Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental Histology, Embryology, & Anatomy > Evolve Quiz Questions > Flashcards

Evolve Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is that part of the tooth’s anatomy where adjacent tooth crowns in same arch physically touch on each proximal surface?

a) cusp slope
b) contact area
c) height of contour
d) embrasure

A

B) CONTACT AREA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sextants result from a dental arch divided into _____ parts based on the relationship to the midline.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

A

B) 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many teeth are involved in creating each embrasure?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

A

A) 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is another term for the height of contour?

a) greatest depression
b) curve of Spee
c) crest of curvature
d) curve of Wilson

A

C) CREST OF CURVATURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is the system of tooth designation commonly used in orthodontics in which the oral cavity is divided into quadrants and each tooth is designated by a numeral 1 to 8?

a) Palmer Notation Method
b) D-A-Q-T System
c) Universal Tooth Designation System
d) International Standards Organization Designation System

A

A) PALMER NOTATION METHOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is considered the open contact that can exist between the permanent maxillary central incisors?

a) embrasure
b) height of contour
c) diastema
d) mesial drift

A

C) DIASTEMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is a developmental disturbance in permanent incisors caused by congenital syphilis, leaving them with screwdriver-shaped crowns?

a) Hutchinson’s incisors
b) peg laterals
c) dens in dente
d) partial anodontia

A

A) HUTCHINSON’S INCISORS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is the CORRECT term for the raised and rounded area on the cervical third of lingual surface on anterior teeth?

a) cusp
b) fluting
c) cingulum
d) marginal ridge

A

C) CINGULUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following are rounded enamel extensions of the incisal ridge as noted from either the labial or lingual views?

a) imbrication lines
b) mamelons
c) perikymata
d) diastema

A

B) MAMELONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following are considered regions of a tooth during development?

a) cusps
b) lobes
c) contacts
d) lobules

A

B) LOBES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is the complete tooth displacement from the socket due to extensive trauma?

a) exostosis
b) excytosis
c) avulsion
d) anodontia

A

C) AVULSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is a shallow, wide depression on the lingual surface of anterior teeth or on the occlusal table of posterior teeth?

a) fluting
b) furcation
c) fossa
d) foramen

A

C) FOSSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What part of the tooth is involved in dilacerations?

a) crown only
b) root(s) only
c) crown or root(s)
d) crown and root(s)

A

C) CROWN OR ROOT(S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is considered an area between two or more root branches before they divide from the root trunk?

a) crotch
b) furcation
c) fluting
d) fossa

A

B) FURCATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following groove is the MOST prominent developmental groove on posterior teeth, traveling mesiodistally to separate the occlusal table buccolingually?

a) marginal
b) triangular
c) central
d) cusp of Carabelli

A

C) CENTRAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following are the developmental spaces between primary teeth?

a) embrasures
b) primate spaces
c) vacuoles
d) leeway spaces

A

B) PRIMATE SPACES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is the partial dislocation of both temporomandibular joints?

a) avulsion
b) subluxation
c) xerostomia
d) morphogenesis

A

B) SUBLUXATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is the sharp ridge posterior to the articular fossa?

a) postglenoid process
b) plica fimbriata
c) articular eminence
d) articulating surface of the condyle

A

A) POSTGLENOID PROCESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What divides the synovial cavities into an upper and a lower compartment?

a) disc
b) fluid
c) fossa
d) capsule

A

A) DISC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is considered the parafunctional habit of grinding the teeth?

a) bracing
b) clenching
c) attrition
d) bruxism

A

D) BRUXISM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is considered NOT a terminal plane relationship because the primary mandibular 2nd molar is distal to the maxillary 2nd molar?

a) mesial step
b) distal step
c) primate space
d) canine rise

A

B: DISTAL STEP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is a malocclusion in which the mandibular tooth/teeth are placed facially to the maxillary teeth?

