EXAM 1 - 10 Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

health

A

the state of an organism when it functions optimally without evidence of disease or abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

disease

A

deviation from normal function of any body part, organ, or system that is manifested by a characteristic set of symptoms and signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pathogen

A

any disease-producing agent or microorganism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

etiology

A

cause of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

wildlife diseases

A

are multifactorial and can involve complex interactions between the pathogen, host, and environment

vary within and between populations

spectrum of disease

increasing with changing and loss of biodiversity
- increasing interaction
- improved diagnostics and surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

one health

A

concept recognizing that the health of humans is connected to the health of wildlife, domestic animals, and the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

reason to study wildlife diseases

A

wildlife impact and management
- determine the cause of and significance of disease and identify methods to reduce disease and the impacts on wildlife
- endangered species may suffer disastrous losses from disease

disease of human or agricultural significance
- determine role of wildlife as a reservoir or source of disease for domestic animals or humans

environmental health or habitat loss
- can be indicators of contaminated habitats - can be associated with habitat loss

disease of high visibility and/or concern
- public communication

assess the role of humans on wildlife health

to learn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how do we investigate wildlife diseases

A

study the impacts of disease on individuals and/or populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

challenges with wildlife disease investigations

A

detection of sick and dead animals

difficulty obtaining samples for surveillance

difficulty quantifying disease

lack of knowledge

funding

lack of validated test

problems related to science and technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

managing wildlife diseases

A

do we have to?

very challenging and often unsuccessful
- public attitude
- delivery of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

prevention

A

prevent disease from occurring or becoming establised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

control

A

reduce or maintain the prevalence and impact of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

eradication

A

eliminate the pathogen or disease

difficult or cannot be done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pathology

A

the study of disease, especially the structural and functional changes produced by them

extremely useful in wildlife diseases
- clinical signs often absent, subtle, nonspecific
- history may not be available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

pathogenesis

A

mechanism of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

morphologic changes

A

structural changes in cells or tissues characteristic of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

clinical significance

A

how morphologic changes result in clinical signs and disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

clinical pathology

A

more focused on antemortem samples/data

results from lab tests - fluids

cytology

less commonly used for wildlife disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

cytology

A

clinical pathology

microscopic examination/evaluation of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

anatomic pathology

A

necropsy

histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

necropsy

A

postmortem examination of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

histology

A

microscopic examination of structure, function, and morphology of tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

lesions

A

abnormal change in structure of organ, tissue, or cell due to disease

not all abnormal appearing tissues are lesions

distribution provides insight into pathogenesis and potential etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

focal

A

single lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

multifocal

A

numerous lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

locally extensive

A

one lesion expanding outward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

effusions

A

escape of fluid into a space or cavity from tissue or organ

beginning - named for composition
end - named for location

aspirate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

hemorrhage

A

escape of blood from damaged or dysfunctional blood vessels

due to damage to blood vessels, blood clotting disorders

can be primary or secondary

may bee seen with edema or musculoskeletal lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

necrosis

A

death of cells or tissue

can look different depending on tissue, cause, and duration of lesion

often pale, soft, friable, and demarcated margins

can look read if vasculature involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

inflammation

A

protective response to a diversity of cell injuries

-itis

can be associated with infection

acute or chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

acute inflammation

A

consists of vascular and cellular components
- increase blood flow
- increase blood vessel permeability
- migration of permeability
- leukocyte recruitment

accumulation of fluid and inflammatory cells
- remove cause of injury
- healing and repair

signs
- rubor - red
- tumor - swelling
- calor - hoot
- dolor - pain
- laesa - lose of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

chronic inflammation

A

lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells infiltrate injured area

tissue destroyed by inflammatory cells

repair with fibrosis and angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

peracute

A

faster than acute

lightning, trauma, infection

may not have lesions - died too quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

neoplasia

A

unregulated cell proliferation

some are spontaneous

uncommon in wildlife - don’t live long

most often associated with infectious agents

other etiologic factors
- chemicals
- diet
- irradiation
- hormones
- genetic inheritance
- pharmacologic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

