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P&T Intro to Pharmaceutical Care > Exam #01 > Flashcards

Exam #01 Flashcards

1
Q

Put the following tasks in the proper order for providing patient-centered pharmacy care:

a. Develop a patient specific evidence-based pharmacy care plan and discuss with other health professionals if necessary.
b. collect information to identify an actual or potential medication therapy problem
c. set therapeutic goals
d. document plan in writing
e. collect additional data to monitor therapy in order to determine outcomes of care plan

A

b, c, a, d, e

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2
Q

As a pharmacist what is the first data that you want to review for a patient?

A

Medication list

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3
Q

This type of data is directly observed or measured?

A

objective data

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4
Q

This type of data represents information provided by the patient and or caregiver and cannot be directly observed or measured?

A

subjective data

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5
Q

What can excessive doses of Digoxin cause?

A

bradycardia

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6
Q

What component of Augmentin is a common allergy for many patients?

A

amoxicillin

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7
Q

What common side effect is seen with all ACE inhibitors?

A

dry cough

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8
Q

Is doxycycline an appropriate treatment to treat Lyme disease in a pregnant woman?

A

No, doxycycline is to teratogenic

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9
Q

What common side effect is seen in cold medication that contains phenylephrine?

A

increases BP

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10
Q

State the normal vital signs

A

HR 60-100 beats/min
Respiratory rate 12-18 respirations/min
BP 120/80 (systolic/diastolic)
Temperature 96.4-99.1F (35.8-37.3C)

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11
Q

State the BMI ranges for a normal, overweight, and obese patient

A

BMI

Normal 18-25
Overweight 25-29.9
Obese >=30

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12
Q

If you were dosing a medication based on ideal body weight, what weight would you use for a woman that weighs 105 lbs whose IBW is 110 lbs?

A

Actual body weight of 105 lbs

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13
Q

State the reference ranges for everything included in the BMP

A 
Na  135 - 145 mEq/L
K  3.5 - 5 mEq/L
Cl  95 - 105 mEq/L
CO2  22 - 28 mEq/L
BUN  8 - 20 mg/dL
Cr  0.6 - 1.2 mg/dL
Glucose  70 - 100 mg/dL
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14
Q

What are 3 common causes of hyponatremia?

A
  1. abnormal sodium loss (usually from inadequate replacement)
  2. syndrom of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
  3. hypervolemia (CHF) - edema in lower extremities
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15
Q

Name 2 common causes of hypernatremia?

A
  1. excessive sodium replacement

2. retention of sodium usually as a result of an endocrine problem i.e. hyperaldosteronism or Cushing’s Syndrome

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16
Q

Drugs that cause nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus would have what effect on a patient’s sodium levels?

A

patient would become hypernatremic

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17
Q

Alkalosis would result in what potassium imbalance? Acidosis would result in what potassium imbalance?

A

alkalosis - hypokalemia

acidosis - hyperkalemia

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18
Q

True or False - renal dysfunction or renal failure is a common cause of hyperkalemia?

A

True

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19
Q

Why would a patient that experience blunt force trauma to the body (crush injury) be hyperkalemic?

A

excessive cell destruction releases K+ from the ICF to the ECF

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20
Q

What K+ imbalance can ACE inhibitors commonly cause?

A

hyperkalemia - ACE inhibitors stop angiotensin I –> angiotensin 2 which prevents the signal from getting to the adrenal gland and releasing aldosterone. Aldosterone causes, among other things, secretion of K+ so if this function is blocked, this would result in hyperkalemia

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21
Q

What does the total CO2 concentration in a BMP primarily reflect?

A

HCO3 (bicarbonate)

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22
Q

If a patient presents with a high CO2 in their BMP, is the patient acidotic or alkolotic?

A

Alkolotic when CO2 high (really HCO3)

Acidotic when CO2 low (really HCO3)

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23
Q

A diabetic patient is admitted in ketoacidosis and has the following BMP laboratory results: low sodium, normal potassium, high glucose, and low carbon dioxide. Explain why Na+ and CO2 levels are low. Why is K+ at normal level?

