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Anatomy and Physiology of the Speech and Swallow Mechanisms > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four subsystems of speech?

A
  1. Respiratory
  2. Phonation
  3. Articulation
  4. Resonation
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2
Q

What plane of reference divided the body into ANTERIOR and POSTERIOR sections?

A

Coronal

-Can think of this as a crown.

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3
Q

What are the four main types of tissue?

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. Muscle
  3. Nervous
  4. Connective
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4
Q

Function: Protection and Secretion

-Lines body cavities and surfaces that interface with external environment

A

Epithelial Tissue

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5
Q
  • Function: Movements and bodily functions

- Voluntary vs Involuntary

A

Muscle Tissue

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6
Q

-Neurons and Glial cells

A

Nervous Tissue

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7
Q

What are the 5 types of Glial Cells?

A

-Astrocytes, Microglia, Oligodendrocytes, Ependymal, Schwann

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8
Q

Function: Structure and Framework

-Loose/Dense/Specialized

A

Connective Tissue

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9
Q

What are the three types of joints?

A
  1. Synarthrodial/Fibrous
  2. Amphiarthrodial/Cartilaginous
  3. Diarthrodial/Synovial
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10
Q

Immoveable (will not move) Cranium

A

Synarthrodial/Fibrous Joint

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11
Q

Yielding (will move, but not freely!) Between vertebrae

A

Amphiarthrodial/Cartilaginous

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12
Q

Freely Moving Knee, Elbow

A

Diarthrodial/Synovial

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13
Q

True or False: The pia mater is superficial to the dura mater.

A

FALSE: Dura mater–>Subarachnoid space–>Pia mater

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14
Q

What are the three types of cartilage?

A
  1. Fibrous
  2. Elastic
  3. Hyaline
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15
Q

What are the three types of bone?

A
  1. Flat
  2. Long
  3. Irregular
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16
Q

Is cardiac muscle voluntary or involuntary?

A

Involuntary

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17
Q

What is the speed of an action potential determined by?

A
  • Diameter of axon (thicker=faster!)

- Myelination

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18
Q

What is another name for the primary auditory cortex?

A

Heschel’s Gyrus

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19
Q

The neural crest develops into the cells of the _________ and the neural tube develops into the cells of the _________.

A
  • The neural crest develops in the PNS.

- The neural tube develops in the CNS.

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20
Q

Name two structures that the ectoderm develops into.

A
  • Hair/Skin/Nails
  • Nervous System
  • Tooth Enamel
  • Pharynx
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21
Q

The neural tube further develops into what three primary vesicles?

A
  • Prosencephalon
  • Mesencephalon
  • Rhombencephalon
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22
Q

What do those three primary vesicles ultimately develop into?

A
  • Prosencephalon –> telencephalon
  • Mesencephalon –> mesencephalon
  • Rhombencephalon –> metencephalon
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23
Q

True or False: The notochord becomes the spinal cord.

A
  • False

- Becomes fleshy material between adult vertebral discs.

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24
Q

The cranial bone that is markedly shaped like a bat is called the…

A

-Sphenoid Bone

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25
Q

What is the name of the gross representation of the body that spans the primary motor and sensory cortices?

A

-Homunculus

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26
Q

What is CNX (Cranial Nerve 10). Is it sensory, or both? Name a function.

A
  • CNX is the vagus nerve
  • It is BOTH sensory and motor.
  • It supplies motor innervation to the velum, larynx, and pharynx (think about the VOCAL FOLDS). It supplies sensory innervation to the viscera (AKA internal organs).
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27
Q

Anterior

A

nearer the front

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28
Q

Posterior

A

further back in position; of or nearer the rear or hind end

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29
Q

Dorsal

A

relating to the upper side or back of an animal

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30
Q

Ventral

A

relating to the underside of an animal

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31
Q

Caudal/Caudad

A

at or near the tail or the posterior part of the body.

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32
Q

Rostral/Cranial

A

situated or occurring near the front end of the body, especially in the region of the nose and mouth or (in an embryo) near the hypophyseal region.

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33
Q

Cephalad

A

toward the head or anterior end of the body.

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34
Q

Inferior

A

low or lower in position.

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35
Q

Superior

A

toward the head end of the body

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36
Q

Infra

A

below, beneath, INFERIOR to.

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37
Q

Supra

A

Above

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38
Q

Central

A

At or near the center

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39
Q

Peripheral

A

Away from the center

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40
Q

Lateral

A

to the side of, or away from, the middle of the body

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41
Q

Medial

A

toward the middle or center

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42
Q

Contra

A

Prefix meaning opposed, against

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43
Q

Ipsi

A

same, self

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44
Q

Deep

A

away from the surface or further into the body

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45
Q

Superficial

A

on the surface or shallow

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46
Q

Ecto

A

“outer,” “outside,” “external,

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47
Q

Endo

A

“within, inner, absorbing, or containing”

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48
Q

External

A

Situated or occurring on the outside

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49
Q

Internal

A

existing or situated within the limits or surface

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50
Q

Extra

A

Prefix meaning without, outside of.

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51
Q

Intra

A

Prefix meaning inside, within

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52
Q

Extrinsic

A

Coming from the outside

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53
Q

Intrinsic

A

An essential or inherent part of a something such as a structure.

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54
Q

Distal

A

refers to sites located away from a specific area, most often the center of the body

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55
Q

Proximal

A

nearer to the center (trunk of the body) or to the point of attachment to the body

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56
Q

Post

A

Prefix meaning after, behind, posterior

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57
Q

Pre

A

Combining form meaning anterior; before (in time or space)

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58
Q

Prone

A

With the front (or ventral) surface downward

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59
Q

Supine

A

With the back or dorsal surface downward (lying face up)

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60
Q

Axial

A

Relating to or situated in the central part of the body, in the head and trunk as distinguished from the limbs,

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61
Q

Appendicular

A

relating to the arms or legs or a part of the body that is joined to another part, such as the appendix: an appendicular joint/muscle

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62
Q

anatomy of the structural changes of an individual from fertilization to adulthood; includes embryology, fetology, and postnatal development

A

Developmental Anatomy

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63
Q

the anatomy of the nervous system.

