Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Peds III > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

when does physiologic reflux resolve

A

12-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

signs that reflux is pathological (GERD)

A

failure to thrive, food refusal, pain, GI bleeding, respiratory symptoms, Sandifer syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

risk factors for GERD in older children

A

CF, developmental delay, asthma, hiatal hernia, repaired tracheoesophageal fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

most common foreign body ingestion

A

coins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

initial imaging for foreign body ingestion

A

plain radiograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

imaging for ingestion of a nonradiopaque object

A

contrast esophagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what foreign body should be removed immediately from esophagus

A

button battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when should esophageal foreign bodies be removed

A

within 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

esophageal food impaction raises concern for what

A

eosinophilic esophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what to do if button battery has passed into stomach

A

consider endoscopic eval for larger batteries or younger children but otherwise it will likely pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what to do about smooth objects in the stomach

A

may be monitored for several weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what to do about nails or screws in the stomach

A

will generally pass without incident but endoscopic removal may be considered on a case-by-case basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what objects must be removed from stomach

A

double-sided sharp objects, multiple magnets, large and open safety pins, objects longer than 5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how many ingested foreign bodies pass spontaneously

A

80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

symptoms of ingested foreign body

A

dysphagia, odynophagia, drooling, regurgitation, chest pain, abdominal pain, none, cough (if retained in esophagus > 1 week)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is pyloric stenosis

A

pyloric muscular hypertrophy with gastric outlet obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pyloric stenosis is more common in ___

A

boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cause of pyloric stenosis

A

unknown, may be associated with neonatal use of erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pyloric stenosis presentation

A

projectile postprandial vomiting, hunger, postprandial upper abdominal distention, 5-15 mm oval mass in RUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pyloric stenosis age of onset

A

2-4 weeks (up to 12 weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

metabolic findings of pyloric stenosis

A

hypochloremic alkalosis with potassium depletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

imaging for pyloric stenosis

A

ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ultrasound findings of pyloric stenosis

A

hypoechoic muscle ring > 4mm thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

barium upper GI series findings in pyloric stenosis

A

long, narrow pyloric channel with double track of barium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

pyloric stenosis tx

A

manage dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities and then surgical repair (Ramstedt pyloromyotomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

most common causes of gastric or duodenal ulcers

A

H. Pylori infection, NSAID use, underlying illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

most common symptoms of gastric/duodenal ulcers in peds < 6 y/o

A

vomiting, upper GI bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

most common symptoms of gastric/duodenal ulcers in older children

A

epigastric pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

diagnosis of gastric/duodenal ulcers

A

upper GI endoscopy with biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

triple therapy for H. Pylori

A

PPI, amoxicillin, clarithromycin for 7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

quadruple therapy for H. Pylori

A

PPI, bismuth, metronidazole, tetracycline (doxycycline if < 8 y/o)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

imaging for esophagitis

A

upper GI series and modified barium swallow study/esophagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

treatment for candida esophagitis

A

figure out cause, fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

treatment for eosinophilic esophagitis

A

swallowed corticosteroid, PPI, refer for allergy testing and/or elimination diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

classic appearance of H pylori on EGD

A

nodular gastritis of stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what medication can be added to PPI for ulcer healing

A

sucralfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

when does hypertophy of muscle begin in pyloric stenosis

A

postnatally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

predisposing conditions for mallory-weiss tears

A

portal hypertension, cirrhosis, severe GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

typical location of mallory-weiss tear

A

gastroesophageal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

etiology of mallory-weiss tear

A

longitudinal tears caused by elevated intrabdominal pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

mallory weiss tears are more common in what age group

A

older children/adolescents, but can present at any age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

mallory-weiss tear presentation

A

hematemesis (usually after several bouts of vomiting), melena, symptoms of volume depletion, abdominal pain (due to underlying cause of vomiting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

labs for mallory-weiss tear

A

CBC, coag studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

diagnosis of mallory-weiss tear

A

no specific imaging, generally diagnosed on EGD as one or more linear bleeding lesions at or just proximal gastroesophageal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

when must endoscopy be performed for mallory-weiss tear

A

within 24 hours of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

mallory-weiss tear treatment

A

determine underlying cause of vomiting, tears typically resolve spontaneously, but severe cases can be treated with systemic vasopressin or surgery (in extreme cases). No special diet is required

