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EVT: Solid Waste > EVT: ENVS358 Solid Waste Final > Flashcards

EVT: ENVS358 Solid Waste Final Flashcards

1
Q

What documents regulate solid waste in Canada? (2)

A
  1. CEPA

2. TDG

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2
Q

What is included in TDG? (4)

A
  1. National standards for control of toxic substances and primary pollutants
  2. Regulate interprovincial movement of dangerous goods (includes hazardous waste)
  3. Regulate the import and export of hazardous waste
  4. Provide guidance for hazardous waste classification and transport through documents
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3
Q

Regulation of solid waste in Alberta overseen by? (2)

A
  1. AEP

2. AER

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4
Q

How is biomedical waste regulated in Alberta?

A

It is decentralized.

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5
Q

What outlines the key principles and requirements that apply to Alberta waste management?

A

EPEA

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6
Q

What part of the EPEA deals with solid waste?

A

Part 9: Waste Minimization, Recycling, and Waste Management

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7
Q

Who and what roles does EPEA Part 9 regulate?

A

Waste storers, generators, carriers, recyclers, treaters, and disposers. This includes people, jobs, and facilities.

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8
Q

Guiding principle of EPEA Part 9

A

Cradle to grave: whoever creates waste or is dealing with it through cycle is responsible for it

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9
Q

What regulations exist under EPEA? (7)

A
  1. WCR - Waste Control Regulations
  2. AUGWM - Alberta’s User Guide for Waste Managers
  3. ADR - Activities Designation Regulation
  4. SRR - Substance Release Regulation
  5. ARPR - Approvals and Registrations Procedure Regulation
  6. Environmental Assessment Mandatory and Exempt Activities
  7. Codes of Practice
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10
Q

What is the WCR?

A

Outlines the administration and technical requirements for hazardous waste, hazardous recyclables, and non-hazardous waste in Alberta

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11
Q

What is included in WCR? (7)

A
  1. Classification
  2. Transporting
  3. Storage
  4. Financial Security (liability
  5. Manifesting
  6. Importing
  7. Landfilling
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12
Q

What is a manifest?

A

Documentation sent when transporting hazardous waste

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13
Q

What is the goal of AUGWM and how is it achieved?

A

Interpret, explain, and clarify WCR to be more user friendly. Give extensive lists of hazardous and non0hazardous waste, this minimizes analytical testing during waste classification.

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14
Q

What is the ADR

A

Activities designation regulation. Identify waste related activities that require approval, registration, and notification.

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15
Q

What is SRR

A

Substance release regulation. How much of and what substances can be released.

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16
Q

AER is responsible for regulating and managing…

A

Alberta hydrocarbon resources over their entire lifecycle

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17
Q

AER is a combination of what two government bodies?

A

ERCB: Energy Resources Conservation Board, and the ESRD: Environment and Sustainable Resource Development

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18
Q

Alberta’s hydrocarbon resources include. (4)

A
  1. Infrastructure
  2. Coal mining
  3. Processing plants
  4. Wells
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19
Q

Alberta hydrocarbon resources lifecycle includes. (5)

A
  1. Application and exploration
  2. Abandonment
  3. Construction and development of sites
  4. Water resources
  5. Reclamation and remediation
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20
Q

Oilfield waste is controlled under _____ and _____ while ______ outline how to further manage it.

A

Acts and regulations, directives.

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21
Q

WCR Definitions: Dangerous Good

A

Still in use. Product, substance, or organism that by it’s nature or TDG regulation is included in that act.

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22
Q

WCR Definitions: Waste

A

No longer in use. Any solid of liquid to be stored, or not stored -> then treated and disposed of. (not including recyclables).

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23
Q

WCR Definitions: Hazardous Waste

A

Waste that has one or more properties described in schedule 1 WCR, but not schedule 2 (WCR exceptions).

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24
Q

WCR Definitions: Hazardous recyclable

A

Recyclable that has one or more of the schedule 1 WCR properties

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25
Q

WCR Definitions: inert waste

A

Won’t interact in landfill, stays non-hazardous

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26
Q

WCR Definitions: Waste stream

A

Group of wastes that have something in common. Can be classified by generator or waste type.

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27
Q

Generator waste streams. (4)

A
  1. Municipal - city deals with issues
  2. Industrial - large scale manufacturing
  3. Commercial - small scale for profit
  4. Institutional - provincially regulated, money comes from tax dollars
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28
Q

Waste streams classified by type of waste. (8)

A
  1. Agricultural
  2. Biosolid (domestic sewage)
  3. biomedical
  4. construction and demolition
  5. radioactive
  6. oilfield
  7. household
  8. electronic
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29
Q

another term for non hazardous waste is

A

de-listed

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30
Q

WCR exempt waste (9)

A
  1. Household waste
  2. Agricultural waste
  3. domestic waste (biosolids)
  4. radioactive waste
  5. TDG type ‘p’ wastes
  6. waste from emergency spill cleanups
  7. biomedical waste
  8. hazardous recyclables
  9. oilfield waste hazardous waste small quantities exclusion
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31
Q

why is waste from emergency spill clean up exempt from WCR?

A

less paperwork allows clean ups to proceed quickly

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32
Q

What the the limits for WCR small quantities exclusion? Also, what is the exception to this exclusion?

A

Solids: <5kg, liquids: <5L, exception: table 4b augwm

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33
Q

what is a TDG type ‘p’ waste

A

Prohibited. Extremely dangerous waste that can’t be transported unless have specific permits/travel routes/ and times

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34
Q

classifying waste is the responsibility of the

A

generator

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35
Q

Main classes of dangerous goods (9)

A
  1. Explosives
  2. Gases
  3. Flammable Liquids
  4. Flammable Solids
  5. Oxidizing Substances
  6. Poisonous Substances
  7. Radioactive materials
  8. Corrosives
  9. Misc products and substances
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36
Q

TDG doesn’t deal with what class of dangerous good?

A
  1. Misc products and substances
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37
Q

WCR doesn’t classify what categories of hazardous waste? (3)

A
  1. Explosives (1)
  2. Radioactive materials (7)
  3. Infectious substances (6)
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38
Q

If primary classification is nine, is there a secondary classification

A

no

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39
Q

When to use bulk or lab classification of hazardous waste

A

bulk > 5kg/L > lab

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40
Q

two approaches to classify bulk waste

A

Depends on if chemical properties of waste are known.

  1. if known, based on type of waste
  2. if not known, waste not classified and not listed in schedule of AUGWM…based on criteria
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41
Q

how to classify bulk hazardous waste based on criteria

A
  1. Test a sample of the waste
  2. properties compared against list ‘properties of hazardous waste.” in WCR
  3. If exceed any threshold values - waste classified as hazardous waste
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42
Q

what are hazardous waste properties based on?

A

major hazardous property of the waste. ex., flammable liquid 3.0

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43
Q

after class, what are hazardous waste classes further subdivided into.

A

“division,” degree of hazard of the hazardous property. Lower the number, increase the degree of hazard.

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44
Q

what is a packing group

A

describe the level of packing that must be used when a hazardous waste is transported. decrease number, increase hazard

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45
Q

is packing group part of WCR

A

no, TDG

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46
Q

flashpoint

A

lowest temperature at which volatile liquids can vaporize to form an ignitable mixture in air. decrease flashpoint, increase hazard.

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47
Q

a chemical is class 3 - flammable liquids if when tested it

A

has a flashpoint <60.5*

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48
Q

division of class 3 flammable liquids based on these flashpoints (3)

A
  1. 1 flashpoint< -18*C

3. 2 -18*C

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49
Q

flammable class 3 packing group based on

A

initial boiling point of the substance. decrease boiling point, increase hazard.

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50
Q

what is main difference between a flammable liquid and solid

A

liquid needs an ignition source

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51
Q

what is a flammable solid

A

solids that can spontaneously combust as a result of friction, absorption of moisture, or spontaneous chemical reactions

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52
Q

divisions of flammable solids - based on spontaneous combustibility (3)

A
  1. 1 readily combustible
  2. 2 pyrophoric - spontaneously combust in air (transport in liquid)
  3. 3 on contact with water will emit flammable gases
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53
Q

what is an oxidizing substance

A

contributes oxygen to the combustion that is at a rate >= ammonium persulphate, potassium perchlorate, or potassium bromate.