A

Neuroanatomy

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64
Q

The application of anatomical knowledge to the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

A

Applied Anatomy

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65
Q

the branch of anatomy that deals with the structure of organs and tissues that are visible to the naked eye.

A

Gross Anatomy

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66
Q

the normal flexibility in the topography and morphology of body structures

A

Anatomic Variability

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67
Q

the branch of biology that deals with the normal functions of living organisms and their parts.

A

Physiology

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68
Q

the science of the causes and effects of diseases, especially the branch of medicine that deals with the laboratory examination of samples of body tissue for diagnostic or forensic purposes.

A

Pathology

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69
Q

The position with the body erect with the arms at the sides and the palms forward.

A

Anatomical Position

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70
Q

relating to the crown of the head.

A

Coronal

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71
Q

of or in a plane parallel to the sagittal suture, especially that dividing the body into left and right halves.

A

Sagittal

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72
Q

It vertically splits any object or organism into two relatively equal halves – left and right.

A

Midsagittal

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73
Q

a horizontal plane passing through the standing body so that the transverse plane is parallel to the floor.

A

Transverse/Horizontal

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74
Q

A group of independent but interrelated elements

comprising a unified whole

A

System

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75
Q

overriding system that controls all aspects of speech (perception and production), language hearing, swallowing, and phonation

A

Nervous System

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76
Q

responsible for speech perception

A

Auditory System

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77
Q

What are the subsystem or phases of speech production?

A

Respiratory System
Phonatory System
Articulatory System
Resonatory System

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78
Q

Group/layers of similar cells that preform a specific function

A

Tissues

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79
Q

What are organelles are involved in?

A

Genetic control, ribosome synthesis: nucleus
• Energy production: mitochondria
• Other organelles: protein production, storage, enzyme release, cell cleanup, intracellular transport

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80
Q

What are the three types of epithelial tissue?

A
  1. Epithelial Tissue Proper
  2. Endothelial Tissue
  3. Mesothelial
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81
Q

Skin, internal membranes, reproductive tract, and digestive tract.

A

Epithelial Tissue Proper

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82
Q

Blood vessels and lymph (arteries and veins)

A

Endothelial Tissue

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83
Q

Surrounds connective tissue, smooth muscles

Single lay of fat cells

A

Mesothelial Tissue

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84
Q

formed by protein fibers

A

Matrix

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85
Q

Loose Tissue

A

space filling, “packing material”

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86
Q

Dense Tissue

A

Tightly packed bundles of extracellular fibers

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87
Q

What are some dense tissue figures?

A
  1. Tendons
  2. Ligaments
  3. Fascia
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88
Q

Tough; non-elastic cords; muscle to bone; muscle to cartilage; muscle to muscle

A

Tendons

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89
Q

Tough cords with elastic fibers; bone to bone; bone to cartilage; cartilage to cartilage

A

Ligaments

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90
Q

Fibrous tissue that underlines the skin and helps separates muscles into functional lips

A

Fascia

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91
Q

Specialized Connective Tissue

A

cartilage and bone

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92
Q

Coarse in appearance; slightly compressible; Cartilage between vertebrae

A

Fibrous Cartilage

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93
Q

Most abundant; Blueish/whiteish/ strong with some flexibility; rib cage, nose, and larynx

A

Hyaline

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94
Q

Opaque; yellow; most flexible; outer ear and epiglottis

A

Elastic

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95
Q
  • Composed of collagen and matrix intermixed with minerals (calcium)
  • Dense outer compact layer covered by periosteum, inner porous region (with marrow)
  • provides skeletal support for the body
  • rigid
  • protects vital organs
A

Bone

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96
Q

How many bones are in the body?

A

+200

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97
Q

What are the Flat Bones?

A

Cranium and Skull

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98
Q

What are the Long Bones?

A

Extremeties

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99
Q

What are the Short and Irregular Bones?

A

Hands, feet, vertebral column

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100
Q

Provide mobility to bones

A

Joints

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101
Q

What are the 3 types of Joints?

A
  1. Synarthrodial
  2. Amphiarthrodial
  3. Diarthrodial
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102
Q

Bones articulate or come together but no movement (cranium)

A

Immoveable (fibrous)= Synarthrodial

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103
Q

Vertebrae can move slightly, but not extreme movement (Vertebral column)

A

Yielding (cartilaginous)= Amphiarthrodial

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104
Q

Serous fluid is secreted so you can have smooth movement between the bones (Elbows, hands, fingers)

A

Movable (synovial)= Diarthrodial

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105
Q
  • Involved in all movements and voluntary behaviors, controlled by neural stimulation
  • formed by muscle fibers
  • 40% of body weight
A

Muscle Tissue

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106
Q

Enables movement of bone or other structures

A

Contractility

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107
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissues?

A
  1. Striated (voluntary)
  2. Cardiac (voluntary)
  3. Smooth (involuntary)
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108
Q

-surrounded by endomysium

A

Striated Muscles (Skeletal Muscles)

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109
Q

-bundles of muscle fibers called..

A

fasciculi

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110
Q

-each fasiculus is surrounded by..

A

Perimysium

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111
Q

-groups of fasciculi encased by…

A

Epimysium (coarse connective tissue)

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112
Q

-entire muscle is encased by…

A

Fascia (Connective Tissue)

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113
Q

Where the muscle projects to and usually more moveable structure

A

Insertion of the muscle

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114
Q

Effect of the muscle has on that movement when it contracts

A

Action of the muscle

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115
Q

Flexion

A

Brings 2 pts together

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116
Q

Extension

A

Brings 2 pts apart

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117
Q

What are the Division of Muscle Groups?