A

Na is low because of osmotic diuresis (lots of glucose in the blood makes the body urinate causing sodium and potassium loss)

CO2 (really HCO3) is low because patient is acidotic (ketoacidosis)

K+ at NL because of acidosis

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24
Q

What is the major reservoir for Ca+ in the body?

A

bones

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25
Q

What percent of calcium in the ECF is bound to plasma proteins? Which plasma protein does Ca primarily bind to?

A

40% bound to protein

albumin

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26
Q

What percent of Ca+ is unbound (ionized and active free Ca)?

A

45-55%

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27
Q

What is the reference range for total calcium?

What is the reference range for albumin?

A

Calcium 8.5 - 10.5 mg/dL

Albumin 3.5 - 5

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28
Q

When would you use the corrected calcium equation?

A

If a patient has a low Ca level AND a low albumin level, use the corrected calcium equation. If the patient only has low albumin and normal calcium levels, no need to use corrected calcium level equation, just need to correct albumin level

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29
Q

Name (5) common causes of hypocalcemia (3 drugs, 2 other)

A
  1. malabsorption of calcium (typically from a Vit D deficiency arising from dietary, renal dysfunction, or liver dysfunction)
  2. hypoparathyroidism
  3. Loop diuretics
  4. Calcitonin (promotes bone formation)
  5. Oral phosphorous
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30
Q

How does vitamin D play a role in calcium absorption and where does the liver and kidney fit into this equation?

A

The active form of vitamin D, calcitriol, enhances calcium absorption in the intestine. The liver converts cholecalciferol (Vit D3) into calcidiol, a vitamin D intermediate. The kidneys convert part of calcidiol into the biologically active form of vitamin D, calcitriol

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31
Q

Name (2) common causes of hypercalcemia and (2) medications that can cause hypercalcemia?

A
  1. malignancy (bone cancer invading bone, breaking it down and releasing Ca)
  2. hyperparathyroidism (more PTH released, acts to increase Ca concentration in blood)
  3. Thiazide diuretics
  4. Vitamin D toxicity (supplements)
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32
Q

True or False - renal failure is a common cause of hyperphosphatemia? Why or why not?

A

True because the kidneys are responsible for excreting phosphate

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33
Q

Name (1) common OTC medication that can cause hypophosphatemia? (1) that can cause hyperphosphatemia?

A
  1. Phosphate binding antacids can cause hypophosphatemia

2. Phosphate containing enemas can cause hyperphosphatemia

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34
Q

What are (2) common causes of hypomagnesemia?

A
  1. Dietary

2. Toxemia of pregnancy

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35
Q

True or False - It is possible to correct hypokalemia or hypocalcemia even if Mg levels are off?

A

False - Mg must be corrected and in normal range before any corrections to K or Ca can be made (because Mg involved in absorption of both)

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36
Q

Name (4) causes of hyperuricemia?

A
  1. Decreased renal excretion (from renal dysfunction or thiazide diuretics)
  2. Excessive production (chemotherapy, neoplasia - abnormal growth of cells)
  3. Gout
  4. Thiazide diuretics
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37
Q

What is the end product of protein metabolism?

A

uric acid

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38
Q

True or False - uric acid is excreted unchanged by the kidney?

A

True

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39
Q

Name (3) medications associated with hyperglycemia?

A
  1. Diuretics (mostly thiazides)
  2. Glucocorticoids (steroids)
  3. Estrogen and estrogen containing oral contraceptives
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40
Q

If a patient presented with HT and gout, would a thiazide diuretic be an appropriate medication to treat the HT?

A

No, thiazide diuretics can cause hyperuricemia and since this patient already has hyperuricemia (gout), this would exacerbate the problem

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41
Q

Name (5) common causes of hyperglycemia?

A
  1. DM
  2. Stress (extreme like being admitted to ICU)
  3. Pancreatitis
  4. Infections
  5. Pregnancy
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42
Q

Explain the criteria for diagnosing diabetes (include fasting plasma glucose, symptoms of hyperglycemia, random plasma glucose)?

A

Patient may have diabetes if…

  1. fasting plasma glucose is >126 mg/dL (fasting plasma glucose drawn at least 8 hrs after last meal)
  2. random plasma glucose >= 200 mg/dL AND symptoms of hyperglycemia

Symptoms of hyperglycemia are polyuria, polydipsia (excessive thirst), and unexplained weight loss

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43
Q

A patient with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) can be considered pre-diabetic. What is the reference range of glucose for a patient with IFG? Will this patient develop DM?