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54
Q

oxidizing substances divisions (2)

A
  1. 1 oxidizing substances - mainly inorganic

5. 2 organic peroxides: O-O bond thermally unstable, can explosively decompose, sensitive to friction and impact

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55
Q

what makes a poisonous substance (class 6) toxic? (3)

A
  1. rat oral toxicity LD50: l < 200mg/kg, s<500 mg/kg
  2. dermal toxicity <1000mg/kg
  3. inhalation toxicity < 10000 mg/m3 at normal atmospheric pressure
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56
Q

ways toxins get into system (3)

A
  1. ingestions
  2. absorption
  3. dermal
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57
Q

divisions of toxic substances (2)

A
  1. 1 toxic substances

6. 2 infectious substances

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58
Q

what is a corrosive (class 8) substance

A

very acidic (pH<2.0) or very basic (pH>12.5)

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59
Q

what are corrosive packing groups based on

A

visible necrosis of the skin

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60
Q

contains PCB’s >=50mg/kg

A

class 9 substance

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61
Q

What is NR

A

Toxic leachate. Contains >=100mg/L Table 1 substances, or >= regulated amount of Table 2 substances. Contains dioxins or furans.

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62
Q

divisions of 9/NR

A

all 9.0

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63
Q

is discrepency between WCR and TDG

A

In Ab -> go with WCR, if interprovincial or international go with TDG.

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64
Q

What info needed for each waste on a manifest? (4)

A
  1. shipping name: ‘ waste _________’
  2. classification: table of precedence
  3. packing group
  4. PIN or NA
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65
Q

whose responsibility to characterize and classify waste that is going to be transported

A

waste generator

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66
Q

information sources that ban be used to classify hazardous waste (8)

A
  1. AUGWM
  2. MSDS Forms
  3. Merck Index
  4. Chemical Handbook
  5. Environment Canada
  6. Canadian Transport Emergency Centre
  7. NRCAN - natural resources canada
  8. CNSC - canadian nuclear safety commission
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67
Q

Bulk waste can be classified by these different groups (5)

A
  1. single chemical
  2. diluted single chemical
  3. waste mixture
  4. diluted waste mixture
  5. tclp test
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68
Q

how to classify bulk hazardous waste: single chemical

A
  • look up waste in Table 3, 4a, or 4b
  • name: ___waste___ ___chemical name____
  • class, pack, pin: augwm
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69
Q

when can a waste be diluted?

A

only through operational processes, not a deliberate dilution to avoid regulations (illegal)

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70
Q

what is a diluted waste

A

hazardous waste that has been diluted with a non hazardous waste that no longer meets criteria for hazardous waste classes (table 3, 4a, and 4b)

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71
Q

how to classify bulk hazardous waste: diluted waste

A
  • name: ___leachable waste___ ( ___state___ containing ___chemicals__)
  • class, pack, pin: NR, NR, NR
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72
Q

states that a diluted waste mixture can be (4)

A
  1. solid
  2. liquid
  3. sludge
  4. soil
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73
Q

how to classify bulk waste: waste mixture where all wastes are the same class

A
  • name: __waste__, __primary classification___, __state__, __NOS#___, (___chemical highest []___, ___name___, __amount___)
  • class, pack, pin: using primary classification
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74
Q

what is NOS#

A

not otherwise specified. not being specific and naming all wastes present in mixture

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75
Q

packing group assumption for mixtures

A

always assume highest packing group without testing to show exactly what it should be

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76
Q

how to classify bulk waste: waste mixture where all wastes different classes

A

use table of precedence to determine what are the primary and secondary class/hazards.

  • name: ___waste__ __primary class__, __state__ (___secondary class___) NOS # (__chemical highest []__, __name__, __amount__)
  • class, pack,pin: based on primary hazard/class
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77
Q

how to classify bulk waste: diluted mixture which no longer meets criteria

A
  • name: __leachable waste__ (__liquid containing__ __names__)
  • class, pack, pin: NR, NR, NR
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78
Q

How to classify PCB waste

A

PCB present >= 50 mg/L

- name: __waste oil contaminated with PCBS___

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79
Q

what is a tclp test

A

toxicity characteristic leaching procedure. soil/waste extraction method, analytical method that tries to simulate leaching through a landfill

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80
Q

how to classify bulk waste: mixture after tclp shows contaminants in table 1

A
  • name: ___leachable waste__ (___state__ containing ___chemicals)
  • class, pack, pink: NR, NR, NR
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81
Q

how to classify bulk waste: mixture after tclp shows contaminants in table 2, or table 1 and 2

A
  • name: ___leachable waste___ (__state__ containing __chemicals___)
    —-> chemicals listed in decreasing order of chemical concentration. this order is determined by ratio.
    ratio = contaminant in waste stream/regulatory level
  • class, pin, pack: NR, NR, NR
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82
Q

purpose of the manifest form (3)

A
  1. stop midnight dumping
  2. information helpful for first responders
  3. prevents accidents
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83
Q

how does manifest forms prevent midnight dumping

A

It is an example of cradle to grave tracking. Receiver must verify exact same waste (type and volume) is received as what left generator

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84
Q

how does manifest prevent accidents

A

nature of waste described on manifest, so receiver knows what they are dealing with

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85
Q

is there a manifest form for hazardous recyclables

A

recycling docket

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86
Q

do you need a manifest form to transport non regulated waste

A

no, shipping document or a bill of wading

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87
Q

manifest form used to transport hazardous waste from oil and gas operations

A

AER: oilfield waste form

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88
Q

manifest form is a six form copy used to…(4)

A
  1. identify source of waste (generator)
  2. identify who transporting waste (carrier)
  3. identify final destination of waste (receiver)
  4. identify quantity and type of hazardous waste being transported
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89
Q

what must carrier, generator, and receiver all have to handle hazardous waste?

A

registration/PIN number, shows that the government has acknowledged them

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90
Q

list of hazardous waste generators, carriers, and receivers is found where?

A

Online AEP website, all information available except waste PIN

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91
Q

where does each copy of waste manifest go?

A
  1. (1) mailed to AEP by generator within two working days of sending off waste, (2) kept by generator, send (3,4,5,6) with carrier
  2. at destination: receiver send (3) to AEP within 2 working days, carrier gets (4), (5) with receiver, and (6) sent to generator
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92
Q

manifest form law

A

keep copies of manifest for two years

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93
Q

what are the waste disposal options? (2)

A
  1. landfills

2. deep well injection

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94
Q

WCR definitions: landfill

A

a waste management facility at which waste is disposed of by placing it on or near land

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95
Q

landfill definition exceptions (4)

A
  1. surface impoundment area
  2. land treatment facility
  3. salt cavern
  4. deep well injection
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96
Q

WCR definitions: dump

A

place for disposal of domestic waste

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97
Q

WCR definitions: sanitary landfill

A
  • Place for disposal of refuse and other waste material
  • buried and covered with soil
  • engineer designed
  • waste must be compacted
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98
Q

alberta landfill regulations (4)

A
  1. EPEA
  2. WCR - Part 1 HW: Section 13
  3. Standards for landfills in AB
  4. environmental code of practice for landfills in AB
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99
Q

Landfill Regulations: EPEA

A

Act with which all other regulations, standards, codes, etc. must adhere to

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100
Q

Landfill Regulations: WCR Part 1 HW section 12

A

No hazardous waste will be disposed of in a landfill (class 2, 3). Exceptions: solid hazardous waste can be disposed of in a class 1 landfill.

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101
Q

Landfill Regulations: Standards for landfills in alberta

A

Provide the minimum requirements for the development, operation, monitoring, closure, and post closure activities at landfills

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102
Q

purpose of the document - standards for landfills in alberta (2)

A

Provide assurance to the public about:

  1. protection of ground and surface water
  2. management of nuisances like rats, odours, debris
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103
Q

Landfill Regulations: environmental code of practice for landfills in AB

A

For class 2 and 3. Provides minimum requirements for construction, operation, and reclamation

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104
Q

Landfill groups (3)

A
  1. municipal
  2. industrial
  3. oilfield
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105
Q

municipal landfill classes (3)

A
  1. modified sanitary - <10 000 people
  2. regional sanitary - > 10 000 people
  3. dry waste - inert waste
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106
Q

industrial landfill classes (3)

A
  1. class I: high risk, hazardous and nonhazardous waste
  2. class II: med to high risk, nonhazardous waste
  3. class III: low risk, inert waste
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107
Q

oilfield landfill classes (4)

A
  1. like class I industrial, difference in number of liners
    1a. two liners
    1b. one liner
    II. mod to high risk: nonhazardous waste
    III. low risk: non hazardous, chemically inert, and non-leachable solid oilfield waste
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108
Q

Compare Calgary Landfills (4)

A 
Regional Municipal Landfills
1. East: 39% left
2. Spy Hill: 25% left
3. Shepard: 25 % left (also class II industrial)
Municipal dry waste
4. ogden (closed)
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109
Q

landfill siting - major issues (3)

