Exam 1 (1,2,3,4,18) Quizes Flashcards

1
Q

Independent auditing can best be described as

A

A discipline that provides assurance regarding the results of accounting and other functional operations and data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Information asymmetry

A

Refers to an imbalance of information between stockholders and the management of the company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following best describes the primary reason an independent auditor reports on financial statements?

A

To add credibility, where appropriate, since management may not be perceived as objective with respect to its own financial statements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Financial statement users’ demand for assurance is similar to that of a potential home buyer who hires a home inspector in that

A

There are often information asymmetry and conflicts of interest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Assurance services differ from auditing services in that

A

Assurance services may include a report about the relevance and timeliness, not just the reliability, of the information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between attestation services and audit services?

A

Auditing is a subset of attestation that involves the issuance of an opinion regarding the fairness of financial statements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The fact that errors and/or omissions in certain relatively insignificant account balances would not affect an auditor’s decision when reporting on the financial statements as a whole relates most closely to which major audit concept?

A

Materiality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Audit evidence can be gathered from

A

many sources and is not limited to the underlying accounting data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Audit risk

A

Is the risk that a “clean” opinion will be issued when, in reality, the financial statements are materially misstated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The examination of all of an entity’s transactions would make an audit very costly. Thus, auditors rely heavily on sampling as a way to obtain evidence. Which of the following would result in a smaller sample?

A

A decrease in the desired level of assurance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following audit phases would generally be conducted before all of the others listed below?

A

Gaining an understanding of the auditee’s industry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An auditor’s evaluation of the reasonableness of a company’s loan loss reserve would normally be made during which phase of the audit?

A

Auditing business processes and related accounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Gaining an understanding of the auditee and its environment includes all of the following areas except

A

The audit fee and timeline for completion of the work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The most favorable type of audit opinion for an entity to receive is

A

Unqualified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The study and practice of auditing is unlike other areas in accounting because it

A

Requires common sense and some creativity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board [PCAOB] derives its authority to set and enforce auditing standards for public company audits from

A

An Act of Congress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is generally not considered one of the five business processes or cycles?

A

Information technology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility for an associate/staff level auditor?

A

Assisting in the development of the audit plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Prior to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, the _________was responsible for creating all new auditing standards in the United States. Today, for publicly held companies, that responsibility rests with the _____________.

A

AICPA Auditing Standards Board [ASB]; Public Company Accounting Oversight Board [PCAOB].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

To exercise due professional care, an auditor should

A

Critically review the work performed and judgment exercised by those assisting in the audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the essential meaning of the generally accepted auditing standard that requires the auditor to be independent?

A

The auditor must be without bias with respect to the auditee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The principles underlying an audit conducted in accordance with GAAS as developed by the ASB and the IAASB include all of the following except

A

The auditor should plan and conduct the audit to obtain assurance that the financial statements are free of any misstatement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The responsibility for implementing sound accounting practices and principles, maintaining an adequate internal control structure, and making fair representations in the financial statements rests primarily with the

A

Senior management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is considered an example of a compliance audit?

A

The examination of a company’s adherence to government-mandated safety provisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following best describes the relationship between management and the board of directors?

A

Management reports to the board of directors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following best describes the roles of the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants [AICPA] and the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board [PCAOB] in establishing auditing standards?

A

Auditing standards issued by AICPA and PCAOB are considered minimum standards of performance for auditors. AICPA for non-public and PCAOB for public.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

“Mid-tier” firms

A

Are national in their practices and have international affiliates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following organizations affect the environment that CPAs work in?

A

AICPA, SEC, and PCAOB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following primarily shapes the context in which auditing takes place? The American Institute of Certified Public Accountants [AICPA].

A

Legislation passed by Congress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

An “integrated audit” includes

A

A financial statement audit and an audit of internal control over financial reporting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following factors most likely would cause a CPA to decide not to accept a new audit engagement?

A

Management’s disregard of its responsibility to maintain an adequate internal control environment.

32
Q

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the predecessor-successor communications?

A

The successor auditor should obtain permission from the entity before contacting the predecessor auditor.

33
Q

Which of the following statements best represents the reason why auditors prepare engagement letters to be signed by their auditees?

A

They communicate and clarify the expectations and responsibilities of both the auditee and the auditor.

34
Q

Which of the following factors would be of least importance to an auditor in determining how much reliance can be placed on the work of internal auditors?

A

The nature of the audit software documentation used by the internal auditors.

35
Q

The audit committee of a company which is responsible for the appointment of the independent audit firm should consist of

A

Members of the board of directors who are not officers or employees.

36
Q

Which of the following would most likely indicate the existence of related parties?

A

Borrowing money at an interest rate substantially below the prevailing market rate of interest.

37
Q

Tests of controls include all of the following except:

A

Analytical procedures.

38
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a typical supervisory activity for an audit?

A

Perform detailed testing of the accounts payable account.

39
Q

The concept of materiality as it applies to a financial statement audit

A

Is determined, in part, based on how financial statement users may be influenced in making decisions.

40
Q

According to the text, the first step in applying materiality to an audit is

A

To determine a materiality level for the overall financial statements.

41
Q

For which laws and regulations does the auditor have the same responsibility as that for errors and fraud?

A

Laws and regulations that have a direct and material effect on the financial statements.

42
Q

When establishing an understanding with the entity regarding the terms of the engagement, all of the following should be discussed, except:

A

The agreed upon limits on auditor liability for an improper audit.