tumor

A

any tissue mass

benign or malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

benign

A

ends in - oma

slower growth rate

not locally invasive

not likely to metastasize

well differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

malignant

A
  • carcinoma - if ectodermal or endodermal
  • sarcoma - if affecting connective or soft tissue

fast growth rate

locally invasive

more likely to metastasize

poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

pathology challenges for wildlife cases

A

not all abnormal tissues are lesions

normal anatomy
- extremely diverse
- seasonal changes

post-mortem change

artifact

parasites

distinguishing between antemortem vs postmortem changes

autolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

artifact

A

changes in tissue that occur right at the time of death or soon after

euthanasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

autolysis

A

disintegration of cells or tissues by endogenous enzymes

postmortem

not necrosis - cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

epidemiology

A

the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related events in a population

utilization of this information for diagnosis, prevention, control of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

distribution

A

who, what, when, where, why

defining disease/health issue

understanding circumstances that result in disease event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

determinants

A

risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

types of epidemiology

A

descriptive
analytical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

descriptive epidemiology

A

examine and characterize the distribution of disease in a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

analytical epidemiology

A

investigating a hypothesis about the cause of disease by studying how exposures relate to disease

modeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

interface

A

a point where two systems can meet and interact

share diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

enzootic disease

A

occurs in a population at a regular, predictable, or expected rate

endemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

epizootic disease

A

appears at a time or place where it does not normally occur or with a frequency substantially greater than expected

epidemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

prevalence

A

frequency of occurrence of disease within a group at a specific point in time

period prevalence - with a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

incidence rate

A

number of new cases within a group during a specific period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

mortality rate

A

frequency of occurrence of death in a defined population during a specific time interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

case fatality rate

A

proportion of persons with a disease that die

measure of severity

only in infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

pathogenesis

A

development of a disease and the chain of events leading to that disease

mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

risk assessment

A

process to identify hazards/threats and analyze what could happen if they occur

probability of disease/infection occurring

consequences of disease/infection

can we manage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

clinical sign

A

objective evidence of disease observed by a medical professional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

syndrome

A

combination of clinical signs resulting from a single cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

congenital

A

disease that is present at or before birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

acquired

A

disease that occurred or was acquired after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

differential diagnosis procedure

A

systematic diagnostic method t identify the etiology of disease where multiple possibilities exist based on clinical signs or symptoms

compile information
create a list of possible etiologies - rule outs
formulate a diagnostic plan - priority testing
sue diagnostic results to remove or add to list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

diagnostic success is influenced by

A

well defined objectives

detailed history

appropriate samples

diagnostic assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

diagnosotic assays

A

direct and indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

direct assay

A

identification of etiology itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

indirect assay

A

identification of measurable response too the etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

ideal diagnostic assay

A

well-characterized
affordable
user friendly
rapid
sensitive and specific
minimal equipment
widely available
works on all species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

test sensitivity

A

number of positive samples correctly classified as positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

test specificity

A

number of negative samples correctly classified as negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

bloodwork and urinalysis

A

not used frequently in wildlife

requires live or recently dead animals

need normal values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

fecal analysis

A

presence of parasite does not always indicate disease

70
Q

cytology

A

microscopic examination/evaluation of cells

inexpensive and quick

non-invasive

can diagnose limited things

71
Q

histopathology

A

microscopic examination of structure, function, and morphology of tissues

can identify lesions and pathogens

more invasive an require reagents/equipment for processing

staining - special stains

72
Q

diagnostic imaging

A

radiology +/- ultrasound
radiology more common in wildlife

73
Q

culture/isolation

A

gold standard

viruses, bacterial, fungi, protozoa

procedures vary greatly

bacteria/fungi - artificial media

viruses - cells

any body fluid, tissues, swabs

tissue storage and handling is critical

74
Q

molecular diagnostics

A

pcr - detects dna

sensitive

not live pathogen

75
Q

serology

A

detect antibodies - vaccination impacts, dead population

evidence of past exposure

easy to perform

only detects prior exposure - time to develop immune response

challenging to get serum from dead animals

76
Q

rapid tests

A

for antigen or antibody detection

direct or indirect

little skill

speed

portable

specific

poor sensitivity

may not be validated in wildlife

77
Q

immunodiagnostics

A

uses and antigen-antibody reaction as primary means of directions

good for viruses

fluorescent antibody test - rabies

immunohistochemistry - formal fixed paraffin embedded tissues

78
Q

toxicology

A

less species specific

detect a specific compound in body

idea of what you’re looking for

expensive

large amount of sample

79
Q

wildlife management

A

practical ecology of all vertebrates and their plant and animal associations

body of decisions/actions for utilization and welfare of wildlife population and their habitats, balancing their needs with those of people