A
  1. political/social - NIMBY
  2. economic - site capacity (+25 years operational life), accessibility (don’t want long commute from waste source to landfill)
  3. environmental - especially water contamination
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110
Q

Report that environmentally justifies a landfill site

A

Technical Investigation Program Report

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111
Q

Technical Investigation Program Report Components (5)

A
  1. geology
  2. topography
  3. surface drainage patterns
  4. hydrology
  5. surrounding land use within 800m
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112
Q

To protect water sources, don’t build landfill near (6)

A
  1. within a ravine, coulee, or a gully
  2. within natural or manmade areas than permanently contain water
  3. over soil and rock types that aren’t clay
  4. areas with high k and K
  5. on flood plains
  6. geologically unstable areas (tsunami/earthquake prone)
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113
Q

potential problems associated with landfills (5)

A
  1. fires and explosions
  2. leachate
  3. odours
  4. windblown debris
  5. pests
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114
Q

biggest problem/fear for a landfill

A

fires or explosions

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115
Q

what causes fire and explosions at landfill (1) and how this is controlled

A

Waste produces methane. Controlled by:

  1. daily cover of soil
  2. gas recovery system
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116
Q

what is leachate

A

a liquid that has been in contact with waste in the landfill cell and has undergone chemical and physical changes

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117
Q

sources of leachate (3)

A
  1. precipitation
  2. moisture content of waste (like diapers)
  3. decomposition of food waste (like food waste)
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118
Q

what does daily cover protect against? (4)

A
  1. fires and explosions
  2. odours
  3. windblown debris
  4. pests
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119
Q

potential contaminant migration routes between a landfill and the environment (5)

A
  1. solution to groundwater (soluble ions)
  2. soil retention (heavy metals)
  3. volatilization
  4. overland runoff (flooding)
  5. plants (may take up contaminants)
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120
Q

what is a cell

A

basic building block of a trench landfill, average cell is 200m x 150m x 15 m

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121
Q

types of areas that can be filled by waste (2)

A
  1. area or depression fill (low/natural)

2. trench fill (dig low - Calgary)

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122
Q

basic design components of sanitary landfill (5)

A
  1. liners
  2. leachate collection system
  3. caps and covers
  4. gas extraction systems
  5. groundwater monitoring wells
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123
Q

landfill containment system designed to (3)

A
  1. Caps and covers: minimize leachate formed
  2. liners and leachate collection system: prevent migration of leachate offsite
  3. caps and covers, gas extraction system: remove landfill gases before they become a fire or explosion hazard
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124
Q

liner materials (4)

A
  1. Clay
  2. Synthetic: PVC (polyvinylchloride)
  3. Synthetic: HDPE (high density polyethylene)
  4. Combination liner: geosynthetic clay liner
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125
Q

Clay liner problem (1) and solutions (2)

A

Problem is cracking, solutions:

  1. keep clay moist during installation
  2. use one type of clay
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126
Q

HDPE liner major problem (1) and causes (4)

A

Major problem is holes in the liner, causes:

  1. sharp edges on waste
  2. manufacturing defect
  3. heavy equipment
  4. seams not properly glued
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127
Q

types of liners (3)

A
  1. clay liner (most widely used)
  2. composite liner (clay and synthetic liner with leachate collection system)
  3. double composite liner (2xclay, 2x synthetic liner, 2xleachate collection)
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128
Q

leachate collection system

A

perforated pipes placed within gravels -> lead to a sump pit -> pump out any leachate. always below waste and above liner

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129
Q

options for final leachate disposal (4)

A
  1. municipal water water treatment plant
  2. land application (limited due to heavy metals)
  3. leachate recirculation
  4. chemical and physical treatment of leachate
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130
Q

What is the four layers of cover required for a landfill

A
  1. Vegetation: prevent erosion
  2. Top: 0.2 m topsoil, sloped for runoff
  3. Middle: 0.35 - 0.8 m subsoil (thickness depends on future land use)
  4. Bottom: 0.6 m barrier layer with low K (stop movement of moisture and gases)
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131
Q

purpose of gas extraction system (4)

A
  1. remove landfill gases before fire or explosion hazard becomes high
  2. decrease odours
  3. decrease subsurface migration
  4. create gas to energy systems
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132
Q

types of gas extraction systems (2) and examples of each

A
  1. Active: like a vacuum by apply negative or positive pressure. Examples: perimeter ge trenches, perimeter ge wells
  2. Passive: gas removed as natural pressure created. Examples: perimeter intercept trench, flaring, or slurry walls
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133
Q

groundwater monitoring wells (type and placement)

A

No more than 200m apart:

  1. Upgradient: monitor background levels
  2. Downgradient: detect contaminant plumes
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134
Q

landfill monitoring plan types (4), and minimum needed

A

Minimum needed is 1 and 2.

  1. groundwater monitoring plan
  2. surface water monitoring plan
  3. if there is a leachate collection system -> leachate monitoring plan
  4. if accept organic waste -> gas monitoring plan
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135
Q

landfilling procedures (5)

A
  1. Waste dumped at base of workface
  2. Move waste into it’s place -> compact (deter pests and save space)
  3. Place daily cover (6” soil) -> decrease odour, moisture, windblown debris, and explosion hazards while increasing aesthetics
  4. Accumulation of a layer of daily covers becomes a lift -> place intermediate soil cover
  5. Two lifts created -> final soil cover of cell
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136
Q

what is a life

A

a single layer of waste in the cell, typically two lifts in modern landfills

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137
Q

stages of waste decomposition in a landfill (3)

A
  1. One month - aerobic decomposition, mainly organic matter, exothermic (high fire and explosion hazard)
  2. Several years - fermentation where bacteria ferment and hydrolyze organics to more soluble compounds -> mainly CO2
  3. Several decades - methanogenesis, creation of methan and carbon dioxide. Methane is good for waste to energy conversions but bad for fire and explosion hazard.
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138
Q

Age of a landfill comparison (2)

A
  1. Young - acidic, main gases are O2 when very young, little older main gas is CO2
  2. Mature - pH is neutral, main gases are CH4: 55%, and CO2: 40%
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139
Q

Phases of landfill life (4)

A
  1. Active phase: waste is brought to landfill
  2. Closure phase: enact final closure plan (reclaim site, erosion control, final cover….etc)
  3. post closure phase: enact post closure plan (monitoring and maintenance)
  4. eternity phase: wait until safe, pursue final land use
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140
Q

Minimum 25 years after landfill closure until… (4)

A
  1. groundwater quality guidelines met
  2. gas concentrations below exposure limit
  3. leachate concentrations below control limit
  4. volume leachate collected is <= previous year for five consecutive years
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141
Q

Possible landfill end uses (4)

A
  1. public open space
  2. woodland areas
  3. grazing
  4. light industrial
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142
Q

two main reasons for injecting fluids into subsurface formations

A
  1. increase pressure in oil and gas reserves that have been in production for prolonged period of time
  2. disposal of liquid hazardous waste (never solid hazardous waste)
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143
Q

classes of injection/disposal wells in alberta - use and fluid type: IV

A
  • Use: direct injection into a reservoir (like SAGD), no hazardous waste
  • Fluids: potable or recycled water
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144
Q

classes of injection/disposal wells in alberta - use and fluid type: III

A
  • Use: Primary or secondary EOR, liquid storage

- Fluids: solvents (EOR), sweet gas storage

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145
Q

classes of injection/disposal wells in alberta - use and fluid type: II

A
  • Use: inject/dispose of produced (brine) waters
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146
Q

classes of injection/disposal wells in alberta - use and fluid type:: 1b

A
  • Use: disposal produced (brine) water, specific oilfield streams, and waste streams
  • Fluids: consult standard industry practices list, if fluid on list can inject without testing
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147
Q

classes of injection/disposal wells in alberta - use and fluid type: 1a

A
  • use: disposal of oilfield and industrial waste fluids

***only well to accept nonoilfield waste

  • Fluids: consult standard industry practices list, test whether or not fluid is on list
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148
Q

criteria waste fluid must meet for DWI - otherwise prohibited (5)

A
  1. pH: 4.5 - 12.5
  2. doesn’t meet surface water storage criteria (don’t want to waste underground space)
  3. <10% by mass non-halogenated organics
  4. <1000 mg/kg halogenated organics
  5. <50 mg/kg PCBs
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149
Q

DWI regulations found in what AB document?

A

Directive 51: injection and disposal wells: well classifications, completions, logging, and testing requirements

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150
Q

Alberta DWI regulations focus on (4)

A
  1. wellbore integrity: initial and ongoing fluid containment to protect groundwater and hydrocarbon resources
  2. formation suitability for fluid disposal
  3. waste stream solubility: is waste stream chemically compatible with disposal and are there more suitable options for disposal?
  4. reporting and manifesting: cradle to grave
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151
Q

TDS of useable groundwater aquifer

A

<= 4000 mg/L

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152
Q

how is wellbore integrity ascertained?