43
Q

The preliminary engagement activities include all of the following except:

A

Ensure that there is an independent audit committee.

44
Q

A dual-purpose test is

A

A procedure that serves as both a test of control and a substantive test of transactions.

45
Q

When likely misstatements are greater than overall materiality, the auditor should

A

Request that the auditee adjust the financial statements or modify the opinion.

46
Q

The existence of audit risk is recognized by the statement in the auditor’s standard report that the:

A

Auditor obtains reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatements.

47
Q

Which of the following factors would an auditor least likely consider when assessing the inherent risk associated with sales transactions?

A

The nature of the credit authorization process.

48
Q

The risk that an auditor’s procedures will lead to a conclusion that a material misstatement in an account balance does not exist when, in fact, a misstatement does exist, is known as:

A

Detection risk.

49
Q

Which of the following would be classified as an error?

A

Misinterpretation by management of facts that existed when the financial statements were prepared.

50
Q

Which of the following factors is least likely to represent an opportunity to commit fraud?

A

Operating losses make a hostile takeover imminent.

51
Q

The auditor obtains an understanding of the entity and its environment by performing all of the following assessment procedures except:

A

Compute the level of detection risk.

52
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE as it relates to the auditor’s responsibility to document the risk assessment?

A

The level of risk must be set quantitatively (i.e., inherent risk is 60%).

53
Q

The disclosure of fraud to parties other than the entity’s senior management and its audit committee ordinarily would be precluded by the auditor’s ethical or legal obligations of confidentiality. However, the auditor has a duty to disclose the information to parties outside the entity in all of the following circumstances except:

A

A Wall Street analyst inquiry regarding future profit projections.

54
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three conditions that are generally present when fraud occurs?

A

Collusion.

55
Q

Audit risk is typically considered and assessed:

A

At the assertion, account balance and FS level as a whole.

56
Q

If risk of material misstatement is higher than originally anticipated, the auditor may respond by:

A

Increasing supervision.

57
Q

If the auditor determines that a material misstatement may be due to fraud, the auditor should do all of the following except:

A

Alert the authorities.

58
Q

Which of the following represents a factual misstatement?

A

A misstatement found by the auditor that is due to incorrect pricing on a sales invoice.

59
Q

If acceptable audit risk is set at low and the assessed risk of material misstatement is high, then detection risk must be:

A

Low.

60
Q

One of your clients recently upgraded its accounting system from a medium-scale general ledger package to a complex state-of-the-art enterprise resource planning system. This installation took place over the last nine months of the entity’s fiscal year and is nearly 100% complete by the balance sheet date. Which of the following best describes the main affect of this event on the audit risk model for the current year?

A

It will likely increase the risk of material misstatement.

61
Q

The existence of audit risk is best recognized by the statement in the standard auditor’s report that the

A

Auditor obtains reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement.

62
Q

The basic elements of a standard unqualified/unmodified report include all of the following except:

A

A statement that although estimates are believed to be reasonable, there are normally differences between actual and estimated results.

63
Q

If the principal auditor decides to make reference to other auditors used in the engagement, the audit report must make reference to

A

The portion or parts of the financial statements examined by the other auditors.

64
Q

In which of the following situations is an auditor permitted to issue an unqualified/unmodified report (assume all information is material)?

A

The entity failed to make a large debt payment during the subsequent event period.

65
Q

An auditor notifies management that there is a material inconsistency between information in the audited financial statements and other information provided in the annual report. If management refuses to correct the material inconsistency, the auditor is not permitted to

A

Issue a qualified opinion.

66
Q

Which of the following is true with respect to a scope limitation?

A

The auditor will generally issue a qualified report or disclaim an opinion.

67
Q

An auditor decides to issue a qualified opinion on an entity’s financial statements because a major inadequacy in the entity’s electronic accounting records prevents the auditor from applying necessary procedures. The opinion paragraph of the auditor’s report should state that the qualification pertains to

A

The possible effects of the inadequacy in the entity’s records on the financial statements.

68
Q

An auditor has previously expressed a qualified opinion on the financial statements of a prior period because of a departure from generally accepted accounting principles. The prior-period financial statements are restated in the current period to conform to generally accepted accounting principles. The auditor’s updated report on the prior-period financial statements for this public company should

A

Express an unqualified opinion concerning the restated financial statements.

69
Q

In which of the following situations would an auditor ordinarily choose between expressing a qualified opinion or an adverse opinion?

A

There has been a change in accounting principles that has a material effect on the comparability of the entity’s financial statements.

70
Q

Nationwide Life Insurance Co. prepares its financial statements using an accounting basis required according to the rules of its state insurance commission. Fagan, Nationwide’s independent auditor, discovers that the financial statements are not titled properly. Nationwide refuses to correct the error. Fagan should

A

Qualify the opinion and disclose his reservations in an explanatory/emphasis-of-matter paragraph.

71
Q

Which of the following is a change that does not affect consistency of the financial statements?

A

Change in accounting estimate.

72
Q

Which of the following is a change that affects the consistency of the financial statements?

A

Change in reporting entity.

73
Q

What type of report is issued when the financial statements are not presented fairly?

A

Adverse.

74
Q

Which of the following is not a situation that would require explanatory language in an unqualified/unmodified report?

A

The auditor is unable to apply necessary procedures concerning the entity’s share of an investee’s earnings recognized on the equity method.

75
Q

Which of the following is not a major element of an unqualified/unmodified report?

A

Timeline paragraph.