47
Q

most common type of cholelithiasis < 10 y/o

A

black bile stones

48
Q

most common type of cholelithiasis > 10 y/o

A

cholesterol stones

49
Q

most common cause of cholecystitis in peds

A

cholelithiasis

50
Q

GERD risk factors

A

preterm birth, chronic lung disease, cerebral palsy

51
Q

when can gallstones start to form

A

in utero

52
Q

gallstones ssx

A

acute/recurrent postprandial RUQ/epigastric pain radiating substernally, back, or right shoulder, N/V, +/- jaundice, fever

53
Q

location of gallstone if jaundice present

A

common duct or ampulla hepatopancreatica

54
Q

gallstones risk factors

A

hemolytic disease, females, obesity, rapid weight loss, portal vein thrombosis, “certain ethnic groups (Pima Indians/Hispanics)”, Crohns disease, CF, parenteral nutrition

55
Q

labs for gallstones

A

CBC, gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT), amylase, CMP

56
Q

diagnostic criteria for acute pancreatitis

A

at least 2 of the following: upper abdominal pain, amylase/lipase > 3x upper limit, imaging consistent with acute pancreatitis

57
Q

classic presentation of acute pancreatitis

A

epigastric pain radiating to the back, N/V; tender but not rigid abdomen, diminished bowel sounds, +/- ascites and left pleural effusion

58
Q

most common causes of acute pancreatitis

A

idiopathic (20%), drugs, viral infections, systemic disease, abdominal trauma, obstruction of pancreatic flow

59
Q

presentation of acute pancreatitis in infants and younger children

A

abdominal distention with classic symptoms less common

60
Q

indicators of poor prognosis in acute pancreatitis

A

leukocytosis, hyperglycemia, falling hematocrit, rising BUN, hypoxemia, acidosis

61
Q

initial imaging for acute pancreatitis

A

ultrasound followed by CT

62
Q

treatment of acute pancreatitis

A

pain control, decompression of biliary system if obstructed, fluids (LR), enteral feeding, gastric decompression,

63
Q

definition of cyclic vomiting syndrome

A

recurrent episodes of intense, unremitting nausea and paroxysmal vomiting with return to normal between episodes

64
Q

prognosis of acute pancreatitis

A

good

65
Q

associated symptoms in cyclic vomiting syndrome

A

mallory-weiss tear, autonomic symptoms (pallor, sweating, lethargy

66
Q

cyclic vomiting syndrome is associated with what condition

A

migraines

67
Q

cyclic vomiting syndrome treatment (acute)

A

avoid triggers, diphenhydramine/lorazepam to induce sleep, antimigraine medications, IV fluids

68
Q

common population affected by cyclic vomiting syndrome

A

toddlers

69
Q

when does colic occur

A

2-3 months

70
Q

colic rule of 3s

A

cries for more than 3 hours per day, more than 3 days per week, for more than 3 weeks

71
Q

causes of swallowing/feeding difficulties

A

oral-motor dysfunction (due to developmental delay or neuro problem), chronic conditions leading to fatigue, GI pain, emotional/social trauma, enteral/IV nutrition

72
Q

prophylactic cyclic vomiting syndrome treatment

A

<5 y/o cyproheptadine, >5 y/o amitriptyline

73
Q

dosing consideration for PPI

A

must take at least 30 minutes before eating

74
Q

major risk factor for celiac disease

A

type I DM

75
Q

triggers of celiac disease

A

wheat, rye, barley, some cross-reactivity with oats

76
Q

GI manifestations of celiac (typical)

A

abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting, anorexia, distention, +/- constipation,

77
Q

non-GI manifestations of celiac (atypical)