A

logging and testing the well

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153
Q

when to log/test the well (2)

A
  1. prior to injection: if requirements not met, application denied
  2. during disposal well life: ensure hydraulic isolation maintained
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154
Q

initial logging and tests (4)

A
  1. cement top locate logging: cement used to hold casing in place
  2. hydraulic isolation logging
  3. casing integrity logging: has it been corroded
  4. initial pressure test: leaks
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155
Q

monitoring and logging tests (4)

A
  1. record annular and injection pressures
  2. hydraulic isolation logging
  3. formation pressure surveys
  4. packer isolation tests
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156
Q

requirements for a disposal formation (6)

A
  1. porous: space for injection fluids
  2. permeability: fluid able to flow into formation
  3. not fractured: maintain well hydraulic isolation
  4. below groundwater aquifer
  5. confined porosity and permeability zone
  6. deep
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157
Q

example of unsuitable waste stream for a disposal formation

A

Formation: limestone. Can’t inject acids because they will clog up pores and compromise hydraulic isolation

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158
Q

DWI problems (2)

A
  1. contamination of groundwater aquifers (if hydraulic isolation not maintained)
  2. potential, localized earthquakes from pressure
159
Q

how much waste has SHTC treated since opening?

A

more than 250 000 tonnes

160
Q

SHTC accepts and doesn’t accept what types of waste?

A
  1. Accept: liquid, solid, and sludge

2. Doesn’t Accept: radioactive, biohazard, and explosives

161
Q

Primary components of SHTC (5)

A
  1. incineration facility: mainly two high temperature rotary kilns
  2. physical/chemical processing and neutralization facility
  3. stabilization plant
  4. DWI facility
  5. class 1 landfill
162
Q

two main purpose of incineration

A
  1. volume reduction (primary combustion chamber more than 90% reduction in volume)
  2. toxicity reduction (toxicity is due to molecular structure which incineration destroys)
163
Q

Primary combustion chamber

A

Remove 90% bulk of waste, a rotary kiln, 800-300*C, and a residence time of about 40 minutes

164
Q

Secondary combustion chamber

A

Rotary kiln, about 1200 *C, residence time of about two seconds, this is attempting to bring organic waste to complete combustion

165
Q

DRE

A

destruction and removal efficiency, incineration must achieve 99.999% DRE

166
Q

RT

A

residence time

167
Q

air pollution control system intake

A

non-incinerated waste and chemicals generated by process

168
Q

air pollution control systems for flue gases (4)

A
  1. neutralize -> alkaline scrubbers
  2. catalytic converter
  3. add methane
  4. fabric filters and baghouses
169
Q

air pollution control systems -> breakdown of organic wastes, their incineration by product, if product is harmful, and controls in place. (8)

A
  1. HC: CO2, H2O, non-hazardous
  2. Halogenated Organics: HCl, HF: hazardous - producing acids, neutralize with a basic scrubber
  3. Sulfur Organics: SOx: hazardous - producing acids, neutralize with a basic scrubber
  4. Phosphorus organics: P2O5: hazardous - producing acids, neutralize with a basic scrubber
  5. Nitrogen organics: NOx: hazardous - producing acids: catalytic converter
  6. TCE (trichloroethylene): Cl2, COCl2 (deadly gases): remove with methane
  7. Dioxin, furan: not broken down in incinerator: fabric filter/baghouse
  8. Particulate matter: not broken down in incinerator: fabric filter/baghouse
170
Q

material input into stabilization (3)

A
  1. solids from chemical/physical plant
  2. fly and bottom ash from incineration
  3. solid hazardous waste with heavy metals etc that can’t be treated by oven
171
Q

how to stabilize

A

mix material with concrete and other chemicals

172
Q

stabilization purpose

A

immobilize contaminants as a non-leachable, chemically inert substance

173
Q

after waste is stabilized, where does it go?

A

class 1 landfill

174
Q

swan hills cells

A

There are 11 cells with a 9600 m3 capacity and nine of those are full.

175
Q

ideal waste management hierarchy (6)

A
  1. source reduction
  2. waste minimization
  3. reuse
  4. recycle
  5. treatment and energy recovery
  6. disposal
176
Q

ways of dealing with waste over human history (4)

A
  1. dump
  2. burn
  3. recycle
  4. waste minimization
177
Q

todays waste management issues (5)

A
  1. waste volumes and diversity
  2. funding limitations
  3. growing populations create more waste
  4. physical space limitations
  5. public awareness = hierarchy of waste and their role within it
178
Q

swan hills monitoring programs (7)

A
  1. groundwater
  2. surface water
  3. air emission
  4. soil
  5. leachate
  6. wildlife
    .7 vegetation
179
Q

swan hills cradle to grave tracking (2)

A
  1. manifest forms

2. certificate of destruction

180
Q

when does swan hills issue a certificate of destruction

A

issued to waste generator post waste destruction to let them know it was destroyed

181
Q

are oilfield waste facilities governed by EPEA

A

no

182
Q

what are the two main reasons for characterizing waste

A
  1. to determine the dangers relating to transportation on public roads
  2. to determine the environmental consequences of the waste so that a disposal or management option that appropriately deals with those consequences may be used
183
Q

once characterized as oilfield waste, the material will then be categorized as either (2)

A
  1. DOW: dangerous oilfield waste

2. non-DOW: non dangerous oilfield waste

184
Q

What is the main difference between the land treatment and biocell treatment of oilfield waste with respect to where the waste is placed during the process?

A
  • land treatment: happens at site where waste is created

- biocell: waste is transported away from site where it was created

185
Q

during land treatment, waste can’t be applied to soil at what times? (3)

A
  1. between oct 15 and following apr 30
  2. during rainfall periods
  3. any times when soil is saturated with water, ice covered, snow covered or frozen
186
Q

list 2 situations under which biopile treatment should be chosen over land treatment

A
  1. volume of weight preclude one-time, on-site land treatment
  2. site conditions are not suitable for land treatment
187
Q

list three thermal treatment methods that can be used to remove organics from oilfield waste

A
  1. incineration
  2. thermal oxidation
  3. thermal desorption
188
Q

stack discharge limits for particulates and dioxins/furans

A

particulates: 20 mg/Rm3, dioxins/furans: 0.5 mg/Rm3

189
Q

What is the ECPCF

A

environmental code of practice for compost facilities

190
Q

ECPCF: define compost

A

Compost means the stable humus-like material that

  • results from the biological decomposition and stabilization or organic materials under aerobic and thermophillic conditions
  • is potentially beneficial to plant growth
  • is sanitized to a degree that protects human health
191
Q

ECPCF: define windrow system

A

“Windrow system,” means a compost system in which feedstock is placed in elongated piles of triangular or trapezoidal cross-section that are turned in order to enhance convective air flow, to control temperatures, and to blend the feedstock

192
Q

an air pollution control system at a compost facility must control the emission of what three things?

A
  1. offensive odours
  2. airborne microbials
  3. airborne particulates
193
Q

in a windrow system, what internal temperature must be achieved and for how long?

A

55*C or greater for at least 15 days

194
Q

what three pieces of information must be posted at the entrance to a compost facility?

A
  1. name of person responsible for the compost facility
  2. any waste restrictions
  3. telephone numbers for: person responsible, local fire department, AEP pollution response time, and the local police department
195
Q

when a groundwater monitoring system is require at a compost facility, how often must samples be gathered and analyzed?

A

an annual basis, or at a frequency approved by the director

196
Q

during the active life of a compost facility, groundwater must be analyzed for what three parameters?

A
  1. chloride
  2. nitrate, nitrogen
  3. pH
197
Q

what must be done to groundwater monitoring wells that can no longer provide a representative sample?

A

clean, repair, or replace groundwater monitoring wells which have been damaged or are no longer able to produce representative groundwater samples prior to the next scheduled sampling date

198
Q

the operating record for a compost facility must include what three pieces of information?

A
  1. a copy of the registration for the composting facility
  2. the current versions of the design and operations plan for the compost facility
  3. annual reports as required by section 11(3)
199
Q

An annual report must be prepared throughout the active life of a compost facility. List 3 pieces of information that must be included in this report.

A
  1. type and volume of feedstock received and processed in the calendar year
  2. the surface water monitoring data
  3. any remedial action taken in relation to classes c, d, and e
200
Q

Lab Pack

A

Method used to classify hazardous waste that falls under the “Small Quantities Exclusion” in the WCR - <5L, <5kg generated per calendar month

201
Q

Principle of Compatibility (2)

A

Classification system for lab pack is based on this.

  1. Wastes from different subgroups cannot be placed in the same transit containers (drums) for transport
  2. To prevent mixing of incompatible chemicals during transit in case of a spill/accident
202
Q

Lab Pack : Classifying Waste Procedure (4)

A
  1. Segregate chemicals based on primary classification
  2. Sort further into subgroups
  3. Separate solids from liquids in each sub group
  4. Review special considerations and subdivide if necessary
203
Q

Lab Pack : Classifying Waste Procedure: Special Considerations (5)

A

Must separate:

  1. Mercury containing chemicals
  2. Mercury containing chemicals in different subgroups
  3. perchloric, sulphuric, nitric acid; beryllium; cyanide chemicals
  4. PCBs separately
  5. Class 9 goes with poisonous
204
Q

What is lab pack waste typically store in (and size of each) (2)

A
  1. Drums 45 gallons

2. Pails 25 L

205
Q

Lab Pack: Waste Container Labelling Within Transit Container (in use, discarding)

A

In use: WHMIS labels

Discarding: removed labels and replace with TDG labels (cannot place TDG on top in case it falls off)

206
Q

Only wastes that is in the same ______ can be placed in the same transit container

A

Subgroup

207
Q

Lab pack: Waste container size limitations (45L, 25L)

A

45L: max 23L
25L: max 5L

208
Q

Lab pack: Place waste containers _______ _____ __ to prevent _______

A

Right side up, spills

209
Q

Lab pack: There must be _____ of space between waste containers within transit container.

A

3 inches

210
Q

Lab pack: You can stack waste containers in transit containers, max number of layers in a container is ____

A

3

211
Q

Lab pack: packing material + ratio of packing material to chemicals

A

Vermiculite - a form of clay - should be a 40 % chemical to 60% vermiculite ratio in each transit container

212
Q

Lab pack: packing material: purpose (4)

A
  1. Prevent Breakage
  2. Absorbant (in case of spill)
  3. Light weight (decrease transit costs)
  4. Fire resistant
213
Q

Lab pack: must be three layers of vermiculite in transit container where? (3 areas)

A
  1. bottom
  2. in between waste container layers
  3. top
214
Q

Lab pack: TDG placards show the ______ and _____ classification of waste in transit container

A

primary, secondary

215
Q

Lab pack: places where drum inventory sheets are placed on transit container (2)

A
  1. side

2. top

216
Q

Lab pack: documentation that must accompany lab pack transit container are (2)

A
  1. manifest form and attachment sheets

2. drum inventory sheets

217
Q

lab pack: drum inventory sheets

A

Document container-by-container exact contents of each -

218
Q

lab pack: drum inventory sheets: what must be same in container as is on drum inventory sheet? (4)

A

Everything must match exactly the same, examples:

  1. Same number of containers
  2. waste container sizes
  3. waste volume
  4. way name is written on waste container bottle must match exactly the same on DIS
219
Q

What is a radionuclide

A

radioactive isotope, elements whose nuclei are unstable an will emit ionizing radiation as their nuclei enter a more stable configuration

220
Q

What are the three basic types of radiation

A
  1. alpha particles
  2. beta particles
  3. gamma rays
221
Q

alpha particles

A

stopped by paper, lethal when internal, most dangerous, can’t get through the skin, route of entry is ingestion/inhalation

222
Q

beta particles

A

high energy electrons, stopped by plywood

223
Q

gamma rays

A

high energy electromagnetic radiation, stopped by meters of concrete or water

224
Q

half life

A

length of time it takes for half of a radionuclide to decay to a more stable form, ‘ survival time’

225
Q

radionuclides: danger lies in the fact that ______ ____ can alter the _____ and ______ _______ of the material it passes through. it changes ______ which leads to ______ and ______

A

danger lies in the face that ionizing radiation can alter the physical and chemical properties of the material it passes through. it changes DNA which leads to mutations and cancers.

226
Q

What is the greatest hazard of radionuclides?

A

Greatest hazard results from inhalation or ingestion of these particles as some can bioaccumulate in body and inside they will continue to emit radiation as they decay

227
Q

Hazards of radionuclides in body (2)

A
  1. Some can mimic essential nutrients.

2. some bioaccumulate

228
Q

Examples of radionuclides that are hazardous in body and what they do

  1. Sr-90
  2. Cs-137
  3. I-138
  4. Ra-226, Rn-222
A
  1. Sr-90 - similar to calcium, is absorbed to bones
  2. Cs-137 - like potassium, can accumulate in muscles
  3. I-138 - accumulate in thyroid
  4. Ra-226, Rn-222 - accumulate in bones and cause bone cancer
229
Q

An example of nuclear terrorism

A

Alexander Linvenenko - 2006- Po-210 poisoning was dead in about three weeks

230
Q

On average Canadians receive ___ mSv/year of radiation from natural sources with _____% from radon

A

2, 38%

231
Q

Five major natural sources of radioactivity

A
  1. inhalation of radon
  2. medical diagnoses
  3. cosmic radiation
  4. gamma rays from soil and rock
  5. internal sources within own body
232
Q

Three major categories of radioactive waste (based on origin)

A
  1. NORM (naturally occuring radioactive materials)
  2. from nuclear fuel cycle/energy production
  3. atomic weapons (produced from plutonium)
233
Q

NORM

A

radioactive elements found naturally in our environment and also any of their decay products, very low concentrations in earth

234
Q

two most common NORMS

A

U, Th because they have very long half lives

235
Q

TENORM

A

technologically enhanced NORMS - if concentrate NORMS by man’s activities - results in TENORMS that have higher radiation levels than NORMS

236
Q

Industries that NORMS are an issue (5)

A
  1. Oil and gas - especially Sr and Ra as they precipitate on outside of tubing during production.
  2. Mineral extraction and processing - phosphate fertilizers
  3. forestry products
  4. water treatment facilities - could release Rn gas during treatment
  5. tunnelling and underground work
237
Q

Nuclear fuel cycle

A
  1. uranium mining and drilling - concentrate ore leave behind large piles of waste rock and tailings (TENORMS)
  2. Refining and uranium enrichment
  3. fuel fabrication
  4. fuel consumption in nuclear reactors
  5. fuel reprocessing - try to decrease waste hazard
  6. waste solidification
  7. solid waste buried or repurposed
238
Q

levels of radioactive waste (4) (based on hazard posed to general public)

A

high level (hlrw), intermediate level (ilrw), low level (llrw), and uranium mine and mill waste

239
Q

high level radioactive waste

A

Produces ionizing radiation with a strong ability to penetrate matter. Example: spent nuclear fuel roads, some medical isotopes

240
Q

intermediation level radioactive waste

A

Requires isolation and containment beyond several hundred years. Example: radioactive sources from radiation therapy, used reactor components

241
Q

low level radioactive waste

A

loses all or most radiation in about 300 years. Example: items used with nuclear power plant during operation like paper towels or floor sweepings

242
Q

uranium mine and mill waste

A

more natural low level radioactive waste

243
Q

current disposal options for radioactive waste

A
  1. interim/ temporary storage

2. long term/permanent storage - must maintain integrity for 1000 + years

244
Q

goal of long term radioactive waste storage is to place radioactive material in a place so that

A
  1. no long term monitoring required by future generations

2. negligible risk to biosphere at any time in turute

245
Q

It is generally believe that ____ half-lives need to pass before a radioisotope is no longer a hazard

A

10 halflives

246
Q

What happened at Yucca Mountain radioactive waste storage site

A

2002 fed gov’t proposed as long term storage site and monitor site for 10 000 years -> court ruled that radiation would be greatest in 300 000 years so its not good enough

247
Q

short term disposal of radioactive waste must take into account two safety requirements

A
  1. cooling mechanisms (water, air) to protect against heat

2. shielding mechanisms (3m water, 1m concrete) to protect against radioactivity

248
Q

condu reactors

A

fuel bundles

249
Q

nuclear fuel is found in

A

rods

250
Q

number of waste nuclear fuel rods is currently

A

about 200 million

251
Q

interim storage of high level radioactive waste (2)

A
  1. wet storage - on site deep water pool to provide both cooling and shielding
  2. dry storage - steel/concrete, life span of 50 years
252
Q

to be effective disposal site for long term containment of high level radioactive waste, site must be (3)

A
  1. geomorphically and structurally stable - no seismic or volcanic activity, protect waste from landscape erosion
  2. isolated from fractured bedrock - once in fracture very difficult to clean up
  3. isolated from groundwater and groundwater flow - really dont want to contaminate this
253
Q

past radioactive waste disposal site options considered in past (3)