A

IFG 100 - 125 mg/dL

Patient may not develop DM, but they should be monitored. No drug therapy is required at this point

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44
Q

During the 120 day lifespan of RBC, glucose is irreversibly bound to hemoglobin in proporation to the average serum glucose. What test monitors this and what is the criteria for diagnosing DM?

A

Test - HbA1C (glycosylated hemoglobin)
DM >= 6.5%
(goal for DM patients is

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45
Q

What blood test would be given to assess acid/base balance (acidosis/alkalosis) and acute changes of pulmonary function (asthma, COPD)?

A

Arterial Blood Gas

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46
Q

What are the (4) components of the arterial blood gas? Which component is most important clinically?

A
  1. pH
  2. PaCO2 (most important clinically)
  3. PaO2
  4. HCO3

Pa = partial pressure

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47
Q

True or False - PaCO2 from ABG test is a true measure of CO2 (and not a measure of HCO3)?

A

True

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48
Q

Give the reference ranges for arterial blood gas components?

A
  1. pH 7.35 - 7.45
  2. Pa CO2 35 - 45 mm Hg
  3. Pa O2 90 - 100 mm Hg
  4. HCO3 22 - 26 mEq/L
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49
Q

What is the serum anion gap used for?

A

Use to identify the cause of metabolic acidosis in a patient

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50
Q

What is the serum anion gap equation?

What is the reference range for serum anion gap?

A

Na - (Cl + HCO3)

Normal 3 - 11 mEq/L

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51
Q

When identifying an acid/base abnormality using a patients ABG test, what components do you review first?

A

pH & CO2 - then review HCO3 levels and determine if any compensation is occuring

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52
Q

Which liver test measures substances synthesized or metabolized by the liver?

A

Liver function test

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53
Q

Which liver enzyme is present in both liver and heart tissue? When is this enzyme released?

A

AST (Aspartate Aminotransferase)

AST released after cell damage

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54
Q

Which liver enzyme is present in the liver and more specific for liver disease than AST? When would you see an increased concentration of this liver enzyme in a patient?

A

ALT (Alanine Aminotransferase)

Increased after acute injury

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55
Q

Which liver enzyme has the highest concentration in bone and biliary tract and physiologically increased in growing children and during the 3rd trimester of pregnancy?

A

ALP (Alkaline Phosphatase)

56
Q

Which test reflects the enzymes released from hepatic cells as a result of cell damage?

A

Liver enzyme test

57
Q

Which liver enzyme is a microsomal enzyme, is present in the liver, pancreas, and kidney and is elevated by drugs that induce microsomal enzymes like phenobarbital carbamazepine, and phenytoin?

A

GGT (Gamma-glutamyl Transferase)

58
Q

Why would a liver enzyme test not be useful in properly assessing the status of liver disease in a patient?

A

Liver enzyme tests reflect the enzymes which are released as a result of cell damage. Once a patient’s liver is fibrotic, there are fewer cells left to be destroyed and fewer enzymes would be released. A patient’s liver enzyme test may even improve despite worsening liver function

59
Q

What are (3) common causes of elevated ALP?

A

PRIMARILY RELATED TO BONE DISEASES

  1. Biliary tract disease (cholestasis - obstruction in biliary tract or metabolic (bile formation) - general stress on the liver
  2. Bone diseases (phosphorous stored in bone, bone diseases breakdown bone and release phosphorous, ALP is responsible for removing phosphate groups so more would be released in this case)
  3. Long-term use of phenytoin or phenobarbitol (due to effects on metabolism of vitamin D)
60
Q

Which liver enzyme is a sensitive indicator of alcohol abuse and/or alcohol induced liver disease?

A

GGT (Gamma-glutamyl Transferase)

The concentration of this enzyme increases with alcohol consumption

61
Q

Biliary obstruction and cholecystitis are associated with an increased concentration of which liver enzymes?