80
Q

north american model

A

wildlife as a public trust resource

elimination of market hunting

allocation by law

killing for only legitimate purposes

wildlife as an international resource

science based policy

democracy of hunting

81
Q

direct transmission

A

direct and immediate transmission

physical contact

fecal oral

ingestion

82
Q

indirect transmission

A

transfer by intermediate item or oransim

fomites

environment

intermediate host

vector

83
Q

host range

A

all the organisms that a pathogen is capable of infecting

84
Q

infectivity

A

the ability of microorganism to infect or transmit

85
Q

virulence

A

the capacity of any infective organism to cause disease

86
Q

chronic sequelae

A

aftermath of infection

long covid

87
Q

endoparasite

A

live inside the hosts body

88
Q

ectoparasite

A

lives outside the hosts body

89
Q

definitive host

A

host in which parasite develops to an adult or sexually mature stage

90
Q

intermediate host

A

host which contains the immature (non reproducing) stage of parasite but is required to complete life cycle

91
Q

paratenic (transport host)

A

host in which there is no development and is not required to complete the life cycle

92
Q

aberrant host

A

host in which the parasite cannot complete its development

dead end

spillover

93
Q

vector

A

organism that transmits a parasite or pathogen from one host to another

94
Q

mechanical vector

A

transport no parasite development

95
Q

biologic vector

A

necessary for parasite reproduction or development

96
Q

direct life cycle

A

parasite transmitted from definitive host to definitive host

97
Q

indirect life cycle

A

requires one or more intermediate hosts

98
Q

pre-patent period

A

when parasite infects host until shedding is detected

99
Q

incubation period

A

parasite infects host until clinical signs are detectable

100
Q

protozoa

A

single celled

microscopic

high reproductive potential

very diverse

101
Q

arthropods

A

chitin exoskeleton, segmented body, jointed appendages

multiple life stages

primarily external

sexual reproduction

102
Q

arachnids

A

2 body segments, 4 paired legs, no wings

mitees, spiders, ticks

103
Q

insects

A

3 body segments, 3 paired legs, wings

lice, mosquitos

104
Q

flatworms

A

platyhelminths

digestive tract incomplete or absent

trematodes - flukes
complex life cycles - least 2 hosts

cestodes - tapeworms
indirect life cycle
adults in intestinal tract of host

105
Q

roundworms

A

unsegmented

cylindrical

complex digestive system

separate sexes

direct or indirect life cycles

106
Q

gram stain

A

positive - blue

negative - red

107
Q

bacteria

A

primary pathogens or opportunistic

variety of mechanisms to produce disease
- toxins
- highly invasive
- interference with host metabolism
- stimulation of host response

108
Q

common diagnostics for bacteria

A

culture

microscopy

diagnostic immunology

pcr

109
Q

viruses

A

microscopic

obligate intracellular micrope

dependent on host

envelope - easier to inactivate

classified by
- structure/morphology
- serology
- nucleic acid

host range

control host machinery

variable gross and histologic lesions

110
Q

viral virulence

A

ability of virus to cause disease in an infected host

111
Q

virus diagnosis

A

inclusion bodies

virus isolation

pcr

immunofluorescence

serology

112
Q

balancing mechanisms of natural systems

A

limit impact of disease

altered by human activities

113
Q

negative outcomes of artificial wildlife activities

A

increase disease or spread of disease

introduction to new host or area

novel diseases

114
Q

artificial wildlife activities

A

supplemental feeding and baiting

wildlife rehab

translocation of native wildlife

captive propagation and release

high fence operations

vaccination/treatment

pets and feral animals

115
Q

bird feeder diseases

A

songbirds

winter months
- stress
- congregate birds
- increased direct/indirect contact

implication for human and domestic animal health

116
Q

salmonellosis

A

platform feeders

most commoon

s.typhimurium bacteria

epizootics

high mortality

sping and winter

fecal oral

chronic carriers

feeder sanitation

important pathogen of poultry

identifying strain

117
Q

salmonellosis clinical signs

A

depressed

ruffled feathers

labored breathing

swollen eyes

lesions
- swollen liver or splean
- yellow nodules or plaques

118
Q

mycoplasmosis

A

tube feeder

bacteria m.gallisepticum

disease of poultry
- chicken - chronic respiratory disease
- turkey - infectious sinusitis