a) end-to-end bite
b) open bite
c) overbite
d) crossbite

A

D) CROSSBITE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following spaces is created when primary molars are shed to make room for the smaller mesiodistal permanent premolars?

a) primate space
b) leeway space
c) diastema
d) embrasure

A

B) LEEWAY SPACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is the space between the dental arches when the mandible is at rest?

a) primate space
b) leeway space
c) interocclusal clearance
d) embrasure

A

C) INTEROCCLUSAL CLEARANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is the normal physiologic position of the tongue, lips, and mandible when NOT in the function of chewing, swallowing, or speech?

a) curve of Spee
b) resting posture
c) interocclusal clearance
d) bracing

A

C) INTEROCCLUSAL CLEARANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is the prenatal diagnostic procedure that samples amniotic fluid?

a) amelogenesis
b) amniocentesis
c) apposition
d) ankyloglossia

A

B) AMNIOCENTESIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A blastocyst is a structure formed during prenatal development consisting of _____ cells and an inner mass of cells that finally develop into the embryo.

a) hypoblast
b) odontoblast
c) cementoblast
d) trophoblast

A

D) TROPHOBLAST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Congenital malformations are birth defects or developmental problems that are evident:

a) upon conception
b) at birth
c) before birth
d) after puberty

A

B) AT BIRTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

An ectopic pregnancy has implantation directly occurring:

a) outside the uterus
b) inside the blastocyst
c) inside the placenta
d) outside the ectomesenchyme

A

A) OUTSIDE THE UTERUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following structures is directly derived from the implanted blastocyst?

a) fetus
b) ovum
c) sperm
d) embryo

A

D) EMBRYO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of histodifferentiation?

a) development of different tissues
b) development of different cell types
c) process of the development of specific tissue morphology
d) development of a differing form that will create a specific structure

A

A) DEVELOPMENT OF DIFFERENT TISSUES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is the posterior portion of the future digestive tract?

a) foregut
b) hindgut
c) caudal end
d) cephalic end

A

B) HINDGUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The hypoblast layer is also considered part of which of the following structures?

a) superior layer of the bilaminar disc
b) inferior layer of the bilaminar disc
c) layer of peripheral blastocyst cells
d) inner mass of embryonic cells

A

B) INFERIOR LAYER OF THE BILAMINAR DISC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is the primitive streak located within the embryonic disc?

a) caudal end
b) middle
c) cephalic end
d) foregut

A

B) MIDDLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is the BEST term used for the embryonic layer located between the ectoderm and the endoderm?

a) mesenchyme
b) ectomesenchyme
c) mesoderm
d) mesiodens

A

C) MESODERM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following can be considered the process of reproductive cell production that ensures the CORRECT number of chromosomes?

a) meiosis
b) mitosis
c) metaphase
d) morphodifferentiation

A

A) MEIOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following is a viral infection that can serve as a teratogen and thus is transmitted by way of placenta to embryo from the pregnant woman?

a) syphilis
b) tetracycline
c) rubella
d) down syndrome

A

C) RUBELLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Somites are paired cuboidal aggregates of cells directly differentiated from the:

a) ectoderm
b) mesoderm
c) ovum
d) placenta

A

B) MESODERM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is the BEST term used for a fertilized egg from the union of ovum and sperm?

a) embryo
b) zygote
c) blastocyst
d) fetus

A

B) ZYGOTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of stain is tetracycline stain considered?

a) temporary
b) intrinsic
c) cervical
d) topical

A

C) INTRINSIC

[Tetracycline stain is considered an intrinsic tooth stain occurring from ingestion of antibiotic tetracycline during tooth development.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The branchial apparatus includes the branchial arches, the branchial grooves and membranes, and the:

a) body of the tongue
b) pharyngeal tonsils
c) pharyngeal pouches
d) buccal development depression

A

C) PHARYNGEAL POUCHES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The intermaxillary segment is direct growth from which of the following paired processes on the inside of the stomodeum?

