Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which classic Gram (+) cause disease in humans?

A

Cocci:

  1. Staphylococcus
  2. Streptococcus
  3. Enterococcus

Bacilli:

  • Spore-forming
  1. Bacillus
  2. Clostridium
  • Non spore-forming
  1. Corynebacterium
  2. Listeria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What determines virulence?

A

Virulence factors

  • Cell structures
  • Bacterial endotoxins
  • Bacterial exotoxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the cell structures?

A

Flagella - movement

Pili - shorter hair-like filaments for attachment

Capsules - polysaccharide outer layer for adherence & protection

Endospores - dormant form

Biofilms (glycocalyx, slime layer) - extracellular polysaccharide network

Endotoxin - piece of LPS (gram -)

Exotoxin - protein secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which group of bacteria can hemolyze? How are they classified?

A

Gram positive Streptococcus

  1. Alpha hemolytic streptococci partially lyse RBC
  2. Beta hemolytic streptococci completely lyse RBC
  3. Gamma-hemolytic streptococci are non-hemolytic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 5 species of pathogenic Streptocci?

A
  1. Group A strep - Streptococcus pyogenes
  2. Group B strep - Streptococcus agalactiae
  3. Group D strep - Enterococci & Streptococcus bovis
  4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  5. Viridans strep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the RADT test used for? What does it detect?

A

Test for streptococcal pharyngitis. It can detect group A carbohydrate antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is Streptococcus agalactiae found?

A

women’s vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 major pathogenic species of Gram (+) staphylococci?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus*
  • Staphylococcus epidermidis*
  • Staphylococcus saprophyticus*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is catalase? What is its significance in bacteria?

A

It is an enzyme that decomposes hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. It allows bacterias to survive attacks by neutrophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a coagulase test? What does it help identify?

A

Help identify species of Staphylococci that cause blood to clot. Only Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Penicillin disturbs cell walls by inhibiting what?

A

Transpeptidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When are endospores formed?

A

Formed by two Gram + rods: Bacillus & Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bacteria frequently associated with infections of catheters or prosthetics?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the bacterias catalase-positive?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is group A strep?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is group B strep?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is group D strep?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is associated with what organism?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of infection is associated with Staphylococcus saprophyticus?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Source of infection associated with Bacillus cereus?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is the causative organism for gas gangrene?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is associated with “traveler’s diarrhea?”

24
Q

Currant jelly sputum is associated with which of the following organisms?

25
Diarrhea with bright red blood is associated with which of the following organisms?
26
Chronic carriers of Salmonella typhi carry the organism in what organ?
27
Which of the following organisms are associated with community acquired pneumonia transmitted by contaminated water source?
28
Which of the following organisms causes an infection associated with cat and dog bites?
29
Which of the following organisms causes Lyme disease?
30
Which of the following is an obligate intracellular bacteria?
31
What infection does Staphylococcus epidermidis?
Bacteremia, catheter-related sepsis, and infection of prostheses
32
What toxin is secreted by Clostridium? What disease can it cause?
Neurotoxin causes paralysis or contraction
33
What kind of toxin is secreted by Vibrio cholera? What disease can it cause?
Enterotoxin causes massive diarrhea in cholera
34
Commential Flora: Skin
1. Coagulase-negative staphylococci 2. Corynebacterium 3. Bacillus 4. S. aureus
35
Identify the physical and biological properties of viral agents
H
36
Identify the transmission, replication processes, signs and symptoms of disease, disease prevention and control, and diagnostic procedures associated with viral infections
37
Recognize the way in which viruses are replicated, including how host cells and tissues are infected.
38
4. Identify the infectious agents, transmission, signs and symptoms, complications, and control of:
39
4. Identify the infectious agents, transmission, signs and symptoms, complications, and control of:
H
40
4. Identify the infectious agents, transmission, signs and symptoms, complications, and control of:
H
41
DNA Viruses - enveloped
Herpesvirus • Herpes simplex virus 1 & 2 • Varicella-zoster virus • Cytomegalovirus • Epstein-Barr virus • Human herpesvirus 6, 7, 8 * Hepadnavirus * Hepatitis B * Poxvirus * Smallpox * Molluscum contagiosum DNA Viruses – Nonenveloped * Adenovirus * Respiratory diseases and gastroenteritis * Papillomavirus * Parvovirus – SINGLE STRANDED
42
DNA Viruses "naked" - nonenveloped
* Adenovirus * Respiratory diseases and gastroenteritis * Papillomavirus * Parvovirus – SINGLE STRANDED
43
Prions
• Exception to the basic viral structure • Composed entirely of protein • Normal, misconfigured human proteins • Disrupts neuron function • Causes transmissible spongiform encephalopathies • Mad cow disease * Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease * Kuru
44
Viral Transmission & Replication – Early steps
Attachment to host cell • Penetration/Entry • Virion surface proteins attach to • Naked viruses engulfed by vesicle receptor proteins on the cell • Enveloped viruses undergo fusion surface Uncoating to release the genome • Low vesicle pH uncoats virion • Rupture or fusion
45
Viral Transmission & Replication – Middle step
Gene expression • Virus specific mRNA synthesis • Synthesis of viral proteins • Genome replication • DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus using host cell DNA-dependent RNA polymerase • Exception = poxviruses – cytoplasm • RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm • Exception = retroviruses and influenza viruses – nucleus
46
Viral Transmission & Replication – Late steps
• Assembly • Viral nucleic acid packaged within capsid proteins • Release from cell • Rupture of cell membrane releasing assembled virions (usually naked viruses) OR • Budding process (enveloped viruses)
47
Infected cells
* Death * Host cell protein synthesis inhibited • Fusion of cells to form multinucleated cells * Due to cell membrane changes • Malignant transformation * Unrestrained growth * Prolonged survival * Morphologic changes • No effect - rare
48
Infection stages
* Incubation * Asymptomatic • Prodromal * Non-specific symptoms • Specific-illness * Characteristic symptoms and signs • Recovery * Illness wanes
49
Cell culture
• Monitor for characteristic cytopathic effect – provides presumptive diagnosis • Can arrive at definitive identification by using known antibody with a variety of tests • Complement fixation, • Hemagluttination inhibition • CPE neutralization • Fluorescent antibody • Radioimmunoassay • ELISA • Immunoelectron microscopy
50
Microscopic identification
Identified by microscopic exam of clinical specimen • Light microscopy – characteristic inclusion bodies or multinucleated giant cells • Tzanck smear – shows herpesvirus- induced multinucleated giant cells • UV microscopy – fluorescent antibody staining of virus • Electron microscopy – detects virus particles characterized by size and shape
51
Serology
Antibody to the virus is measured • Acute and convalescent phase samples
52
Viral antigen detection
• Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
53
Viral nucleic acid detection
Test for viral genome or viral mRNA by using complementary DNA or RNA • Can use polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to amplify small amounts of viral nucleic acids
54
Disease prevention
Active immunity • Attenuated live virus – greater, longer lasting protection • Killed virus • Subunit vaccines – contain purified viral proteins • Passive immunity • Preformed antibody administered in immune globulins • Herd immunity – “community immunity”
55
Disease control
Challenges: • Difficult to obtain selective toxicity against the virus since replication so closely involved with normal synthetic processes of the cell • Extensive viral replication occurs during the incubation period • Drug-resistant viral mutants
56