A

oral ulcers, dermatitis herpetiformis, growth/pubertal delay, IDA, arthritis, elevated LFTs, behavioral problems, migraines, electrolyte derangements

78
Q

celiac age of onset

A

6-24 months

79
Q

definition of food intolerance

A

non-immunologic adverse reaction, inability to digest/metabolize certain foods

80
Q

2 classes of food allergies

A

immuno-related (IgE-mediated), non immuno-related (not IgE-mediated)

81
Q

definition of adverse food reaction

A

untoward response to a food

82
Q

valid immunologic tests

A

serum specific IgE, skin testing

83
Q

valid non-immunologic tests

A

tTG-IgA/IgG, biopsies, lactose breath test

84
Q

silent celiac disease is characterized by

A

intestinal damage and positive serology but no symptoms

85
Q

pathophysiology of celiac disease

A

gluten triggers an inflammatory response leading to damaged microvilli and malabsorption

86
Q

serologic testing for celiac disease

A

tTG-IgA + total IgA

87
Q

initial testing for celiac disease

A

serology

88
Q

when to use tTG-IgG + total IgG for celiac disease

A

if under 4 y/o

89
Q

if celiac disease serology is positive

A

refer to GI

90
Q

gold standard for celiac disease diagnosis

A

villous atrophy with intraepithelial lymphocytes on biopsy

91
Q

celiac disease treatment

A

gluten-free diet, refer to dietician, regular follow up with labs q 4-12 months

92
Q

lactose intolerance pathophys

A

no lactase to break down lactose into glucose and galactose, so it remains in the gut and gets fermented by bacteria, causing ssx

93
Q

usual age of onset for primary lactose intolerance

A

around 5

94
Q

causes of secondary lactose intolerance

A

celiac disease, crohn’s disease, prematurity

95
Q

lactose intolerance diagnosis

A

hydrogen breath test

96
Q

cow’s milk protein allergy presentation

A

healthy infant with slow onset of blood-streaked stools

97
Q

who does cow’s milk protein allergy affect

A

more often males with history of atopy, resolves by 1 y/o

98
Q

cow’s milk protein allergy treatment

A

supervised maternal elimination diet, hydrolyzed/hypoallergenic formula

99
Q

testing to consider for cow’s milk protein allergy

A

abdominal x-ray, hemoglobin/hematocrit

100
Q

most common outgrown IgE-mediated food allergies

A

milk, egg, soy, wheat

101
Q

most common persistent IgE-mediated food allergies

A

peanuts, tree nuts

102
Q

diagnosis of food allergies

A

clinical history, skin prick testing, IgE serum testing

103
Q

cow’s milk protein allergy in older children

A

can be more severe, may cause eosinophilic gastroenteritis with protein-losing enteropathy, IDA, etc

104
Q

diagnostic criteria for IBS

A

abdominal pain 1 day/week x 2 months with 2 or more criteria: related to defecation, change in stool frequency, change in stool form

105
Q

medications for IBS

A

anti-diarrheals, laxatives, antispasmodics, antidepressants

106
Q

IBS non-medication treatment

A

stress relief, peppermint, low-FODMAP diet

107
Q

which SSRI is commonly used for functional GI disorders

A

citalopram

108
Q

which tricyclic is commonly used for functional GI disorders

A

amitriptyline

109
Q

what must be done prior to initiation of amitriptyline

A

get an EKG

110
Q

what beta blocker is commonly used for functional GI disorders

A

propranolol

111
Q

testing when evaluating for functional GI disorders

A

CBC w/ diff, UA, celiac panel, stool studies, thyroid, abdominal US, endoscopy

112
Q

what stool study tests for inflammation

A

calprotectin

113
Q

abdominal migraine presentation

A

episodic, incapacitating mid-abdominal pain lasting at least 1 hour with weeks-months in between episodes, with other migraine ssx (pallor, photophobia, N/V, HA)

114
Q

functional abdominal pain presentation

A

episodic or constant abdominal pain not explained by another disorder, associated with stress

Peds III (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions