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Micro II - E1, & extra chapters > Ex1 > Flashcards

Ex1 Flashcards

1
Q

An animal attendant at the zoo became ill. Symptoms included fever, chills, headache, severe myalgia, and malaise. This person’s urinalysis was abnormal with protein and blood present. A couple of weeks earlier, the attendant was handling the chimpanzees and one of the chimps urinated on him. What is the most likely cause of their symptoms?

  • Borrelia spp.
  • Leptospira spp.
  • Treponema spp.
  • Helicobacter spp.
A

Leptospira spp.

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2
Q

Spirochetes include all of the following EXCEPT:

  • Borrelia spp
  • Helicobacter spp.
  • Treponema spp.
  • Leptospira spp.
A

Helicobacter spp.

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3
Q

What disease do the Borrelia species cause?

  • Undulant and hemorrhagic fever
  • Lyme disease and Relapsing fever
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Relapsing Fever
  • Lyme disease and Parrot Fever
A

Lyme disease and Relapsing fever

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4
Q

What organism causes Lyme disease?

  • Borrelia burgdoferi
  • Borrelia recurrentis
  • Leptospira interrogans
  • Treponema pallidum spp. pallidum
A

Borrelia burgdoferi

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5
Q

A young woman notices a bruise that looks like a bull’s eye target on her lower leg. She cannot remember getting bruised, even though she went hiking through the woods last weekend. The bruise goes away in about a week and she thinks nothing more about it.

About 2 weeks later, she begins to feel very bad. She has joint and bone pain, extreme fatigue, and her heart just “doesn’t feel right.” She does recall having to deal with ticks after the hike.

What disease does she most likely have?

  • Lyme disease
  • Relapsing fever
  • Undulant fever
  • Duck fever
A

Lyme disease

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6
Q

All of the following diseases are caused by Treponema EXCEPT:

  • Syphilis
  • Yaws
  • Rock Mountain Spotted Fever
  • Pinta
A

Rock Mountain Spotted Fever

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7
Q

Spirochetes that are often detected in the hematology laboratory with a CBC Wright’s or Giemsa stain, even before the physician suspects a particular infection (disease), are:

  • Borrelia species (relapsing fever)
  • Treponema spp. (syphilis)
  • Campylobacter spp. (Campylobacteriosis)
  • Leptospira spp. (Leptospirosis)
A

Borrelia species (relapsing fever)

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8
Q

A man is taking a shower and notices a lesion on his penis that is not tender, but is firm, with a clean surface and raised edges. He is quite concerned and goes to his physician. The physician orders a rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test and a darkfield microscopy test. Both tests are positive.

What is the physician’s probable diagnosis?

  • Gonorrhea
  • Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
  • Plasma-reaginosis
  • Syphilis
A

Syphilis

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9
Q

What substances do organisms that can tolerate and use oxygen have to protect themselves from superoxide anions?

  • Hyaluronidase and proteases
  • Exotoxins and superoxide dismutase
  • Enterotoxins and lipase
  • Mycolic acides
  • Superoxide dismutase and catalase/peroxidase
A

Superoxide dismutase and catalase/peroxidase

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10
Q

What type of bacteria are those in the genus Clostridium?

  • Anaerobic gram postive cocci
  • Spore-forming anaerobic gram positive bacilli
  • Spore forming anaerobic gram negative bacili
  • Anaerobic branching gram positive bacilli
A

Spore-forming anaerobic gram positive bacilli

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11
Q

What organisms most commonly causes gas gangrene?

  • Clostridium difficile
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Clostridium botulinum
  • Clostridium gangrenosis
A

Clostridium perfringens

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12
Q

An elderly patient in a nursing home is receiving from bacterial pneumonia. The patient has been on a lengthy regiment of antibiotics to kill the organism causing the disease. A few days later, the patient is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis.

What organism is the most likely cause?

  • Clostridium difficile
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Clostridium botulinum
  • Clostridium pseudomembranosis
A

Clostridium difficile

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13
Q

All of the following are non-spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli EXCEPT:

  • Actinomyces
  • Bifidobacterium
  • Eggerthella/Eubacterium
  • Clostridium
A

Clostridium

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14
Q

A physician notices her immunosuppressed patient’s sinus tracts that are draining pus. She also notices that there appear to be small, hard, yellow “nuggets” (sulfur granules) in the pus. What disease will his doctor most likely diagnose?

  • Gas gangrene
  • Pseudomembranous colitis
  • Actinomycosis
  • Myonecrosis
A

Actinomycosis

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15
Q

What evidence indicates the presence of anaerobes in cultures?