A
  1. burial in antarctic ice cap - global warming, now those melted
  2. ocean floor subduction zones - but barrels rupture due to high pressure, never get subducted - instead end up above part of accretionary wedge
  3. deep geological storage - isolated from gw, monitor site for 1-2 generations and if nothing bad then considered dealt with
254
Q

radioactive waste deep geological storage - formations under consideration (4)

A
  1. deep crystalline rocks - like granites
  2. deep salt beds - like halite
  3. deep shale beds
  4. thick unsaturated zones with arid regions (not for canada and europe - too much rain)
255
Q

radioactive waste deep geological storage - deep salt beds (adv (3)/disadv (3))

A

advantages

  1. dry and impermeable to h2o
  2. fractures that develop tend to self seal
  3. can dissipate large amounts of heat

disadvantages

  1. can dissolve to large caverns
  2. can dissolve to creative corrosive brines
  3. soft flow - halite can flow (soft creep) when heated toward surface
256
Q

Hare Report

A

In 1977 in Canada this report concluded that high level radioactive waste should be store in granitic rock with salt as the second choice

257
Q

NWMO (acronym/mandate)

A

nuclear waste management organization

development and mange a long term disposal site for high level radioactive waste in canada

258
Q

CNSC

A

canadian nuclear safety commission

259
Q

NWMO chose three storage options for high level radioactive waste

A
  1. deep underground storage in canadian shield
  2. decentralized storage at reactor sites
  3. centralized storage in a disposal area
260
Q

fed govt chose what option for high level storage waste disposal

A

centralized repository deep underground in canadian shield in disposal vaults/geospheric disposal

approach: can retrieve waste indefinitely and can be monitored continually

261
Q

disposal vault

  1. lithology
  2. mineral value
  3. depth
  4. storage containers
  5. groundwater flow
  6. buffer material
  7. back fill
A
  1. lithology: granites of canadian shield
  2. mineral value: low, no chance of mining
  3. depth: 500 to 1000 m
  4. Storage containers: corrosion resistant, last 1000s years
  5. Groundwater flow: low exposure, low K and k
  6. buffer material: bentonite
  7. back fill: vaults, tunnels, and shafts at closures
262
Q

Why has no site been found yet in Canada (3)

A
  1. Nimby
  2. High costs (9.13 billion)
  3. long construction time (60-90 years)
263
Q

how much of world’s uranium deposits at cigar lake?

A

11%

264
Q

WIPP (meaning/what)

A

waste isolation pilot plant (US Dept of Defence)

licensed for permanent disposal of radioactive materials from research and production of nuclear weapons

265
Q

WIPP is the worlds _____ largest deep geological reservoir

A

3rd

266
Q

WIPP facts

  1. Location
  2. Depth
  3. Lithology
  4. Material Accepted
  5. Operational Life
  6. Internment
  7. Passive Institutional Controls
A
  1. Location: New Mexico
  2. Depth: 650 m
  3. Lithology: halite
  4. Material Accepted: low levels transuranic
  5. Operational Life: 1999 to 20/30 years
  6. Internment: once caverns full - collapsed, 13 layers of concrete and soil, salt creep stop about 75 years full isolation
  7. Passive Institutional Controls: granite pillars and roofless enclosure on surface with warnings
267
Q

Categories and corresponding level of radioactive waste (3)

A
  1. Legacy - low and intermediate waste
  2. Historical - low level only
  3. ongoing - low and intermediate
268
Q

NRCC

A

national research council of canada

269
Q

AEC

A

atomic energy canada

270
Q

CNL

A

canadian nuclear labs ltd

271
Q

legacy radioactive waste

A

result of 60+ years of nuclear research and development

includes outdated research buildings, buried wastes, affected lands

272
Q

historical radioactive waste

A

soils contaminated with uranium and radium from past industrial practices, federal government is responsible

273
Q

ongoing radioactive waste

A

contaminated materials being currently generated from unclear processes

274
Q

interim storage of intermediate level radioactive waste - waste still emits significant ________ but little _______. So you need _______ but not ______. Storage is in ____ _____ containers

A

radioactivity, heat

shielding, cooling

steel-lined

275
Q

interim storage of low level radioactive waste - waste emits ________ radioactivity. Requires no ______ or _________, so it is _________ and _________ so that _____ can be stored in _____ __________

A

minimal

shielding, cooling, compacted, incinerated, ash, concrete warehosues

276
Q

Canada long term storage: ______ _______ ______

what/waste level/location

A

Bruce Site Proposal

Deep geological vault for intermediate and low level radioactive mater at Lake Huron in Ontario

277
Q

Regulation of radioactive waste

  1. federal
  2. provincial
A
  1. federal: CNSC - jurisdiction over nuclear fuel cycle materials (high to low), manmade radionuclides, and the export/import of NORMS
  2. provincial: NORMS unless being moved
278
Q

ALARA

A

As Low as Reasonably Achievable
(with economic and social factors being taken into account)

a risk mgmt principle

279
Q

ALI

A

Annual limit on intake

280
Q

ALI for ingestion and inhalation of radioactivity for workers

A

about 20 mSv/year

281
Q

Nuclear power plant design

A

Inside working out

Core and coolants -> reactor vessel -> containment vessel -> building

282
Q

Steps to generating power in a nuclear power plant (4)

A
  1. nuclear fission generates heat in core as U or Pu is split
  2. coolant circulates around core and heat is transferred to this
  3. heat transferred from coolant to water and this is boiled
  4. steam from h2o turns turbines that drive electric generators
283
Q

nuclear power plant coolant materials (4)

A
  1. water
  2. liquid metal
  3. gas
  4. molten salt
284
Q

ways to shut down a power plant (3)

A
  1. storage - leave as is and guard for 100+ years
  2. entombment - permanently encase plant in concrete
  3. decommissioning - immediately after shut down workers and robots work together to disassemble and send to permanent storage
285
Q

INES

A

international nuclear and radiological events scale

level 1 (very little danger to public) to 7 (major accident)

286
Q

chernobyl (INES/cause/what)

A

ines: 7
cause: reactor design and human error
what: explosions destroyed a nuclear reactor sending lots of radioactive material into atmosphere

287
Q

chernobyl progression of problems (3)

A
  1. initially fire (firefighters improper ppe almost all died)
  2. clean up site ( even in ppe, could only stay a few minutes) - ended up being entombed
  3. long term - 170K had to give up livelihood, land unusable for at least a century, increased cancer rates
288
Q

fukushima (INES/cause/what)

A

ines: 7
cause: triggered by a tsunami at a subduction zone that knocked out power, this shut down pumps that recirculate water so an explosion happened
what: 400 mSv/hour after explosion, lots of cesium and iodine (bioaccumulate), created a 20 km mandatory exclusion zone)

289
Q

_____mSv/hour can cause death in a few minutes

A

50 to 60

290
Q

Radon Gas first seen at

A

Elliot Lake Uranium MInes in 50s to 70s - miners 2x more likely to get lung cancer. 1974 - first case linked between lung cancer and exposure

291
Q

Radon is the ___ _____ of lung cancer in nonsmokers

A

1 cause

292
Q

how does radon get in body and what does it do?

A

route of entry is inhalation, radon precipitates in lung and emit apha radiation

293
Q

domestic radon - in 1984 a construction worker at a mine was setting off the radioactivity meters, site was clear so they checked his home to find

A

Radon levels 700x higher than what is safe, or equal to about 100 packs of cigarettes a day

294
Q

sanitary sewage

A

wastewater from households, institutes, and commercial establishments including toilet body waste, as well as kitchen, laundry, and other bathroom water that is a threat to human health due to e. coli

295
Q

test for e. coli using

A

fecal coliform test

296
Q

problems associated with directly releasing sanitary sewage into the environment (3)

A
  1. release of disease causing agents like bacteria and viruses
  2. eutrophication - increase plants in water due to adding N and P
  3. Hypoxia - microbes in water decompose sewage by aerobic respiration which decreases O2 in water and kills fish
297
Q

Sanitary Sewage Disposal Options (5)

A
  1. Ocean dumping - very common in developing countries, NFLD and Victoria, USA Ocean Dumping Band Act
  2. Incineration - after being dewatered waste can be burnt to generate electricity
  3. Landfilling
  4. Land Application
  5. Wastewater Treatment Facility
298
Q

St Johns NFLD - sanitary sewage practices

A

2009 opened first treatment plant, generally dump sewage in ocean, seen as “the bubble” which is the outlet pipe into the harbour

299
Q

Victoria BC - sanitary sewage practices

A

2006 opened first treatment plant, provincial gov’t said they have to stop dumping after finding sea bed contamination with heavy metals and hydrocarbons

300
Q

wastewater treatment facility main purpose

A

main purpose is to remove suspended solids and pathogens from water using physical, chemical, and biological treatment before it is released back to environment

301
Q

wastewater treatment facility steps (3)

A
  1. Primary: physical removal of large solid debris
  2. Secondary: biological treatment of wastewater
  3. Tertiary: chemical treatment of wastewater
302
Q

primary treatment is accomplished using (2)

A
  1. screening - large particles separated from water and raked from screens and sent to landfill
  2. gravitational settling - solids settle out to become primary sludge
303
Q

Secondary treatment utilizes _______ and is accomplished using what three techniques?

