthesis.
c. light-driven ATP synthesis and phototaxis.
d. photosynthesis.

A

c. light-driven ATP synthesis and phototaxis.

89
Q

Approximately ________ of the Methanocaldococcus jannaschii genes have no counterparts in known genes from other sequenced organisms.

a. 70%
b. 40%
c. 10%
d. 25%

A

b. 40%

90
Q

Methanogenesis is coupled with proton motive force formation and ATP synthesis through the activity of ATPases.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

91
Q

Which of these is a primary endosymbiont?

a. Green algae
b. Diatoms
c. Brown algae
d. Dinoflagellates

A

a. Green algae

92
Q

What cytoskeleton protein is inside a eukaryotic flagellum?

a. FtsZ
b. Microtubule
c. Actin
d. Myosin

A

b. Microtubule

93
Q

Where does aerobic respiration occur in a eukaryote?

a. Carboxysome
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi body
d. Cell membrane

A

b. Mitochondria

94
Q

What microbes use pseudopodia for feeding and motility?

a. Amoebozoa
b. Fungi
c. Algae
d. Alveolates

A

a. Amoebozoa

95
Q

Which of the following organelles contains DNA?

a. Golgi body
b. Vacuole
c. Rough ER
d. Mitochondria

A

d. Mitochondria

96
Q

What molecules make of most microbial capsules?

a. Polynucleotides
b. Polypeptides
c. Polysaccharides
d. Polyamines

A

c. Polysaccharides

97
Q

What group of fungi as known as the club fungi?

a. Zygomycetes
b. Chytridiomycetes
c. Basidiomycetes
d. Ascomycetes

A

c. Basidiomycetes

98
Q

Why does rough ER look rough?

a. Viruses present
b. Ribosomes present
c. Protein trafficking
d. Inclusion bodies present

A

b. Ribosomes present

99
Q

What sterol do fungi use in their membranes?

a. Cholesterol
b. Estrogen
c. Ergosterol
d. Cholic acid

A

c. Ergosterol

100
Q

What type of microbes cause red tide?

a. Dinoflagellates
b. Amoeba
c. Red algae
d. Foraminiferans

A

a. Dinoflagellates

101
Q

The accessory pigment phycoerythrin is dominant in the ________ group of algae, which mostly lack flagella, have multicellular lifestyles, and occur in marine waters. Those in particular which deposit calcium carbonate in coral reef systems are classified as ________ algae.

a. rhodophyte / rhodolithic
b. chlorophyte / rhodolithic
c. rhodophyte / coralline
d. chlorophyte / coralline

A

c. rhodophyte / coralline

102
Q

Endolithic phototrophic communities are most commonly found in ________ environments.

a. hot
b. dry
c. windy
d. humid

A

b. dry

103
Q

The majority of basidiomycetes living in soil occur as

a. diploid mycelia.
b. diploid basidiocarps.
c. haploid basidiocarps.
d. haploid mycelia.

A

d. haploid mycelia.

104
Q

Of the taxa listed, which is NOT classified as a protist?

a. Giardia
b. Euglena
c. Amoeba
d. Saccharomyces

A

d. Saccharomyces

105
Q

Spoilage of bread, which appears dark green-blue to black in color, is most likely caused by the fungus

a. Aspergillus niger.
b. Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis.
c. Rhizopus nigricans.
d. Glomus spp.

A

c. Rhizopus nigricans.

106
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding the ecological role of plant degradation by fungi?

a. In brown rot the cellulose is attacked preferentially, and the lignin is left unmetabolized.
b. In white rot the lignin is attacked preferentially, and the cellulose is left unmetabolized.
c. In brown rot the lignin is attacked preferentially, and the cellulose is left unmetabolized.
d. In white rot the cellulose is attacked preferentially, and the lignin is left unmetabolized.

A

a. In brown rot the cellulose is attacked preferentially, and the lignin is left unmetabolized.

107
Q

Which group of amoebozoans is most likely to cause illness in humans?

a. slime molds
b. gymnamoebas
c. dictyostelium
d. entamoebas

A

d. entamoebas

108
Q

Evidence of ________ supports the hypothesis that eukaryotes are derived from bacteria.

a. DNA content in the nucleus only
b. antibiotic resistance
c. ribosome characteristics and DNA content in the nucleus
d. ribosome characteristics only

A

c. ribosome characteristics and DNA content in the nucleus

109
Q

Giardia are diplomonads which have nuclei that

a. contain one small and one large nucleus per cell.
b. occur as two similar sizes per cell.
c. have one nucleus enclosed in a mitosome and another nucleus in their cytoplasm.
d. appear as two separate chromosomes but are weakly joined

A

b. occur as two similar sizes per cell.