  • A foul odor upon opening an anaerobic jar or bag
  • Growth on the anaerobic plates, but not on the sheep blood agar (SBA) plates incubated in the CO2 incubator
  • Colonies on kanamycin-vancomycin lakes blood agar (LKV) that fluoresce brick-red under ultraviolet light
  • all of the above
A

all of the above

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16
Q

Anaerobic small gram-positive rods (nonspore formers) were cultured from one blood culture bottle (at 5 days) obtained from a 25-year-old patient admitted to the hospital with dehydration, diarrhea, and other flulike symptoms. Five other blood culture bottles did not grow any organisms at 7 days and were discarded. The following results were obtained from the recovered anaerobe:

Indole: pos
Catalase: pos
Nitrate: pos
Kanamycin: sen
Vancomycin: sen
Colistin: resistant

  • Eggerthella/Eubacteriu lentum
  • Corynebacterium spp.
  • Propionibacterium acnes
  • Actinomyces Israelii
  • Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
A

Propionibacterium acnes

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17
Q

A microbiology technologies is reading an anaerobic would culture and observe a double zone of hemolysis on an anaerobically incubated blood agar plate. The Gram stain of that organism was a boxcar-shaped, gram-positive bacillus. What is the most likely identification of this organism?

  • Bacillus anthracis
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Clostridium difficile
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Clostridium septicum
A

Clostridium perfringens

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18
Q

A microbiology technologist is reading an anaerobic plate from an intestinal abscess.

The is growth on the Bacteroides-Bile-Esculin (BBE) plate: gray colonies with a brown/black color in the area around the colonies. There is also a dark precipitate in the medium in the areas of heavy growth. The tech gram stains the colonies and observes gram-negative coccobacilli.

What is the presumptive identification of this organism?

  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Bacteroides fragilis group
  • Prevotella melaninogenica
  • Borrelia recurrentis
A

Bacteroides fragilis group

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19
Q

A gram-negative anaerobic bacillus with tapered or pointed ends is most likely:

  • Porphyromonas assaccharolytica
  • Propionibacterium acnes
  • Fusobacterium necrophorum
  • Fusobacterium nucleatum
  • Bacteroides fragilis
A

Fusobacterium nucleatum

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20
Q

Which of the following reactions is incorrect for Clostridium perfringens?

  • Lecithinase positive
  • Double zone of hemolysis on anaerobic blood agar
  • Reverse CAMP positive
  • Gram positive but easily decolorize and look negative
  • All of these are correct
A

Reverse CAMP positive

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21
Q

A clean-catch urine was submitted for an anaerobic culture. The technologist should:

  • Reject the specimen as inappropriate for the test requested
  • Centrifuge the specimen and inoculate the culture media with the sediment
  • Prepare a gram stain and culture if white blood cells are present
  • Decontaminate the specimen with NaOH/NALC before inoculating the media
A

Reject the specimen as inappropriate for the test requested

22
Q

Mycoplasmas differ from other types of bacteria because they do not have a:

  • Cell membrane
  • Cell wall
  • Nuclear membrane
  • Messenger transporter
A

Cell wall

23
Q

What organism causes atypical or “walking” pneumonia?

  • Mycoplasma hominis
  • Mycoplasma urealyticum
  • Streptococcus pneumonia
  • Mycoplasma pneumonia
  • Mycobacterium kansasii
A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

24
Q

At-risk groups for contracting “walking” pneumonia include all the following EXCEPT:

  • Prisoners
  • College students
  • Military personnel
  • Newborns
A

Newborns

25
Q

Which Mycobacterium species is niacin positive, nitrate positive, and cat-68 (heat stable catalase) negative?

  • M. kansasii
  • M. tuberculosis
  • M. avium-intracellulare complex
  • M.szulgai
A

M. tuberculosis

26
Q

Tuberculosis is spread person-to-person through:

  • Contaminated respiratory droplets
  • The fecal-oral route
  • Sexual contact
  • Tuberculosis cannot spread from person to person, it is zoonotic only
A

Contaminated respiratory droplets

27
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is classified as a:

  • Photochromogen (Runyon group I)
  • Schotochromogen (Runyon group II)
  • Nonchromogen (Runyon group III)
  • Rapid Grower (Runyon group IV)
A

Nonchromogen (Runyon group III)

28
Q

Which of the non-tuberculosis mycobacteria is nonchromogen that is associated with pulmonary infections, lymphadenopathy in otherwise healthy children, and known to cause systemic disease in AIDS patients?

  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex
  • Mycobacterium fortuitum complex
  • Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex
  • Mycobacterium kansaii
A

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex

29
Q

Which statement correctly describes acid-fast staining?

  • The Ziehl-Neelson method does not require heat to drive carbolfushcin into mycobacterial cells
  • Mycobacterial cells stain blue with carbolfushcin
  • The Kinyoun methods uses heat to drive carbolfushcin into mycobacterial cells
  • Auramine O stains mycobacteria yellow to orange when viewed in a UV microscope
A

Auramine O stains mycobacteria yellow to orange when viewed in a UV microscope

30
Q

___________ are slow-growing mycobacteria which may be lightly pigmented (buff, tan) when grown in the dark and when exposed to light and reincubated, a yellow pigment is produced.

  • Photochromogens
  • Scotochromogens
  • Nonchromogens
  • Rapid growers
A

Photochromogens

31
Q

What organism is considered an obligate intracellular bacteria?

  • Rickettsia
  • Mycoplasma
  • Ureaplasma
  • Haemophilus
A

Rickettsia

32
Q

What organism’s unique life cycle contains an elementary body and a reticulate body?