A
  1. Agonistic

2. Antagonistic

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118
Q

-consists of specialized tissues whose electrochemical composition is modified in response to environmental changes

A

Nervous tissue

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119
Q

Chemical

A

Neurotransmitter

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120
Q

Electrical

A

Neuron

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121
Q

Communicating signal sending cells

A

Neurons

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122
Q

Glial cells

A

Helper Cells

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123
Q

Cell body and dendrites

Axon and terminal endings

A

Structure of the Neuron

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124
Q

Sensory

A

Afferent

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125
Q

Motor

A

Efferent

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126
Q

Integrative

A

Afferent and Efferent

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127
Q

Individual neural fibers (axons) in the peripheral nervous system are coved by…

A

Endoneurium

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128
Q

Bundles of nerve fibers run in facicles encased in…

A

Perineurium

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129
Q

Bundles of fascicles form nerve, wrapped in…

A

Epineurium

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130
Q
  • 10% of body weight

- “fluid tissues”

A

Vascular Tissue

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131
Q

What is considered Connective tissues ?

A

Blood, plasma, platelets, gases, and lymph

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132
Q

Two or more tissue types combined that form a functional unit.

A

Organs

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133
Q

Vascular and connective tissue

A

Lungs

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134
Q

Vascular, connective, muscle, and nervous tissue

A

Larynx

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135
Q

Two or more organs combined to form a functional unit.

A

Systems

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136
Q

Circulatory, Digestive, Muscular, Nervous, Respiratory, and Skeletal

A

Body systems

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137
Q

Involves the entire human body with the exception of the upper and lower extremities

A

Speech Perception and Production

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138
Q

Consists of:
Respiratory function (lungs)
Sound Generator (Vocal Folds)
Resonant Chambers (Oral, nasal, and other cavities)
Articulators (velum, tongue, lips, and teeth)

A

Vocal Tract

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139
Q

Ossicles/Bone, Muscle (striated and smooth), cartilage, nervous (afferent and efferent)

A

Vocal Tract Tissues

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140
Q

The process of speech production is regulated by the…

A

Nervous System

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141
Q

Respiration and Phonation

A

Respiratory System

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142
Q

Respiration, phonation, articulation/resonance

A

Muscular System/Skeletal System/ Vascular/Nervous System

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143
Q

Articulation/resonance

A

Digestive System

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144
Q
  • Neural impulses tell muscles of respiration to inspire->controlled exhalation by adducting vocal folds
  • Pressure builds and air eventually blows apart vocal folds causing them to rapidly abduct and adduct.
A

Respiration

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145
Q
  • Vocal folds open and close causing a buzzing

- Length and tension of vocal folds neurologically controlled by impulses to muscles.

A

Phonation (vibration -> sound production)

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146
Q
  • Particular sounds produced depend on configuration of oral cavity, flow of air, location of resonance (oral vs. nasal), phonation, etc.
  • Configuration relies on neural impulse sent to muscles
A

Articulation/Resonance (Sound modification)

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147
Q
  • Acoustic energy to pinna to EAM (ear canal) to Tympanic membrane
  • Mechanical energy to ossicular chain movement (modulated by the acoustic reflex) to oval window of the cochlea
  • Vibration of small membrane to hydraulic wave in fluid filled chambers of cochlea to moves organ of Corti and hair cells to nerve impulses sent to 8th cranial nerve
A

Auditory System of Speech Perception

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148
Q
  • Impulses from cranial nerve 3 enters central nervous system and synapse in three brainstem structures: 1st, cochlear nucleus then superior olivary nuclei then lastly to the inferior colliculi
  • Ascends to medial geniculate nucleus (in the thalamus) to the primary auditory cortex (Heschels Gyrus)
  • Ascents to Heschel’s Gyrus (primary auditory cortex) then to the auditory association areas (including Wernicke’s area)
A

Nervous System of Speech Perception

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149
Q

Wernicke’s Area is

A

Crucial for language comprehension

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150
Q

Embryology is the

A

first two months of development

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151
Q

Fertilization
Cellular mitosis (cells divide)
Mitosis

A

1st state of embryology/development

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152
Q

in days ___ and ___ cells mutate from 4 to 8.

A

Day 2-3

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153
Q

in days ____ and _____ the
blastocyst forms two distinct sections
1. Inner Cell Mass (body)
2. Outer Cell Mass (placenta)

A

Days 5-6

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154
Q

In day _____ bilaminar embryo; future amniotic sac above, yolk sac below

A

Day 9

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155
Q

In day _____ Stem cells “assigned” to a particular cell type

A

Day 14

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156
Q

In day ____ Nerve cells begin to form

A

Day 15

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157
Q

At week _____

  • The embryo is 3-4mm long
  • Has a prosencephalon, oral groove, nasal pits, and inner ear is beginning to develop
  • Notochord is developing
A

Week 3

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158
Q

In month _____

-Six pharyngeal/ branchial arches

A

1-1.5 Months

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159
Q
  1. Meckel’s (mandibular) arch
  2. Hyoid arch
  3. 3rd arch
  4. 4th arch
  5. 5th arch
  6. Caudal Arch
A

Six Pharyngeal/ Brachial Arches

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160
Q

Mandible, malleus, and incus

A

Meckel’s (mandibular) arch

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161
Q

Hyoid bone, part of tongue, and some of laryngeal cartilage

A

Hyoid arch

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162
Q

Hyoid Bone and part of the tongue

A

3rd arch

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163
Q

Larynx (thyroid cartilage)

A

4th arch

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164
Q

Cricoid cartilage and arytenoid cartilage of larynx

A

5th arch

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165
Q

Palatine muscles and pharyngeal constructors

A

Caudal Arch

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166
Q

In week ____

  • Neural folds pinch inward and fuse
  • neuroectodermal tissue breaks away and forms sides of neural tube and neural crest
  • nasal pits formed
  • pharynx formed
  • heart is forming
A