A

GGT (Gamma-glutamyl Transferase) and ALP

62
Q

What type of bilirubin gets sent to the liver for metabolism? (Bilirubin is the breakdown product of heme from hemoglobin in RBCs)

A

Unconjugated bilirubin

63
Q

If a patient’s liver function test indicates an elevated total bilirubin with elevated indirect bilirubin (unconjugated), what is the possible diagnosis?

A
  1. Patient may have excessive hemolysis of RBCs (possibly from a drug)
  2. Patient may have liver disease
64
Q

If a patient’s liver function test indicates an elevated total bilirubin with elevated direct (conjugated) bilirubin (unconjugated), what is the possible diagnosis?

A

Cholestatic disease. Something must be wrong with the bile duct (obstruction) because the indirect bilirubin is getting to the liver to be metabolized, but cannot be secreted through the bile duct into the duodenum

65
Q

What is another name for unconjugated bilirubin?

A

Indirect bilirubin

66
Q

What is another name for conjugated bilirubin?

A

Direct bilirubin (bilirubin is metabolized in the liver to conjugated bilirubin)

67
Q

Which bilirubin can be directly measured?

A

Conjugated (direct) bilirubin can be directly measured.

68
Q

What comprises the total bilirubin?

A

Total bilirubin = direct + indirect bilirubin

69
Q

True or False - both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin may be elevated in hepatitis?

A

True

70
Q

What comprises the total bilirubin? What is the NL?

A

Total bilirubin = direct + indirect bilirubin

NL 0.1 - 1.0 mg/dL

71
Q

Name (5) common conditions associated with LOW albumin concentrations?

A
  1. Hepatic disease (liver dysfunction)
  2. Hemorrhage
  3. Malnutrition
  4. Burns (cell destruction)
  5. Nephrosis (renal protein wasting)
72
Q

Why would albumin be an important parameter to monitor in a patient who is being treated with phenytoin?

A

Phenytoin is a highly protein bound drug and therefore its effects are dependent on the concentration of albumin. (low albumin levels = increased drug effect)

73
Q 
Assess liver enzyme and liver function tests for a patient with Hepatocellular Disease?
ALT/AST
GGT
ALP
Total Bilirubin
Direct Bilirubin
Indirect Bilirubin
A

Hepatocellular Disease

ALT/AST   HIGH
GGT   NL
ALP   NL
Total Bilirubin   HIGH
Direct Bilirubin   NL
Indirect Bilirubin   HIGH
74
Q 
Assess liver enzyme and liver function tests for a patient with Cholestatic Disease?
ALT/AST
GGT
ALP
Total Bilirubin
Direct Bilirubin
Indirect Bilirubin
A

Cholestatic Disease

ALT/AST   NL
GGT  HIGH
ALP   HIGH
Total Bilirubin   HIGH
Direct Bilirubin   HIGH
Indirect Bilirubin   NL
75
Q 
Assess liver enzyme and liver function tests for a patient with Hemolytic Disease?
ALT/AST
GGT
ALP
Total Bilirubin
Direct Bilirubin
Indirect Bilirubin
A

Hemolytic Disease

ALT/AST   NL
GGT  NL
ALP   NL
Total Bilirubin   HIGH
Direct Bilirubin   NL
Indirect Bilirubin   HIGH
76
Q 
Assess liver enzyme and liver function tests for a patient with Bone Disease?
ALT/AST
GGT
ALP
Total Bilirubin
Direct Bilirubin
Indirect Bilirubin
A

Bone Disease

ALT/AST   NL
GGT  NL
ALP   HIGH
Total Bilirubin   NL
Direct Bilirubin   NL
Indirect Bilirubin   NL
77
Q

What is the average lifespan of a WBC?

A

1 - 2 days

78
Q

Which WBC constitutes 40-70% of the WBC differential?

A

Neutrophils

79
Q

What are bands? What % of Neutrophils do they represent?

A

Bands are immature neutrophils and they represent 3-5% of all neutrophils.

80
Q

Explain “shift to the left”

A

A “shift to the left” indicates an increased percentage of bands (immature neutrophils) and is typically indicative of infection or inflammation

81
Q

What is neutropenia? How is neutropenia expressed quantitatively?

A

An abnormally low number of neutrophils. The degree of neutropenia is expressed as the absolute neutrophil count (ANC)

82
Q

Define neutropenia in terms of number of neutrophils?