a) lateral nasal
b) medial nasal
c) maxillary
d) mandibular

A

B) MEDIAL NASAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following primitive structures in the embryo is the stomodeum considered to be forming in the future?

a) throat
b) digestive tract
c) mouth
d) nasal cavity

A

C) MOUTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The hyoid arch is which numbered branchial arch that is located inferior to mandibular arch in the embryo?

a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th

A

B) 2nd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cervical cysts are developed when which of the following structures do not become obliterated?

a) nasal pits
b) mental symphysis
c) pharyngeal pouches
d) branchial grooves

A

D) BRANCHIAL GROOVES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which of the following structure’s formation allows for the disappearance of Meckel’s cartilage?

a) maxilla
b) Reichert’s cartilage
c) hyoid bone
d) mandible

A

D) MANDIBLE

[Meckel’s cartilage is the cartilage that forms within each side of the mandibular arch that disappears as the bony mandible is formed.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Reichert’s cartilage in the 2nd branchial arch eventually disappears, although parts of it form a(an):

a) middle ear bone
b) portion of the maxilla
c) angle of the mandible
d) most of thyroid cartilage

A

A) MIDDLE EAR BONE

[Reichert’s cartilage is the cartilage in the 2nd branchial arch that eventually disappears, although parts of it form a middle ear bone & other bones.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following is considered the rudimentary embryonic branchial arch?

a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 5th

A

D) 5th

[The 5th branchial arch is the rudimentary embryonic branchial arch that is sometimes absent or included with the 4th branchial arch.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which branchial arch in the embryo fuses with the 4th branchial arch?

a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 5th
d) 6th

A

D) 6th

[The 6th branchial arch in the embryo fuses with the 4th branchial arch & then participates in the formation of most of the laryngeal cartilages.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where are the pharyngeal pouches located during development?

a) between the branchial arches
b) superior to the maxilla
c) between the maxilla and mandible
d) surrounding the future nasal cavity

A

A) BETWEEN THE BRANCHIAL ARCHES

[The pharyngeal pouches are four pairs of evaginations lining the pharynx between the branchial arches.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many pharyngeal pouches are present during development?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

A

D) 4

[The pharyngeal pouches are four pairs of evaginations lining the pharynx between the branchial arches.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How many pairs of branchial arches are the MOST possible during development?

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

A

D) 6

[It is possible to have, at the most, 6 branchial arches, which are stacked bilateral swellings of tissue that appear inferior to stomodeum, and include the mandibular arch.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following is considered the 1st branchial arch?

a) nasal
b) hyoid
c) maxilla
d) mandibular

A

D) MANDIBULAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which branchial arch is responsible for portions of the hyoid bone?

a) 1st
b) 3rd
c) 4th
d) 6th

A

B) 3rd

[The 3rd branchial arch in the embryo is responsible for the formation of portions of the hyoid bone.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Where is the frontonasal process located during development?

a) surrounding the primitive streak
b) caudal end of the embryo
c) cephalic end of the embryo
d) within the primitive pharynx

A

C) CEPHALIC END OF THE EMBRYO

[The frontonasal process is a prominence in the upper facial area at the cephalic end of the embryo.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Where is the tuberculum impar located in the embryo during development?

a) midline
b) lateral sides
c) cephalic end
d) caudal end

A

A) MIDLINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

From which branchial arches does the epiglottic swelling develop?

a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th

A

D) 4th

[The epiglottic swelling develops from 4th branchial arches marking development of future epiglottis.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The copula is formed from the 3rd & 4th branchial arches that later overgrows the _____ arches to form tongue base.

a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th

A

B) 2nd

[The copula is a posterior swelling formed from the 3rd & 4th branchial arches that later overgrows the 2nd arches to form tongue base.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following form on each side of the tuberculum impar during the development of the tongue?

a) copula
b) Meckel’s cartilage
c) epiglottic swelling
d) lateral lingual swellings