Week 4

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167
Q

Neural crest is…

A

Cells of Peripheral Nervous Systems

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168
Q

Neural Tube is…

A

Cells of the Central Nervous system

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169
Q

In week ____

  • unfused palate
  • epiglottis is forming
  • teeth begin to grow
  • brain development
  • spinal cord development
A

Week 5

170
Q

Vertebral Cortex/basal ganglia

A

Telencephalon

171
Q

Thalmus and hypothalamus

A

Diencephalon

172
Q

Ponds and Cerebellum

A

Metencephalon

173
Q

Medulla Oblongata

A

Myelencephalon

174
Q

Houses neural tissue involved in sensory function

A

Alar Plate

175
Q

Houses neural tissue involved in motor function within the spinal cord.

A

Basal Plate

176
Q

The spinal cord develops into two plates those two plates are ____ and ______

A

Alar Plate and Basal Plate

177
Q

In week ____

  • Oral and nasal cavities differentiate
  • Alveoli of lungs begin to form
  • Further development of outer ear cartilage
  • face/neck divided into four distinct areas
A

Week 6

178
Q
  1. frontonasal process (forehead/nose)
  2. maxillary process (upper Jaw)
  3. mandibular arch (lower jaw)
  4. hyoid arch (neck)
A

face/neck divided into four distinct areas

179
Q

In week ____

  • palate is fused
  • arytenoid swellings form larynx
  • nasal prominence
A

Week 7

180
Q

In week ______

  • there is vertical head growth
  • upper lip
  • tongue fills oral cavity
  • eyeballs are complete
A

Week 8

181
Q

In week _____

  • millions of neurons are proliferating in the brain
  • body is able to twitch involuntary
A

Week 9

182
Q

Why is the body able to twitch involuntary in week 9?

A

Neurons are further developing and reflexive spasms help stimulate grown of muscles and strengthen joints.

183
Q

In week ____

-uvula forms

A

Week 10

184
Q
  • Brain and spinal cord

- Covered by meninges, including three layers the dura, arachnoid, and pia.

A

Central Nervous System

185
Q

The spinal cord exits from the cranium through the ______

A

Foramen Magnum

186
Q

-Consists of cranial nerves and spinal nerves, which connect it to the central nervous system.

A

Peripheral Nervous System

187
Q

The peripheral nervous system divides into the ___________ and ____________

A

Somatic Nervous System and Autonomic Nervous System

188
Q

Motor and Sensory function carries info via cranial nerves and spinal nerves to skeletal muscles.

A

Somatic Nervous System

189
Q

Involuntarily carries all info about organs and blood vessels.

A

Autonomic/Visceral Nervous System

190
Q

The Autonomic nervous system further breaks down into ___________ and ____________.

A

Sympathetic Division and Parasympathetic Division

191
Q

Expends energy during stressful situation “fight or flight”

A

Sympathetic Division

192
Q

Conserves energy; calms the body

A

Parasympathetic Division

193
Q
  • Bony Shell (cranium and Vertebral Column)
  • Meninges
  • Cerebrospinal Fluid
A

Central Nervous System Protection

194
Q
  • Eight Cranial Nerves
    (1) Frontal
    (1) Ethmoid
    (1) Sphenoid
    (2) Temporal
    (2) Parietal
    (1) Occipital
A

Bony Shell: Eight Cranial Bones

195
Q

Frontal Bone

A

Forehead

196
Q

Ethmoid

A

Cranial Floor

197
Q

Sphenoid

A

Base of the skull

198
Q

Temporal

A

Either side of the skull

199
Q

Parietal

A

Either side of the cranium

200
Q

Occipital

A

Back of the Cranium

201
Q
  • 30 Skeletal Divisions
  • 12 Thoracic
  • 5 Lumbar
  • 5 Sacral
  • 1 Coccygeal
A

Bony Shell: Vertebral Column

202
Q
  • Outermost, tough, thick, fibrous and attaches to inner surface of bone
  • Potential spaces above and below can fill with blood if blood vessel ruptures.
A

Dura Mater

203
Q

What are the two spaces above and below the dura mater?

A

Epidural Space and Subdural Space

204
Q
  • very thin

- houses the subarachnoid space

A

Arachnoid Membrane

205
Q
  • appears similar to a spider web
  • filled with cerebral spinal fluid
  • with rupture of blood vessel –> fill with blood
A

Subarachnoid space

206
Q

rupture of blood vessel that leads to filling with blood

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

207
Q
  • Thin and transparent

- adjacent to brain/spinal cord surface

A

Pia Mater

208
Q

-Colorless, clear fluid

A

Cerebrospinal Fluid

209
Q
  • Cushion on the central nervous system

- Remove harmful substances or waste

A

Function of Cerebrospinal Fluid

210
Q

Cerebral Spinal fluid is produced by __________

A

Choroid Plexus

211
Q

Cerebral Spinal fluid is produced by choroid plexus in the ____________

A

Ventricles

212
Q

produced in ventricle to the 3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle to draining out of the subarachnoid space.

A

Flow of Cerebrospinal fluid

213
Q

Superior sagittal sinus through the arachnoid granulations to the veins run through the sinuses and reabsorb old CSF

A

Reabsorption of Cerebrospinal Fluid Flow

214
Q

Venous System

A

System of veins

215
Q

Removes deoxygenated blood from brain/spinal cord and returns it to the heart

A

Venous System Function

216
Q

__________ and __________ veins drain into inferior and superior sagittal sinus (where it mixes with CSF)

A

Deep and Superficial

217
Q

From these sinuses, fluid dumps into ________________________ and returns to heart and lugs for deoxygenation

A

Internal Jugular Veins

218
Q

Arterial System

A

System of Arteries

219
Q
  • Brings oxygenated blood to brain

- Oxygenated blood pumped from the aorta

A

Arterial System Function

220
Q

From the aorta to the subclavian artery up the back up the neck to the vertebral arteries to the basilar artery to the Peripheral Cerebral artery in the Circle of Willis.