A

naturally occurring microbes

  1. trickling filters
  2. activated sludge process
  3. BPNR reactors
304
Q

secondary wastewater treatment process: trickling filter

A

wastewater filters through aerated rock beds containing microbes and bacteria that consume organic matter

305
Q

secondary wastewater treatment process: activated sludge process

A

wastewater aerated then enters tanks full of suspended particles with microbes - stay in there awhile while bacteria digest and eventually settle - secondary sludge

removes almost all organic matter, just N and P remain

306
Q

secondary wastewater treatment process: BPNR reactors

what/steps

A

biological P and N removal

steps.

  1. anaerobic tank (no dissolved oxygen) - optimum conditions for P removing bacteria
  2. anoxic tank (very low oxygen) - optimum conditions for N removing bacteria
  3. aerobic tank (high levels O2) - variety of bacterias to remove P, turn ammonia into nirate, and oxidate remaining organic matter
307
Q

secondary wastewater treatment process: BPNR reactors

advantages (2) and disadvantage (2)

A

Advantages

  1. green solution using naturally occurring bacteria instead of chemicals
  2. less sludge is generated

Disadvantages

  1. very expensive - need high level of skill and constant lab monitoring
  2. still need a standby chemical facility in case BPNR doesn’t meet req’s
308
Q

Tertiary wastewater Treatment process (what/how accomplish)

A

remove dissolved minerals (N,P), heavy metals, and pathogens using chemical, physical, and biological processes

309
Q

Tertiary wastewater Treatment process: possible treatment (5)

A
  1. chlorine - kills bacteria, but this is in exchange for messing with natural organisms at release point and carcinogenic links
  2. UV disinfection - doesn’t kill bacteria, sterilizes them
  3. BPNR - cheaper than chemical removal
  4. Chemical removal of P - very expensive using liquid alum solution
  5. Application as a soil fertilizer
310
Q

bonnybrook WWTP is the _____ BPNR in Canada as it treats __________ m3 of wastewater a day and it started in _____. Sludge is sent to _____ and then ______

A

Largest, 500 000, 1999.

Sludge is sent to sheppard landfill lagoon and then from there to CALGRO for further processing and applied to top few cm of agricultural lands.

311
Q

CALGRO (what/advantage)

A

biosolids to land program created by calgary and provincial government to reduce strains on landfills.

biosolids can replace chemical fertilizers and also condition soils.

312
Q

health concerns associated with biosolid application to agricultural land include (30

A
  1. odours
  2. pathogens
  3. heavy metals (low in calgary due to industrialization)
313
Q

regulations for biosolid applications (5)

from AEP guideline on the application of municipal wastewater sludges to agricultural land

A
  1. crop restrictions to protect against pathogens
    no - fields that grow root vegetables, fruit, tobacco, or dairy pasture
    yes - forage, seed crops, trees, commercial sod
  2. maximum application rates
    must have at least 3 years in between applications with 3 crops grown on land in those years and soil samples show N < 250 kg/hectare
  3. minimum N/P/metal ratios
    eliminate sludges high in metals from being applied to lands
  4. agricultural land pH
    pH > 6.5 to reduce heavy metal leeching
  5. seasonal restrictions on land application
    don’t want sludge to move in different places - no frozen, snow, or ice covered areas (in calgary this is late sept to april)
314
Q

septic tanks: two considerations to prevent contamination of drinking water

A
  1. h2o well upgradient of sewage tank

2. minimum distance between h2o well and sewage tank would be 25 to 35 meters

315
Q

two parts to a septic tank system are

A
  1. septic tank

2. drainage field

316
Q

septic tank (what, three parts)

A

wastewater flows into this underground tank whose purpose is to separate liquids from solids by anaerobic digestion

parts

  1. top: scum - grease/oils/LNAPLs, decomposed by bacteria
  2. middle: wastewater - pipe here to drainage field
  3. bottom: sludge - make sure to remove often enough that it doesn’t build up to wastewater pipe
317
Q

drainage field

A

wastewater that leaves a septic tank is delivered through pipes to a drainage field where it is spread by perforated pipes as aerobic digestion of waste occurs

318
Q

geologic considerations in siting a drainage field (4)

A
  1. soil type: k soils so that get good percolation of wastewater through soil
  2. depth to water table: preferably 5m below base because want lots of unsaturated zone with o2 to accommodate aerobic digestion
  3. depth to bedrock greater than 1.2m
  4. topography: surface slop <15*, shallow enough that wastewater doesnt run off site
319
Q

septic tank: evolution of the waste stream

  1. anaerobic digestion of organics
  2. aerobic digestion of organics
  3. anaerobic denitrification
A
  1. anaerobic digestion of organics
    septic tank
    produce CO2, CH4, NH4
  2. aerobic digestion of organics
    drainage field
    organic matter oxidized to CO2, NH4 becomes nitrate and H+
  3. anaerobic denitrification
    rare
    nitrate reduced to nitrogen gas
320
Q

why add limestone to drainage fields

A

NH4 oxidized to NO3 and H+, this decrease the pH of soil so you can buffer it with limestone

321
Q

contaminants associated with septic systems

  1. septic tank
  2. drainage field
A
  1. septic tank: CO2, CH4, NH4, trace metals, pathogenic bacteria
  2. drainage field CO2, NO3, Ca
322
Q

septic aerobic spray systems (4)

A
  1. Tank 1 - solids settle out, liquids to 2nd tank
  2. Tank 2 - air pumped into tank to promote aerobic decomposition (methane to carbon dioxide, ammonia to nitrate)
  3. Tank 3 - water treated with chlorine to kill bacteria
  4. Sprinkler System - discharge water onto land surface
323
Q

ideal waste management hierarchy (6)

A
  1. source reduction
  2. waste minimization
  3. reuse
  4. recycle
  5. treatment and energy recovery
  6. disposal
324
Q

ways to employ source reduction (3)

A
  1. changing industrial processes to decrease waste generation during manufacturing processes
  2. use less packing on products
  3. building more durable products
325
Q

example of waste minimization using sour gas

A

sour gas -> H2S removal (waste) -> S(s) -> solid made into products like H2SO4 fertilizer

326
Q

example of treatment and energy recovery using methane

A

CH4 from landfilled transferred to energy

327
Q

dispoasl options (2)

A
  1. landfill

2. deep well injection

328
Q

over the past 30 years, alberta investment in waste management has been predominantly in ______. Alberta now needs to focus on ____ ________.

A

disposal

waste minimization

329
Q

The key focus of alberta waste management plan is ______ ______ of ____, ____, ____, and ______

A

environmental protection of water, land/soil, humand health, and air

330
Q

alberta waste management system has been divided into 5 branches based on economic sector (sector + % recovered)

A
  1. agriculture (90%)
  2. forestry (65%)
  3. oil and gas (40%)
  4. residential waste (25%)
  5. commcericial (20%)
331
Q

municipal waste is subdivided into ____ and ____ waste

A

residential and non-residential

332
Q

residential waste

A

any waste produced by individuals and households

333
Q

non-residential waste examples (5)

A
  1. construction
  2. renovations
  3. demolition
  4. commercial
  5. institutional
334
Q

calgary’s recycling goal

A

80/20 by 2020

by 2020 want only 20% of municipal solid waste going to landfill and 80% recycled

335
Q

why recycle? (4)

A
  1. save landfill space
  2. conserve energy
  3. save natural resources
  4. job creation
336
Q

for recycling, calgary’s waste can be divided into 12 programs/waste streams

A
  1. blue cart
  2. green cart
  3. black cart
  4. bottle depot
  5. household hazardous waste
  6. used motor oil
  7. tires
  8. electronics
  9. scrap metal
  10. paints
  11. calgro (sewage)
  12. home appliances
337
Q

what are the types of ways calgarians get their wastes into the waste programs?