A

D) LATERAL LINGUAL SWELLINGS

[The lateral lingual swellings are the portions of the developing tongue that form on each side of the tuberculum impair.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following forms the tongue base during development?

a) copula
b) tuberculum impar
c) epiglottic swelling
d) lateral lingual swellings

A

A) COPULA

[The copula is a posterior swelling formed from the 3rd & 4th branchial arches that overgrows the 2nd arches to form tongue base.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What part of the enamel organ in directly responsible for root development?

a) outer enamel epithelium
b) cervical loop
c) inner enamel epithelium
d) stellate reticulum

A

B) CERVICAL LOOP

[The cervical loop is the most cervical portion of enamel organ directly responsible for root development.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following tooth tissues creates the union of the root of two or more teeth with concrescence?

a) dentin
b) enamel
c) cementum
d) periodontal ligament

A

C) CEMENTUM

[Concrescence is the union of the root structure of two or more teeth through the cementum only.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Dens in dente is a developmental disturbance caused by invagination of the enamel organ into the:

a) cervical loop
b) dental papilla
c) dental sac
d) periodontal ligament

A

B) DENTAL PAPILLA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of the following cell types is known to directly influence the ectomesenchyme?

a) neural crest
b) ameloblasts
c) odontoblasts
d) inner enamel epithelium

A

A) NEURAL CREST CELLS

[Ectomesenchyme is mesenchyme fromt eh ectoderm that is influenced by neural crest cells.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How many roots are present with the developmental disturbance of gemination if it involves two anterior teeth?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

A

B) 1

[Gemination is a developmental disturbance with single tooth germ trying to divid and forming a large, single-rooted tooth, even if it involves anterior teeth.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following permanent teeth are considered nonsuccedaneous?

a) incisors
b) canines
c) premolars
d) molars

A

D) MOLARS

[Nonsuccedaneous teeth are permanent teeth without primary predecessors, namely, the molars.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which of the following is a mythological creature that takes children’s shed primary teeth from under the pillow & leaves a sum of cash during the night?

a) tooth germ
b) tooth fairy
c) tissue fluid
d) tonsillar tissue

A

B) TOOTH FAIRY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which of the following can be described as the star-shaped cell layer between the outer & inner enamel epithelium of the enamel organ?

a) inner enamel epithelium
b) stellate reticulum
c) stratum intermedium
d) outer enamel epithelium

A

B) STELLATE RETICULUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following can be described as the MOST compressed layer between the outer & inner enamel epithelium of the enamel organ?

a) inner enamel epithelium
b) stellate reticulum
c) stratum intermedium
d) outer enamel epithelium

A

C) STRATUM INTERMEDIUM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Where are the tubercles located if present on a posterior tooth?

a) occlusal table
b) cingulum
c) incisal edge
d) cusp tip

A

A) OCCLUSAL TABLE

[Tubercles are accessory cusps on the cingulum of anteriors or occlusal tables of posterior teeth.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following is compressed during tooth development to form the reduced enamel epithelium?

a) dental papilla
b) enamel organ
c) dental sac
d) marginal gingival tissues

A

B) ENAMEL ORGAN

[The reduced enamel epithelium consists of layers of flattened cells overlying enamel surface from the compressed enamel organ.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following cell types have Tomes’ process as the secretory surface?

a) neural crest cells
b) ameloblasts
c) odontoblasts
d) inner enamel epithelium

A

B) AMELOBLASTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The successional dental lamina is an extension of dental _____ into ectomesenchyme forming the succedaneous permanent teeth.

a) papilla
b) sac
c) lamina
d) arch

A

C) LAMINA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which of the following is considered the 3rd stage of tooth development?

a) cap stage
b) initiation stage
c) bell stage
d) bud stage

A

A) CAP STAGE

[The cap stage is the 3rd stage of tooth development & is marked by the dental lamina growing into a cap stage.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following is a residue on newly erupted teeth that may later become extrinsically stained?

a) neural crest cells
b) inner cells of the dental papilla
c) Nasmyth’s membrane
d) cloacal membrane