distinct strain in finches

winter months

chronic carrier

bird feeder sanitation

transmission
- bird to bird
- inhalation
- contaminated surfaces or food

how to create a wildlife disease - antibiotics created chronic carriers

119
Q

mycoplasmosis clinical signs

A

conjuctivitis

swollen eyes, discharge

weight loss

120
Q

bird feeder diseases

A

salmonellosis

mycoplasmosis

asperrgillosis

trichomoniasis - baths

avian pox

121
Q

bird feeder diseases general recommendations

A

clean feeders

monitor for disease

high quality food

no sharp edges

give space

122
Q

feeding

A

intentional placement of food in wildlife habitat, seasonally or year round, for use by wildlfie

123
Q

baiting

A

food or food product intentionally placed for the purpose of attracting fame species to enhance the opportunity to harvest

124
Q

why do people feed and bait

A

improve condition of individual animals

enhance survival

reduce agricultural damage

enhance recreational opportunities

125
Q

direct causes of disease/harm - feeding and baiting

A

rumen acidosis

clostridial diseases

aflatoxicosis

126
Q

indirect causes of disease/harm - feeding and baiting

A

aggressive behavior

degradation of habitat

density dependent diseases
- cwd
- tb
- brucellosis

127
Q

rumen acidosis

A

grain overload

abrupt change from high fiber to low fiber diet

increased lactic acid production

severity varies

change in microbial population

recumbent, quiet, staggering, diarrhea

can be fatal within 1-3 days

128
Q

clostridium enterotoxemia

A

abrupt change from high fiber to low fiber diet

provides environment for c.perfringes to replicate and produce toxin

hemorrages on gi tract, muscle, heart, or bloody intestines

grain/corn in rumen

culture

PCR for toxin

129
Q

bovine tb

A

mycobacterium bovis

infect most mammals

historically cattle disease

primary transmitted through respiratory secretions

strong correlation between tb in deer and artificial feeding

130
Q

wild turkeys

A

captive propagation and release

unsuccessful

negative impact on wild turkeys

131
Q

translocation

A

rabies

132
Q

high fenced enclosures and captive cervids

A

artificial breeding for meat and larger antlers

potential risks:
- lack of population control
- translocation of animals
- mixing species
- artificial feeding
- use of vaccines

negative impacts:
- disease
- genetics
- public perception
- privatization of wildlife
- regulatory authority

133
Q

vaccination of wildlife

A

use of domestic animal treatment protocols in wildlife without safety or efficacy data can be dangerous

black footed ferret

134
Q

wild animal

A

animal that has a phenotype unaffected by human selection and lives independent of direct human control

135
Q

captive wild animal

A

animal that has a phenotype not significantly affected by human selecting but that is captive or otherwise lives under human control

136
Q

feral animal

A

anmial of a domesticated species that now lives without direct human control

137
Q

exotic species

A

a species, including its seeds, eggs, or other biological material capable of propagating that species, that is not native to a habitat

138
Q

native species

A

species that, other than as a result of an
introduction, historically occurs in a particular habitat

139
Q

invasive species

A

an exotic species whose introduction into an
ecosystem in which the species is not native is likely to cause
environmental, economic, or public health harm.

– Ecosystem boundary, not political
– Do not need to be from another country or region
– Not all exotic species are invasive; need to be adapted to do well

Native species/communities evolve in an ecosystem with
checks and balances that limit growth of any one species

Invasive species do not have the same checks and balances
and populations can increase dramatically

Most invasive species spread through human activities.