A
  1. curbside pickup (garbage trucks)
  2. municipal round ups
  3. throw n go @ landfill
  4. year round drop locations: bins in mall parking lots, bottle depots, shops, firehalls
  5. seasonal drop locations - like christmas trees
  6. recycling business
  7. stay at home - like compost
338
Q

MRF

A

materials recycling facility

339
Q

Blue cart: resident access _______. Throw all recyclables in __________. Recyclables are then sorted at ____ and divided into four categories.

A

curbside pickup, throw all recyclables in a single bin

sent to MRF

divided into plastic, glass, metal and paper

340
Q

MRF ____ and _____ sorts material that enter facility at a pace of _____ /hour

A

manually and mechanically pace of 40 tonnes/hour

341
Q

MRF general process

A
  1. manual removal of unwanted materials like trash, dangerous, and oversized items
  2. sorting and transport recyclables
  3. after sorting materials are bailed
  4. bailed materials transported to recycling facilities
  5. new products created from recycled materials
342
Q

how does MRF sor

  1. Ferrous Cans
  2. Non ferrous cans
  3. Plastics
  4. Cardboard
A
  1. Ferrous Cans - magnets
  2. Non ferrous cans - eddy currents
  3. Plastics - optical scanners
  4. Cardboard - disc screens
343
Q

what new products are created from these recycled materials

  1. pte plastics
  2. al cans
  3. steel and bimetal containers
  4. clear glass
  5. colored glass
A
  1. pte plastics - carpets, autoparts, tennis balls, polyester clothing, plastic benches
  2. al cans - more Al cans
  3. steel and bimetal containers - rebar
  4. clear glass - crushed into tiny spheres called cullet, used for road marking paint
  5. colored glass - glassphalt, fibreglass
344
Q

____ is the world’s biggest importer of recycled materials

Took ____ of north american recyclables, in calgary _____ mixed plastics and _____ mixed paper

A

China.

NA: 2/3
Calgary: 50% mixed plastics, 100% mixed paper

345
Q

In ________ China placed a recycling ban on _____ and ______. The reason was ___________. Now require that contaminants levels less than ____%.

A

January 2018

on certain plastic and paper products

reason was that material were not sorted properly and they ended up getting lots of garbage mixed in

<0.5%

346
Q

Wish-cycling and what this is called by MRF

A

not sure if something is recyclable but hoping that is is and throwing it in the bin

MRF - ‘overachievers’

347
Q

How to avoid wishcycling and know where waste goes (3)

A
  1. calgary website
  2. 311
  3. if in doubt, throw it out
348
Q

options for plastic disposal (4)

A
  1. most calgary plastics have found homes in other north american markets except for PETE 1
  2. stock piling until able to find another market - PETE 1 stored at sheppard landfill
  3. look at markets abroad like thailand, indonesia, india
  4. EPR model in BC
349
Q

EPR model in BC: Works on theory of ________ ______ _______. This is cradle to grave - manufactures must take ______ and ______ responsibility for products by incurring ______ and ________ of recycling. This is an example of ________ _______. Bonus _____ _________

A
  • Extended producer responsibility
  • financial and environmental responsibility
  • cost and process of recycling
  • example of source reduction
  • bonus: taxpayers no longer have to pay for municipal recycling programs
350
Q

______ is the largest % of municipal solid waste in the blue cart program

A

paper

351
Q

it is _____ ____ to make recycled papers then to use ____ _______

A

less expensive, virgin materials

352
Q

_____ is the least troublesome blue cart stream to manage because it is _____

A

glass, inert

353
Q

Process of glass recycling (2)

A
  1. recycled

2. separated into colored and clear glass

354
Q

metal recycling is separated into two stream

A

ferrous and non ferrous materials

355
Q

common metals that are recycled (6)

A

Al, Au, Ag, Fe, Zn, Steel

356
Q

what is Al called in recyling land

A

the cash cow

357
Q

AB was the first in North america to have an _______ recycling program in _____

A

electronics, 2004

358
Q

electronic recycling resident access

A

year round drop locations

359
Q

food and yard waste is subdivided into four major streams

A
  1. green cart
  2. christmas trees
  3. backyard composting
  4. grass cycling
360
Q

three resident access points for christmas tree recycling

A
  1. seasonal drop locations in january
  2. green cart
  3. curbside pickup
361
Q

christmas tress are turned into either _____ or _______

A

mulch, compost

362
Q

grass cycling resident access

A

stay at home

363
Q

benefits of grass cycling (4)

A
  1. saves money - diverted waste from green cart
  2. free fertilizer
  3. helps stop lawn evaporation so water less
  4. no raking
364
Q

Difference between compost and mulch

  1. degradation of organic material
  2. soil mixing
  3. use
A
  1. degradation of organic material - compost is full while mulch is just smaller pieces of the original
  2. soil mixing - compost is mixed into soil and mulch is layed on top of soil
  3. use - compost is fertilizer and mulch is good for moisture retention, weed control, and aesthetics
365
Q

city subsidized back yard composting resident access

A

stay at home

366
Q

why compost (3)

A
  1. free fertilizer
  2. less waste into landfill extends landfill life
  3. improve soil quality by breaking up clays
367
Q

basic requirements for composting (5)

A
  1. organic matter
  2. air
  3. water
  4. soil microbes
  5. time
368
Q

organic matter can be broken into (2)

A
  1. greens - N-rich - fruit and veg scraps

2. browns - C-rich - dry grass clippings and brown leaves

369
Q

compost layers from top to bottom (5)

A
  1. soil
  2. brown
  3. green
  4. soil
  5. layered twigs or branches for aeration and drainage
370
Q

advantage of the green cart program

A

diverts food and yard waste from landfill

371
Q

more than ___% of waste going to landfills is organics

A

50%

372
Q

green cart program pilot began in ______ in __ communities that saw a ____% drop in garbage. This was approved to move forward in _____

A

2002, 4, 40%

2014

373
Q

green cart program was launched in ______ to ________

A

2017 single family homes

374
Q

green cart program resident access

A

curbside pickup

375
Q

compost restrictions

  1. small items/health hazards
  2. lumber
  3. christmas trees and branches
A
  1. small items/health hazards - must be collected or contained in a compostable or paper bag
  2. lumber- not treated, size restricted, no nails, and not painted
  3. christmas trees and branches - size <15cm diameter, <1.25 m length
376
Q

Calgary composting facility is located at ______ and is the ______ in canada

A

sheppard landfill, largest

377
Q

Calgary composting facility produces high quality compost from (2)

A
  1. food and yard waste from green cart

2. dewatered biosolids from wwtp

378
Q

To turn organic waste in high quality compost at calgary composting facility takes ____ days at about ________*C

A

about 60 days at about 65 - 70 *C

379
Q

who gets finished compost from calgary composting facility? (2)

A
  1. calgary communities get it for free

2. companies pay

380
Q

Tires are collected at ______ to be sent to a _______________ and then sorted into two streams ______ and _____

A

thrown n go at a landfill or dealership

registered scrap tire processor

metal, rubber

381
Q

rubber from tires can be turned into (5)

A
  1. playground surfaces
  2. paving
  3. landfill drainage liners
  4. trash cans
  5. fuel in power plants
382
Q

___ to ____% of paint sold in alberta ends up as waste

A

5 to 10 %

383
Q

All paint is recyclable but there are coments on

  1. oil based paints
  2. older paints
  3. aerosol paints
A
  1. oil based paints - could be combustible
  2. older paints - lead and mercury
  3. aerosol paints - explosive
384
Q

Paint contained are collected at _______ and sent to a ________ and then separated into three streams ____, ____, and _______

A

Year round drop locations like the fire department

registered processor

paints, containers, haardous waste

385
Q

used motor oil resident access (3)

A
  1. year round drop locations like a fire station
  2. recycling centre
  3. throw n go
386
Q

scrap metal resident access is at _______ and is separated into _____ and _______

A

scrap metal dealers -> recycling businesses

ferrous and non ferrous

387
Q

home appliances resident access

A

throw and go costs money

388
Q

household hazardous waste can be sorted by four categories

A
  1. corrosive
  2. flammable
  3. explosive/reactive
  4. poisonous/toxic
389
Q

household hazardous waste resident access is at ______ and ________ , then disposal is at _________ and about _____ is recyclable

A

Year round drop off locations like the fire station, also throw and go

swan hills

2/3

390
Q

black cart resident access

A

curbside pickup

391
Q

bottle depots accepts (6)

A
  1. plastic drink containers
  2. Al cans
  3. bimetal cans
  4. glass bottles
  5. dairy containers
  6. polycoat containers
392
Q

how may times can refillable glass beer containers by refilled?

A

14x

393
Q

polycoat beverage containers are made of three basic components ____, ____, and _____ and to separate them back into these they are _______

A

paper, plastic, aluminum

hydropulping

EVT: Solid Waste (1 decks)

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