  • Haemophilus
  • Chlamydia
  • Ureplasma
  • Mycoplasma
A

Chlamydia

33
Q

Psiattacosis is transmissible to humans typically via contact with:
- Dogs
- Birds
- Insects
- Cattle

A

Birds

34
Q

What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
- Rickettsia prowazekii
- Rickettsia typhi
- Rickettsia canada
- Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

35
Q

Which genus is slow growing and requires that sputum cultures be decontaminated/digested with Sodium hydroxide(NaOH) plus N-acetyl-L-cysteine to eliminate the normal respiratory flora that are in the specimen?

  • Mycobacterium species
  • Mycoplasma species
  • Moraxella species
  • Morel species
A

Mycobacterium species

36
Q

Which test(s) for detecting patient cell mediated immunity to tuberculosis use whole blood samples?

  • Quantiferon-TB Gold (QFT)
  • Enzyme linked ImmunoSpot for TB (T-Spot)
  • The Tuberculin Skin test with purified protein derivative (PPD)
  • All of the above
  • Both QFT and T-Spot
A

Both QFT and T-Spot

37
Q

Mycobacterium leprae can be growth in culture using specialized media.

  • True
  • False
A

False

38
Q

Within this terms lecture series (Micro 2) the two organism discussed that are classified as potential bioterrorism select agents for the LRN program are:

  • Bacteroides fragilis & Clostridium botulinum
  • Clostridium botulinum & Coxiella burnettii (Q fever)
  • Clostridium prfringens & Coxiella burnettii (Q fever)
  • Rickettsia rickettsii & Clostridium botulinum
A

Clostridium botulinum & Coxiella burnettii (Q fever)

39
Q

Ureaplasma urealyticum is positive for and grown in specialized media containing:

  • Glucose
  • Arginine
  • Urea
  • Mannitol
A

Urea

40
Q

Which infectious agents are incapable of growing outside of a living host cell:

  • Mycoplasma species
  • Chlamydia and Rickettsia species
  • Ureaplasma species
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A

Chlamydia and Rickettsia species

41
Q

Laboratories performing full AFB culture workup including ID and Susceptibilities (i.e. working up cultured Mycobacterium tuberculosis) require at a minimum:

  • BSL 1 lab facilities
  • BSL 2 lab facilities
  • BSL 3 lab facilites
  • BSL 3 lab facilities and practices
A

BSL 3 lab facilites

42
Q

An isolate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is isolated from a patient. The susceptibility testing shows that the drugs it is resistant to are Isoniazid (INH) and Rifampin. This strain of TB is:

  • MDR-TB
  • XDR-TB
  • Pan-susceptible TB
  • Not a problem
A

MDR-TB

43
Q

Which of the following organism(s) is usually associated with urogenital tract disease?

  • Mycoplasma hominis
  • Mycoplasma pnuemoniae
  • Ureaplasma urealyticum
  • None of these
  • Both Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum
A

Both Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum

44
Q

Which obligate intracellular bacteria can be seen within WBC’s on Wright Giemsa stains from CB testing?

  • Chlamydia
  • Chlamydophila
  • Ehrlichia
  • Borrelia
  • Ureplasma
A

Chlamydia

45
Q

Which of the following statements is true about serologic testing for syphilis?

  • RPR and VDRL testing detect patient antibodies specific to treponemal antigens (Treponemal test)
  • FTA-ABS and VDRL testing detect patient antibodies specific to treponemal antigens (Treponemal test)
  • FTA-ABS testing detects patient antibodies directed to lipids released from damaged cells (Nontreponemal test)
  • RPR and VDRL testing detect patient antibodies directed to lipids released from damaged cells (Nontreponemal test)
A

RPR and VDRL testing detect patient antibodies directed to lipids released from damaged cells (Nontreponemal test)

46
Q

The causative agent for Q fever is:

  • Rickettsia rickettsii
  • Rickettsia typhi
  • Rickettsia prowazekii
  • Anaplasma species
  • Coxiella burnetii
A

Coxiella burnetii

47
Q

Which organism can be grown on specialized media (SP4) It can take a week or two to see growth. The small colonies observed in a dissecting scope have the appearance of fried eggs. In enriched broth with arginine it will cause an alkaline reaction and shift the broth color to pink (positive reaction.

  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • Ureaplasma urealyticum
  • Mycoplasma arginophila
  • Mycoplasma hominis
  • Mycobacterium avium
A

Mycoplasma hominis

48
Q

True or False: Mycobacteria are dangerous to work with and require additional PPE and biosafety protocols to work with.

A

True

49
Q

Egg yolk agar is used to detect which enzyme produced by several Clostridium species?

  • Lecithinase
  • Beta-lactamase
  • Catalase
  • Oxidase
A

Lecithinase

50
Q

Anaerobic gram-negative rods were recovered from the blood of a patient after gallbladder surgery. The bacteria grew well on agar containing 20% bile but were resistant to kanamycin and vancomycin.

What is the most likely identification?

  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Bacteroides fragilis group
  • Prevotella spp.
  • Porphyromonas species
A

Micro II - E1, & extra chapters (1 decks)

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