140
Q

traits that allow invasive species to outcompete native species

A

– Rapid growth
– High reproductive potential
– High dispersal
– Human associations
– May not have natural predators
– Tolerant of a wide-range of environmental conditions
– Adaptable

141
Q

direct impacts of inasive species

A

– Predate upon native species
– Competition
– Negative effect on
reproduction
– Source of disease

142
Q

indirect impacts of invasive species

A
  • Change food web
    – Decrease biodiversity
    – Alter ecosystem
143
Q

invasive species have negative impacts on

A

– Resources/Environment
– Wildlife
– Domestic animals
– Economy
– Human health

144
Q

avian pox

A

introduced by invasive species

poxvirus - dna - vary in host range and virulence

nodular skin lesions on face and legs

transmitted though mosquitoes and inhalation/ingestion

145
Q

avian malaria

A

introduced invasive species

protozoan parasites (plasmodium sp)
numerous species
p. relictum in Hawaii

non specific clinical signs
- anemia, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
- infected birds weak and inactive

transmitted by mosquitoes

146
Q

cats

A

indoor, outdoor, stray, feral, free roaming

most popular pet in us

most abundant carnivore in ud

invasive

indoor live longer

147
Q

why are cats invasive

A

– Non-native; widespread
– High reproductive potential
– Predatory behavior
– Competition
– Quantifying wildlife mortality due to cats is impossible to
accurately quantify, but all measures indicate it is very high
– Extinctions
– Indirect impacts
– Disease - rabies, toxoplasmosis, hookworm, toxocariasis, bartonellosis, typhoid, plague, tularemia

148
Q

parthenogenetically

A

females can produce eggs without males

produce only females

149
Q

asian longhorn tick - theileria orientalis ikeda

A

protozoan parasite

cs similar to anaplasmosis - anemia, fever, lethargy

virgina

no approved treatment in us

150
Q

feral hogs

A

eurasian wild boar
domestic escapes
wild born pig or hybrid

predator on sheep and goats
consume vegetation
predatory on wild turkey nests, qual nests, sea turtle nests
feeding behavior can have direct impacts on local sensitive species population

151
Q

feral pigs - swine brucellosis

A

Bacterial infectious disease of animals and humans
 Abortions and reproductive organs infections in hogs
 Humans – severe flue like symptoms and vary to crippling
arthritis or meningitis.
 Wildlife- can be passed on and remain as a secondary host,
does not cause mortality but may pass to humans.
 NO cure, treated with high doses of antibiotics for extended
periods to hopefully clear infection
 Wide geographic distribution of feral swine

152
Q

feral pigs - pseudorabies - mad itch

A

Viral disease of central nervous system in swine
 Transmission by venereal route in swine, contact route in domestic animals (fatal in
secondary hosts).
 Control/eradication program in US – PRV free in commercial swine operations
 Reservoir in US – feral swine
 Occasional outbreaks in swine with outdoor access/access to feral swine
 Transmitted – direct contact or indirect on fomites
 Also can infect dogs, cats, cattle, goats, sheep. Has caused mortality in wildlife (black
bear, coyote, mink, raccoon, Florida panther).

153
Q

feral hogs - e coli 0157

A

2006 Spinach Outbreak – 26 states and Canada reporting 205
cases of illness and 3 deaths ($$$$)
 5 – 10% exposures develop life-threatening illness
 Can affect crops, pastures, and water supply
 High potential for contamination of meat while processing

154
Q

feral pigs - leptospira interrogates

A

Bacteria, infectious to most mammals
 Multiple serovars
 Multiple transmission routes, often through water
 Classified as a re-emerging pathogens
 Human cases
 domestic animal cases

155
Q

feral hogs - influenza

A

Influenza- Swine have receptors in common with both birds and mammals
 Provide opportunity for mixed infections and genetic reassortment between
avian, human, and swine influenza
 Feral swine have been documented carrying 4 sub-types of swine influenza
 Both human (H3N2) and avian (H1N1) sub-types have been documented in
swine
 Feral swine habitat brings them in contact with humans and waterfowl

156
Q

feral hogs - foreign animal disease

A

FAD- disease not currently found in the United States
* Nationally reportable disease, highly contagious, economic impacts
* FAD status impacts important national export of products
* Introduction of FAD could cost US $200-500 billion
 Classical Swine Fever (CSF)
 Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD)
 African Swine Fever (ASF)