A

Neutropenia < 2,000/mm^3

83
Q

True or False - your risk of infection is considered low if you have > 1,000 neutrophils/mm^3

A

True

84
Q

Which WBC constitutes 20-40% of the WBC differential?

A

Lymphocytes

85
Q

What is an increase in lymphocyte percentage indicative of?

A

viral infections and lymphomas

86
Q

Which WBC constitutes 0 - 8% of the WBC differential?

A

Eosinophils

87
Q

Which WBC would you see an increase in during an allergic reaction or parasitic infestation?

A

Eosinophils

88
Q

What is the main function of the kidney?

A

Maintain homeostasis by balancing electrolytes and fluid status using filtration, secretion, and reabsorption

89
Q

Is filtration an active or passive process?

A

Passive, it does NOT require energy

90
Q

Is secretion an active or passive process?

A

Active, requires energy

91
Q

Is reabsorption an active or passive process?

A

Active, requires energy

92
Q

In general, what diffuses across the glomerular capsule during the filtration process?

A
  1. Water

2. Small MW ions (<60 kdA)

93
Q

In general, what diffuses across the glomerular capsule during the filtration process? Where does filtration process occur?

A
  1. Water
  2. Small MW ions (<60 kdA)

Filtration occurs at the proximal convoluted tubule

94
Q

If large molecules such as proteins, RBCs, or glucose are found in the urine, what is this indicative of?

A

Kidney damage

95
Q

What (5) components comprise the kidney nephron?

A
  1. glomerulus
  2. proximal tubule
  3. loop of Henle
  4. distal tubule
  5. collecting duct
96
Q

Through what blood vessel is blood delivered to the glomerulus?

A

Afferent arteriole

97
Q

What is the role of vasopressin at the collecting ducts?

A

In states of volume depletion, vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary gland which triggers the body to hold onto water and produce an more concentrated urine

98
Q

Define the equation for Rate of Excretion?

A

Rate of excretion = rate of filtration + rate of secretion - rate of reabsorption

99
Q

What is the main job of the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

Reabsorption. Reabsorbs 90% of what’s filtered including H2O, glucose, aa, electrolytes

100
Q

Which limb of the Loop of Henle impermeable to water?

A

ascending limb

101
Q

Most drugs are small enough (<60kDa) to be freely filtered at the glomerulus. Give (2) exceptions.

A
  1. large proteins (albumin/RBC)

2. drugs bound to plasma proteins

102
Q

Normal CO is ~5L/min. What % of CO is directed to the kidneys?

A

20-25% or about 1.2L/min

103
Q

What is the normal GFR?

A

120 - 130 ml/min

104
Q

How many liters of urine do the kidneys excrete per day?

A

1.5 L

105
Q

What (5) components of urinalysis chemical composition are reviewed for detection of kidney disease? What physical composition is analyzed?

A

CHEMICAL

  1. pH
  2. Specific gravity (SG)
  3. Glucose
  4. Ketones
  5. Urobilinogen and bilirubin

PHYSICAL
protein or albumin

106
Q

When reviewing a patient’s urinalysis, what is a normal pH of urine?

A

Normal pH of urine: 4.5-7.8

107
Q

What results would you expect with SG of a urinalysis for a patient with DM?

A

You would expect the SG to be higher than normal since heavy molecules like glucose increase SG

108
Q

When performing a urinalysis for detection of kidney disease, what does the detection of urobilinogen and bilirubin in the urine signify?

A

Liver disease - if liver’s function is impaired or when biliary drainage is blocked, some direct bilirubin leaks out of the hepatocytes and into the urine

109
Q

What does the presence of epithelial cells in urine usually indicate?

A

contamination

110
Q

Name (2) situations in which a false positive is given for a urinalysis?

A
  1. UTI - WBC in urine

2. Just ran a marathon - RBC in urine

111
Q

Name the (3) labs used to detect kidney disease?

A
  1. Urinalysis
  2. BUN
  3. Scr
112
Q

True or False - the Dip and read test component of a urinalysis can indicate the presence of protein and blood, and measure pH AND be used as a diagnostic?