110
Q

Among protists, only the ciliates have a micronucleus and macronucleus where genes are located in two discrete areas within each cell for redundancy.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

111
Q

Which of the following enzymes would you expect to find in the virion of a retrovirus, but NOT in a bacteriophage?

a. restriction enzymes
b. lysozyme
c. reverse transcriptase
d. methylase

A

c. reverse transcriptase

112
Q

Retroviruses are medically important viruses because

a. they include some viruses that cause cancer and HIV.
b. they include the influenza virus.
c. they include the poliovirus.
d. they include all human pathogenic viruses.

A

a. they include some viruses that cause cancer and HIV.

113
Q

A virus that kills its host is said to be

a. temperate.
b. lysogenic.
c. lytic or virulent.
d. virulent or lysogenic, but not temperate.

A

c. lytic or virulent.

114
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Lambda is a temperate phage that infects Escherichia coli.
b. Lambda is replicated by the rolling circle mechanism.
c. Lambda always circularizes upon entering the host cell.
d. Lambda is a linear double-stranded DNA phage.

A

c. Lambda always circularizes upon entering the host cell.

115
Q

A prophage replicates

a. along with its host while the lytic genes are not expressed.
b. independently of its host while the lytic genes are not expressed.
c. along with its host while the lytic genes are expressed.
d. independently of its host while the lytic genes are expressed.

A

a. along with its host while the lytic genes are not expressed.

116
Q

Restriction is

a. the viral process whereby a hosts DNA ceases normal functioning.
b. the viral process whereby the virus prevents other viruses from entering the cell.
c. a general host mechanism to prevent virus particles from further infective action.
d. a general host mechanism to prevent the invasion of foreign nucleic acid

A

d. a general host mechanism to prevent the invasion of foreign nucleic acid

117
Q

A cell that allows the complete replication cycle of a virus to take place is said to be a

a. permissive host.
b. dead cell.
c. lytic cell.
d. viral cell.

A

a. permissive host.

118
Q

Enveloped viral membranes are generally ________ with associated virus-specific ________.

a. lipid bilayers / phospholipids
b. protein bilayers / lipids
c. glycolipid bilayers / phospholipids
d. lipid bilayers / proteins

A

d. lipid bilayers / proteins

119
Q

Reverse transcriptase is a(n)

a. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
b. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
c. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
d. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

A

d. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

120
Q

Which of these is an example of a group V virus?

a. COVID-19
b. Influenza
c. Parvovirus
d. Polio

A

b. Influenza

121
Q

Which of these is an example of a pathogen that is just nucleic acid?

a. Chlamydia
b. Viroid
c. COVID-19
d. Prion

A

b. Viroid

122
Q

What type of genetic material is found in group IV viruses?

a. ds DNA
b. ss DNA
c. ss RNA (- strand)
d. ss RNA (+ strand)

A

d. ss RNA (+ strand)

123
Q

What type of genetic material is found in group III viruses?

a. ds DNA
b. ds RNA
c. ss RNA (-strand)
d. ss RNA (+ strand)

A

b. ds RNA

124
Q

Which of these is not found in viruses?

a. Ribosome
b. DNA
c. Phospholipids
d. Protein

A

a. Ribosome

125
Q

What part of a virus consists of a protein shell?

a. Capsid
b. Envelope
c. Capsule
d. Cell membrane

A

a. Capsid

126
Q

Which of these is an example of a pathogen that is just protein?

a. Viroid
b. Prion
c. Lytic phage
d. Bacteriophage

A

b. Prion

127
Q

What is the approximate size of a virus?

a. 50 pm
b. 50 µm
c. 50 nm
d. 50 mm

A

c. 50 nm

128
Q

What is the first step in a viral replication cycle?

a. Genomic replication
b. Attachment to host cell
c. Budding
d. Viropexis

A

b. Attachment to host cell

129
Q

What is the lipid layer surrounding some viruses called?

a. Capsid
b. Chitin
c. Envelope
d. Outer membrane

A

c. Envelope

General Microbiology (3 decks)

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