157
Q

feral hogs - classical swine fever

A
  • Viral Disease swine disease that is highly contagious
  • It can be transmitted via blood,
    saliva, nasal discharge, urine, feces or tissues and is easily carried in fomites.
  • Transmission can occur though direct contact or the consumption of infected tissue
  • Infection in 214 days, causing high fever, diarrhea, hemorrhages, abortions, and death

-swine near landfills, ports, domestic swine facilities are all high risk

158
Q

feral hogs - african swine fever

A

African Swine Fever Virus (ASFV)
 No vaccine/no treatment
 High morbidity and high mortality – naïve populations
 Never diagnosed in US
 Domestic and wild pigs

159
Q

feral hogs - asf signs and symptoms

A

 Develop 3-15 days after infection
 Mimic signs seen with several other swine diseases
(Salmonella, PRRS, Erysipelas, CSF)
 Include: high fever; decreased appetite; weakness;
red, blotchy skin or skin lesions; diarrhea,
vomiting, coughing and difficulty breathing

160
Q

feral hogs - asf transmission

A

Direct contact with infected pigs (oronasal)
 Virus shed in all tissues and body fluids
 Indirect contact with fomites
 Tick vectors (Ornithodoros soft ticks)
 Feeding of uncooked/improperly cooked pork scraps

161
Q

lead toxicosis

A

also called plumbism

all birds susceptible - has effected most waterfowl species

avian scavengers and raptors

result of absorption of lead into the blood

most cases due to ingestion - acidic environment
joints or inflamed tissue

sources vary within avian group
waterfowl - lead shot
loons - fishing lures
albatross - lead paint from buildings

162
Q

lead toxicosis - proventriculus and gizzard

A

breaks down lead for absorption

releases into blood

low ph

grinding action of gizzard

smaller fragments can absorb faster and harder to regurgitate

accumulates in body over time

163
Q

lead toxicosis - once absorbed

A

lead mimics calcium in various biochemical and cellular processes

disrupts normal function of multiple organ systems
- binds enzymes
- neurotoxin and neuphrotoxin
- disrupts rbc development
- depression of immune system
- musculoskeletal system - muscle contraction

164
Q

lead toxicosis - clinical signs

A

acute, chronic, sub lethal

non specific
- reluctant or unable to fly
- lag behind other birds
- unsteady gait
- changes in vocalization

chronic disease
- weak and lethargic
- doesn’t attempt to escape when captured
- emaciated
- neurological signs

165
Q

lead toxicosis - clinical signs

A

very poor nutritional condition

esophageal impactions - waterfowl

green stain around vent

gall bladder distension

green stained gizzard

finding shot in gizzard

myocardial degeneration/necrosis

166
Q

lead toxicosis - dependent on multiple factors

A

environment
- shallow water
- sediment

host
- diet - high carb decreases ph
- nutritional status
- age - younger
- species
- sex
- underlying disease

very low amounts can result in toxicity

167
Q

lead toxicosis - diagnosis

A

suggestive on lesions/signs and presence of lead in ventriculus - not always present

radiographs to identify metal opacity

lead testing for confirmation
- liver and kidney
- whole blood (antemortem)
- no concentration in a tissue can be diagnostic by itself

168
Q

lead toxicosis - treatment

A

possible but challenging
- expensive and time consuming
- prognosis depends on level of toxicity but often poor
- euthanasia or non-releasable status is common outcome

gastric lavage or surgery to remove current sources

chelation therapy
- frequently
- form complexes with lead and eliminate in urine

supportive care

rehab centers are expensive

169
Q

lead toxicosis in eagles

A

primarily from ammunition in animal carcasses or parts
- gut piles
- animals shot and not retrieved
- animals shot and left in field - groundhogs

lead fragmentation
- depends on ammunition, if it hits bone
- rinsing carcass doesn’t remove lead

170
Q

lead toxicosis - prevention

A

non lead ammunition - copper doesnt fragment

lead
- proper recovery or disposal of animal carcass or parts
- bury or cover carcass parts

education and productive discussions

171
Q

lead toxicosis - one health

A

personal harvest

donated venison - ethics

education