A

Where oxygenated blood flows

221
Q

Gray Matter

A

Dendrites (neuronal cell bodies)

222
Q

White Matter

A

Axons

223
Q
  • Outermost layer of cerebral hemisphere (cerebral cortex)

- Left and Right: divided by longitudinal fissure

A

Telencephalon

224
Q

Deep/large sulci are called ______

A

fissures

225
Q
  1. Frontal (anterior most)
  2. Parietal (posterior to frontal)
  3. Occipital (posterior and inferior to parietal)
  4. Temporal (anterior to occipital)
A

Four lobes of the telencephalon

226
Q
  • Precentral Gyrus (Primary Motor Cortex)
  • Premotor area
  • Prefrontal Area
  • Inferior frontal gyrus/Broca’s area
A

Frontal Lobe

227
Q

Postcentral Gyrus (Primary Somatosensory Cortex);sensory homunculus

  • Sensory association areas
  • Supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus
A

Parietal Lobe

228
Q
  • Superior temporal gyrus/primary auditory cortex (Heschel’s Gyrus)
  • Auditory association areas (including Wenicke’s)
  • Hippocampus (memory)
A

Temporal Lobe

229
Q
  • Primary Visual Cortex (sense of vision)

- Visual association areas

A

Occipital Lobe

230
Q

Deep white matter tracts

A

Bundles of axons

231
Q

course L to R and R to L

A

Commissural

232
Q

Projection

A

Descending and ascending

233
Q

connect cortical gray to subcortical gray

A

Striatal Tracts

234
Q

Association

A

eg Arcuate fasciculus

235
Q

Collection of Gray matter

A

Basal Ganglia

236
Q

Globus Pallidus
Striatum (Caudate nucleus, putamen)
Amygdaloid nucleus
Claustrum

A

Structures in Basal Ganglia

237
Q
  • Thalamus
  • Hypothalamus
  • Subthalamus
A

Diencephalaon

238
Q
  • Paired nuclei
  • functional subdivisions
  • on either side of the third ventricle
A

Thalamus

239
Q

Midline anterior and inferior to thalami

A

Hypothalamus

240
Q

located ventrally to the thalamus; dorsolateral to the hypothalamus

A

Subthalamus

241
Q
  • Mesencephalon
  • Metencephalon
  • Pons
A

Brainstem and Cerebellum

242
Q

-Midbrain; lies below thalamus at superior/caudal stalk of brainstem

A

Mesencephalon

243
Q
  • Cerebellum
  • Finely convoluted cortex
  • two hemispheres
  • attached to the brainstem via the cerebellar peduncles
A

Metencephalon

244
Q

located posterior cranial space, surrounded by meningeal layers

A

Cerebellum

245
Q

situated inferior to the midbrain; superior to the medulla

A

Pons

246
Q

most caudal aspect of the brainstem; rostral to the spin cord and foramen magnum

A

Medulla Oblongata

247
Q

-Medulla oblongata

A

Myelencephalon

248
Q
  • Houses cranial nerve nuclei important for speech, hearing, and swallowing.
  • Vital life functions
A

Medulla Oblongata

249
Q

location of pyramidal decussation of motor information

A

Pyramids in the Medulla Oblongata

250
Q
  • Provide motor and sensory innervation to the muscles and structures of head and neck
  • Innervate special sensory systems (vision/audition)
  • Involved in ANS
A

Cranial Nerves

251
Q

All but two cranial nerves have nuclei in the brainstem-which ones do not?

A

Cranial Nerve 1 (Olfactory Nerve)

Cranial Nerve 2 (Optic Nerve)

252
Q

Cranial Nerve 1

A

Olfactory

253
Q

Cranial Nerve 2

A

Optic

254
Q

Cranial Nerve 3

A

Oculomotor

255
Q

Cranial Nerve 4

A

Trochlear

256
Q

Cranial Nerve 5

A

Trigeminal

257
Q

Cranial Nerve 6

A

Abducens

258
Q

Cranial Nerve 7

A

Facial

259
Q

Cranial Nerve 8

A

Vestibulocochlear

260
Q

Cranial Nerve 9

A

Glossopharyngeal

261
Q

Cranial Nerve 10

A

Vagus

262
Q

Cranial Nerve 11

A

Spinal Accessory

263
Q

Cranial Nerve 12

A

Hypoglossal

264
Q
  • Motor

- Muscles of the tongue

A

Hypoglossal

265
Q
  • Motor

- Neck and Shoulders

A

Spinal Accessory

266
Q
  • Sensory and Motor

- Larynx, Pharynx, and Vocal Folds

A

Vagus

267
Q
  • Sensory and Motor

- Taste/Secretion

A

Glossopharyngeal

268
Q
  • Sensory but on occasion can be both

- Hearing, balance, positioning

A

Vestibulocochlear

269
Q
  • Sensory and motor

- Facial expression

A

Facial

270
Q
  • Motor

- Eye movement

A

Abducens

271
Q
  • Sensory and Motor

- Jaw movement

A

Trigeminal

272
Q
  • Motor

- Eyes

A

Trochlear

273
Q
  • Motor

- Eyes

A

Oculomotor

274
Q
  • Sensory

- Vision

A

Optic

275
Q
  • Sensory

- Smell

A

Olfactory

276
Q
  • Stretches from foramen magnum (rostral) to conus medullaris (caudal); cauda equina
  • Five segmental portions: 31 Paired Nerves
  • Carries afferent and efferent information
  • Gray and white matter
  • Central canal: filled with CSF
A

Spinal Cord

277
Q

Spinal nerves; base to tail; how the nerves stretch

A

Cauda Equina

278
Q

Paired cervical nerves

A

8

279
Q

Paired thoracic nerves

A

12

280
Q

Paired lumbar nerves

A

5

281
Q

Paired sacral nerves

A

5

282
Q

Paired coccygeal nerves

A

1

283
Q

Five segmented portions of the Spinal Cord

A
  1. Cervical
  2. Thoracic
  3. Lumbar
  4. Sacral
  5. Coccygeal
284
Q

Enters in dorsal root

A

Afferent

285
Q

Exits from ventral root

A

Efferent

286
Q
  • Nerve Cell
  • Synapse
  • Glial Cells: Helper Cells
A

Cells of the Nervous System

287
Q 
Comprised of:
Cell body/stoma 
Dendrites
Axon, hillock
Terminal Boutons
A

Nerve Cell (Neuron)

288
Q
  • Terminal Boutons, gap, neighboring receptor cite

- Neurotransmitters released

A

Synapse

289
Q

Glial Cells

A

Helper Cells

290
Q
  • Astrocytes (astroglia)
  • Contribute to the blood-brain barrier
  • Neural recovery
  • Oligodendrocytes (oligodendroglia)
  • Microglia
  • Ependymal Cells
  • Schwann Cells
A

Glia Cells

291
Q
  • Fill interneuronal space in central nervous system
  • Separate neurons from each other except at synaptic cleft
  • Provide stiffness and overall support
A

Astrocytes/Astroglia Structure

292
Q

-Seal cavity and forming a cyst (in large areas) or filling the space with a glial scar.

A

Neural Recovery

293
Q
  • Myelinate neurons in the central nervous system

- One _________ can myelinate several axons insulates and speeds up action potential conduction

A

Oligodendrocytes/Oligodendroglia

294
Q
  • Small cells with smallest percentage of glia population in the central nervous system
  • Activate when antigens are present in the central nervous system
  • Travel to site of neuronal insult/injury and phagocytose cellular debris leaving a cavity
A

Microglia

295
Q
  • Form inner surface of ventricles

- Contribute to composition of choroid plexus

A

Ependymal Cells

296
Q

Choroid plexus is involved in what?

A

Producing CSF

297
Q
  • ONLY support in Peripheral nervous system
  • Accomplish same functions as glia cells in central nervous system
  • Surrounds myelinated and unmyelinated neurons in peripheral nervous system to separate from extracellular environment
A

Schwann Cells

298
Q

How do nervous system cells communicate?

A
  • The action potential

- Cerebral Function

299
Q

What releases neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft?

A

Synaptic knobs

300
Q

What does not cross the synapse?

A

the electrical impulse itself

301
Q

What crosses the synapse?

A

The neurotransmitter itself

302
Q
  • Polarized state
  • Positive and negative ions unequally distributed on each side of the membrane.
  • More potassium inside and sodium outside
  • Membrane channels gated by electric potential and neurotransmitters
A

Resting Membrane Potential

303
Q
  • Ion channel opens and Na+ flows into an axon cell when the membrane potential reaches threshold
  • Reverses polarity of axon turning into more positive state
A

Depolarization or Action Potential

304
Q
  • Headed back to a normal state
  • Sodium channels close
  • Potassium channels open making the positive ion leave
  • Membrane becomes more negatively charged and outward movement of K+ ions
  • More Na+ inside and K+ outside
A

Repolarization

305
Q
  • Cell interior becoming extremely negative (-80mV)
  • Absolute refractory period
  • K+ channels close (no more outward flow of K+)
  • Sodium Potassium pumps turn on, Na+ ions are pumped out and K+ ions are pumped back in
A

Hyperpolarization

306
Q

Cell is way too negative and cannot initiate another action potential

A

Absolute Refractory Period

307
Q

Goal is for the neurotransmitter to make cell reach threshold and fire an action potential

A

Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential (EPSP)

308
Q

Goal is for neurotransmitter to make cell less able to fire an action potential

A

Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potential (IPSP)

309
Q
  • Faster in myelinated axons (saltatory conduction)

- Larger diameter of axon high velocity of impulse conduction

A

Impulse Conduction

310
Q

What must happen to the axon before another action potential can be generated?

A
  • Action potential can only be generated once the axon is back to normal resting state.
  • Higher concentration of K+ (potassium) on the inside, Na+ (sodium) on the outside, and that -65 to -70mV
311
Q
  • Refers to cellular makeup of the cortex

- It can vary

A

Cytoarchitecture

312
Q

-Scientist who found differences between these areas of the brain based on cytoarchitecture

A

Broadmann

313
Q
  • Cytoarchitecture, Broadmann’s areas
  • direct communication with motor/sensory functions
  • association areas
  • Limbic: Cingulate, parahippocampal gyrus, hippocampus, amygdala (and others)
  • ALL areas must be interconnected by white matter fibers
A

Cerebral Function

314
Q

Motor commands are initiated in _____

A

Primary Motor Area (frontal Lobe)

315
Q

Primary Motor Area

A

Frontal Lobe

316
Q

Touch, Pain, Temperature

A

Primary Somatosensory Area (parietal lobe)

317
Q

Primary Somatosensory Area

A

Parietal Lobe

318
Q

Sight

A

Primary Visual Area (Occipital Lobe)

319
Q

Hearing

A

Primar Auditory Area (temporal lobe)

320
Q

Primary Auditory Area

A

Temporal Lobe

321
Q

What is the first corticle region that receives information for the respective sense?

A
  1. Primary somatosensory area
  2. Primary visual area
  3. Primary auditory area
322
Q
  • Unimodal

- Multimodal

A

Association Areas

323
Q
  • Lie adjacent to primary cortex

- Specific in processing and identifying something of that specific modality

A

Unimodal

324
Q
  • Receive multiple inputs from unimodal associated areas
  • From multiple inputs of our sensory function
  • Somatosensory cortex and visual cortex
A

Multimodal

325
Q

Regulating emotional/motivational aspects of behavior, memory, learning
-not just one area

A

Limbic

326
Q
  • Sensorimotor control for the right side of the body
  • Language! (production/comprehension)
  • Rapidly changing information (speech signal)
  • Detailed analysis
A

Left Hemisphere

327
Q
  • Sensorimotor control for the left side of the body
  • Melody/Prosody (intonation/stress)
  • Holistic Processing
  • Formulaic language/metaphor/nonliteral language
  • Emotional processing and face recognition
A

Right Hemisphere

328
Q

What is resting membrane voltage?

A

-65 to -70 mV

329
Q

Potassium flows out of the cell during which stage of the action potential?

A

-Repolarization

330
Q

Name a function of the right hemisphere.

A
  • Sensory motor control for the left side of the body
  • Melody/Prosody (makes us not sound like robots)
  • Emotional Processing
  • Formulaic Language
331
Q

What nerve innervates the diaphragm and where is it located??

A

-Phrenic Nerve (C3-C5)

332
Q

Is the phrenic nerve a cranial nerve or spinal nerve?

A

-Spinal Nerve

333
Q

What are the cranial nerves involved in motor speech?

A
  • Cranial Nerve 5: Trigeminal Nerve
  • Cranial nerve 7:Facial
  • Cranial Nerve 9: Glossopharyngeal Nerve
  • Cranial Nerve 10: Vagus Nerve
  • Cranial Nerve 11: Spinal Accessory Nerve
  • Cranial Nerve 12: Hypoglossal Nerve
334
Q

What developmental abnormality is characterized by an overproduction of CSF?

A

Hydrocephalus

335
Q

What is the difference between a thrombosis and an embolism?

A
  • Thrombosis is localized build up

- Embolism is a traveling clot

336
Q

What disease is an autoimmune condition characterized by a loss of myelin?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

337
Q

Which glial cell produces myelin?

A

-Oligodendrocytes

338
Q

True or False: Guillan-Barre is a recoverable condition that attacks the central nervous system.

A
  • False

- It is recoverable, but it is a disease of the peripheral nervous system

339
Q

Name the disease that is caused by degeneration of substantia nigra and is marked by hypokinetic dysarthria.

A

-Parkinson’s Disease

340
Q

Name the disease that has Hyper dysarthria.

A

-Huntington’s Disease

341
Q

Anomia

A
  • inability to recall names for things

- initial symptom of Alzheimer’s

342
Q

Aphasia

A

-Loss of language

343
Q

Dysphagia

A

-Difficulty of swallowing

344
Q

Dysarthria

A
  • lost ability of speech

- actual muscle coordination required

345
Q
  • Alpha motor neuron and the muscle cells

- Many nerve cells innervate a given muscles

A

Motor Unit

346
Q

Degree of muscle contraction

A

Tone

347
Q

Determined by the number of individual muscle cells that are contracted vs relaxed

A

Degree of muscle contraction

348
Q

Cells of a muscle are excessively contracted (extremely high tone)

A

Spasticity

349
Q
  • cells of a muscle are excessively relaxed

- lower motor neuron damage

A

Flaccidity

350
Q

Speech starts with a _________

A

Cognitive Function

351
Q

Cognitive function is the same as

A

frontal lobe function

352
Q

What content do we want to convey?

A

Wernicke’s area

353
Q

Where is the language production zone?

A

Broca’s (and premotor, basal ganglia, cerebellum, primary sensory)

354
Q

direct motor (speech) act

A

Primary Motor Area

355
Q

muscles of speech production

A

Corticobulbar Tracts

356
Q

cortex to different areas of the spinal cord

A

Corticospinal Tracts

357
Q

Cortex to bulbar nuclei in brain stem

A

Corticobulbar Tracts

358
Q

(pyramidal tracts) transmit signal to cranial and spinal nerves

A

Corticobulbar and Corticospinal Tracts

359
Q

_______ are typically named from where they start to where they end.

A

Pathways

360
Q

descending efferent pathway to spinal nerves (cortex to spinal cord)

A

Corticospinal Tract

361
Q

descending efferent pathway to cranial nerves (cortex to bulbar nuclei in the brain stem)

A

Corticobulbar Tract

362
Q

Motor command initiated at precentral gyrus and sent via corticospinal tract and phrenic nerve

A

Respiration

363
Q

crosses midline at caudal medulla and spinal cord

A

Corticospinal Tract

364
Q

innervates diaphragm (C3-C5)

A

Phrenic Nerve

365
Q

-Transmits sensory information from head, face, teeth, including mucous membranes, proprioceptive information about facial and lingual muscles

A

Trigeminal Nerve (Cranial Neve 5)

366
Q

-Motor Function: Jaw movement (open/close), mastication; innervates soft palate muscle (tensor veli palatini) innervates muscle in inner ear space that controls movement of the tympanic membrane (tensor tympani)

A

Motor function of Trigeminal Cranial Nerve 5

367
Q

Mandibular (sensory and motor)

A

Trigeminal Nerve Cranial Nerve 5

368
Q

Sensory function: taste from anterior two thirds of tongue

A

Facial Nerve Cranial Nerve 7

369
Q

Innervates muscles of lip movement, innervates eyelid depressors, stapedius muscle (attaches to staples in middle ear)

A

Facial Nerve Cranial Nerve 7

370
Q

Autonomic function: Salivary nuclei –> glandular secretions

A

Facial Nerve Cranial Nerve 7

371
Q

-Sensory: from pharynx, posterior one third taste

A

Glossopharyngeal Nerve Cranial Nerve 9

372
Q

Motor: pharyngeal (innervates stylopharyngeus)

A

Glossopharyngeal Nerve Cranial Nerve 9

373
Q

Autonomic: Saliva Production

A

Glossopharyngeal Nerve Cranial Nerve 9

374
Q

Sensory: muscosal surfaces of lower pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, esophagus, stomach, taste buds around epiglottis

A

Vagus Nerve Cranial Nerve 10

375
Q

Motor: innervates intrinsic muscles of larynx; pharyngeal muscles (except stylopharyngeus) velar muscles (except tensor veli palatini), palatoglossus/palatopharyngeus

A

Vagus Nerve Cranial Nerve 10

376
Q

Innervates the velar and pharyngeal constrictor muscles

A

Pharyngeal Branch

377
Q

Innervating pharyngeal and circothyroid muscles (phonation and swallowing)

A

Superior Laryngeal branch

378
Q

Innervates muscles in the larynx (phonation)

A

Recurrent laryngeal branch

379
Q

Autonomic: innervates glands, cardiac muscles, smooth muscle of viscera

A

Vagus Nerve Cranial Nerve 10

380
Q

Motor: innervates neck and shoulder muscles
assists vagus nerve to innervate muscles of the velum, pharynx, and larynx
Sternocleidomastoid (turn head)
Trapezius (shrug shoulders)
-Muscles of respiration

A

Spinal Accessory Nerve Cranial Nerve 11

381
Q

Motor: tongue movement
extrinsic muscles of larynx
motor nucleus in medulla (hypoglossal nucleus) -innervates contralateral tongue

A

Hypoglossas Nerve Cranial Nerve 12

382
Q 
Defect in fusion of neural tube 
1 in 1000 deliveries 
no optic 
very severe 
no skull covering
A

Anencephaly

383
Q

bone fusion prevented in posterior midline of skull or dorsal part of the neural tube in future vertebral column

A

Cranium Bifidum/Spina Bifida

384
Q

Ventricles severely enlarged because excessive productions of CSF and or obstruction of CSF drainage pathways.

A

Hydrocephalus

385
Q

brain, calvaria, faces are small

A

Microcephaly

386
Q

part of the brain protruding

A

Cranium Bifidum

387
Q

part of the spinal cord is protruding

A

Spina Bifida

388
Q

neuronal cell death due to blockage of blood flow or bleed

A

Stroke (CVA)

389
Q

Blockage of blood flow

A

Ischemia

390
Q

hemorrhage; hematoma

A

Bleed

391
Q

football shaped

A

Hematoma

392
Q

-arteries and veins are tangled

A

Arteriovenous malformation

393
Q

wall balloons out

A

Aneurysm

394
Q

Blood vessels can tear

A

Traumatic Brain injury

395
Q

language disorder

A

aphasia

396
Q

middle cerebral artery affects brocas area utterence length is reduced

A

Nonfluent aphasia

397
Q

Wernicke’s area comprehension is a problem

A

Fluent aphasia

398
Q

closer to sylvian fissure

A

perisylvian

399
Q

further away from sylvian fissure

A

extraperisylvian

400
Q

some language comprehension deficits; some production deficits; repetition may be affected

A

Mixed aphasia

401
Q

occurs in the primary motor cortex and motor speech disorder

A

Dysarthria

402
Q

high toned state (upper motor neuron pathways) Cortex to brainstem nuclei

A

Spastic

403
Q

(lower motor neurons) cranial nerves

A

Flaccid

404
Q

Reduced movements

-caused by subcortical motor circuts (Ex basal ganglia pathways)

A

Hypokinetic

405
Q

excessive movements

–caused by subcortical motor circuts (Ex basal ganglia pathways)

A

Hyperkinetic

406
Q

uncoordinated movements (damage to the cerebellum)

A

Ataxic

407
Q

runs the gamet; can be upper and lower injuries

A

Mixed

408
Q

cognitive deficits

A

prefrontal

409
Q

sensory integration deficits

A

parietal

410
Q

dysprosodia, flat speech, suprasegmantals affected

A

frontal/parietal

411
Q

Visual deficits

A

Occipital Lobe

412
Q
  • antibodies attack myelin
  • myelin degenerates but initially spares axon
  • glial proliferation and myelin debris contribute to dense plaque formation in CNS
  • ultimately plaques may cause axon to degenerate to more severe, progressive disability
  • spastic dysarthria (high toned state)
A

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

413
Q
  • Peripheral myelin- demyelinating auto-immune condition
  • Slows speed of nerve conduction
  • recoverable
  • ascending deficits in sensoineural information (starts in fingers, toes, feet and moves upward in the body)
A

Guillain-Barré Syndrome

414
Q
  • Basal ganglia dysfunction
  • Degneration of substantia nigra dopamine producing cells (loosing dopamine)
  • Hypokinetic dysarthria
  • Resting Tremor
A

Parkinson’s Disease

415
Q

Hyperkinetic dysarthria

psychiatric component

A

Huntington’s Disease

416
Q

Mixed spastic, flaccid dysarthria

A

ALS

417
Q

ataxis dysarthria

A

Friedrich’s ataxia

418
Q
  • Tempero-parietal dementia
  • Plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
  • Memory for recent past worse than distant past
  • Anomia may be initial system
  • Syntax spared! Formulaic language is spared!
  • Progresses frontally in late stages
  • Semantic impariment
A

Alzheimer’s Disease

419
Q

Specific degeneration of areas related to language (especially when in the left hemisphere)

A

Primary Progressive Aphasia

420
Q

Researches believe that primary progressive aphasia could be ______________

A

Fronto-temporal dementia

421
Q 
Speech and swallow may be impaired 
respiratory support 
nerves controlling laryngeal and pharyngeal function may be affected 
head and neck movement 
tracheostomy tubes
A

Spinal Cord Injury

Anatomy and Physiology of the Speech and Swallow Mechanisms (1 decks)

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