A

False - the Dip and read test does measure presence of protein and blood and measures pH but CANNOT be used as a diagnostic (meaning you can’t determine if you have kidney disease just from this test)

113
Q

What does a bright orange urine color indicate the presence of? What does a bright yellow urine color indicate the presence of?

A

Bright orange - supplements

Bright yellow - vitamin B

114
Q

What would the effect of decreased blood flow to the kidneys (dehydration, bleeding, vomiting) have on BUN?

A

Urea follows water so in conditions of hypovolemia or decreased GFR the body holds on to water and BUN increases

115
Q

Amino acids are metabolized to ammonia and are subsequently converted in the liver to form what?

A

Urea

116
Q

Give an example of (2) endogenous substances that are not reabsorbed and instead concentrated in the urine?

A
  1. urea

2. creatinine

117
Q

This marker of kidney function is a product of muscle breakdown and is directly dependent on muscle mass?

A

creatinine

118
Q

True or False - with declining renal function comes declining filtration?

A

True

119
Q

True or False - factors that affect BUN are solely related to kidney function?

A

False!

120
Q

Why would using Scr as an absolute marker of kidney function in calculated equations, overestimate GFR by 10-20% in early stages of chronic kidney disease?

A

Only 80-90% of creatinine is eliminated by glomerular filtration. Therefore, 10-20% of creatinine isn’t being filtered at all (instead it’s being secreted into the lumen to be eliminated in urine) so using the Scr assumes the kidney is filtering 100% of creatinine, but in reality it’s only filtering 80-90%, overestimating GFR by 10-20%

121
Q

This term is defined as the volume of plasma filtered across the glomerulus per unit time

A

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

122
Q

What (2) filtration markers that are 100% filtered are the gold standard for measurement of GFR but not practical because of their extensive processes?

A
  1. inulin

2. iothalamate iohexol

123
Q

True of False - Creatinine Clearance (CrCl) is a good estimate of GFR in stable subjects?

A

True - stable meaning steady, not necessarily normal

124
Q

Cockcroft-Gault (CG) equation can overestimate renal function in two types of patients, what are they?

A
  1. Obese patients

2. patients with muscle wasting

125
Q

When should you use ABW in the CG equation?

A

When BMI > 30 kg/m^2

126
Q

What effect do the following factors have on Scr?

  1. Age
  2. Sex
  3. Diet (vegetarian, cooked meats)
  4. Body habitus (muscular, malnutrition, obesity)
  5. Medications
A
  1. Age decreases Scr (reduction in creatinine generation)
  2. Female gender decreases Scr
  3. Diet: vegetarian decreases Scr, cooked meats increases Scr
  4. Body Habitus: muscular increases Scr, Malnutrition decreases Scr, obesity has no effect on Scr (since excess mass is fat, not muscle)
  5. Medication increasesScr (reduced tubular secretion)
127
Q

What class of drugs is indicated for early stage renal disease and can delay progression to end stage renal disease by decreasing proteinuria and preserve renal function?

A

ACE inhibitors

128
Q

What does BUN measure?

A

BUN measures the amount of nitrogen that comes from the waste product, urea

129
Q

24 hours urine collection may be required to estimate CrCl in which (6) conditions?

A
  1. extremes of age/body size
  2. malnutrition or obesity
  3. people who lost limbs (para/quad)
  4. vegetarian diet
  5. pregnancy
  6. rapidly changing kidney function
130
Q

True or False - if a medication has a renal elimination of >30% than you would need to adjust the dose of the medication?

A

True

131
Q

What is blood flow to the kidney determined by?

A

Cardiac output (CO)

132
Q

True or False: >99% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream?

A

True

133
Q

When blood glucose is >180 glycosuria would be present. Why?

A

Because the reabsorption is saturated and excess glucose spills into urine

134
Q

Ketones are a breakdown of what? Ketones are seen in patients in what three conditions?

A

fat

  1. DM
  2. anorexia
  3. dieting (Atkins)
135
Q

Name (5) risk factors associated with Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)

A
  1. older age
  2. infection (sepsis)
  3. nephrotoxic medications
  4. dehydration
  5. overdiuresis

P&T Intro to Pharmaceutical Care (3 decks)

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