A

C) NASMYTH’S MEMBRANE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The angle of the mandible is a thickened area on the posterior-inferior border of the:

a) ramus
b) ala
c) notch
d) condyle

A

A) RAMUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What part of the mandibular condyle within the temporomandibular joint is an articulating surface?

a) angle
b) head
c) notch
d) process

A

B) HEAD

[The articulating surface of the condyle is the head of mandibular condyle within the temporomandibular joint.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The ala is a winglike cartilaginous structure that bounds the nares how?

a) medially
b) laterall
c) anteriorly
d) posteriorly

A

B) LATERALLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What type of curve does the coronoid notch as the main portion of the anterior border form?

a) forward
b) backward
c) lateral
d) medial

A

A) FORWARD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What part of the neck is the hyoid bone located?

a) anterior midline
b) posterior midline
c) beneath thyroid gland
d) beneath parathyroid gland

A

A) ANTERIOR MIDLINE

[The hyoid bone is in the anterior midline of the neck with many muscle attachments.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the term used for a corner of the mouth where the upper & lower lips meet?

a) philtrum
b) labial commissure
c) vermillion border
d) labial mucosa

A

B) LABIAL COMMISSURE

82
Q

The lymph nodes are filtering bodies grouped in clusters along the connecting lymphatic vessels that are shaped like:

a) rods
b) eggs
c) beans
d) grapes

A

C) BEANS

83
Q

The mandibular symphysis is a midline area of the mandible where the bone formed by fusing two:

a) maxillary processes
b) mandibular processes
c) medial nasal processes
d) lateral nasal processes

A

B) MANDIBULAR PROCESSES

84
Q

In which part of the head or neck is the sternocleidomastoid muscle located?

a) forehead
b) cheek
c) chin
d) neck

A

D) NECK

85
Q

What portion of the nose is separated by the nasal septum?

a) alae
b) bridge
c) root
d) nares

A

D) NARES

86
Q

Which of the following are endocrine glands?

a) parathyroid
b) parotid
c) submandibular
d) sublingual

A

A) PARATHYROID

[The parathyroid glans are endocrine glands along the posterior aspects of the thyroid glands.]

87
Q

What type of groove is the philtrum on midline of the upper lip?

a) horizontal
b) oblique
c) vertical
d) curved

A

C) VERTICAL

88
Q

The temporomandibular joint is a joint where the temporal bone of the skull articulates with the:

a) maxilla
b) mandible
c) hyoid
d) occipital

A

B) MANDIBLE

89
Q

The thyroid cartilage is a midline prominence of which of the following structures?

a) thyroid
b) larynx
c) hyoid
d) parathyroid

A

B) LARYNX

90
Q

Where is the tubercle located on the lips?

a) upper
b) lower
c) corner
d) both upper & lower

A

A) UPPER

91
Q

Which of the following is BEST used to describe the appearance of the vermillion zone as compared to the surrounding skin?

a) lighter in appearance
b) same color basis
c) darker in appearance
d) alternating dark & light areas

A

C) DARKER IN APPEARANCE

92
Q

The mandibular notch is a depression between coronoid process and the:

a) ramus
b) fovea
c) condyle
d) head

A

C) CONDYLE

93
Q

The vertical dimension of the face divides the face into how many horizontal parts?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

A

B) 3

94
Q

At the anterior border of the ramus is a thin, sharp margin that terminates in the:

a) coronoid process
b) coronoid notch
c) mandibular condyle
d) mandibular notch

A

A) CORONOID PROCESS

95
Q

Which of the following bones controls the position of the base of the tongue?

a) mandible
b) hyoid
c) thyroid cartilage
d) maxilla

A

B) HYOID

96
Q

Which of the following is considered the “voice box”?

a) thyroid cartilage
b) hyoid bone
c) esophagus
d) larynx

A

D) LARYNX

[The larynx is the voice box in the midline of neck composed of cartilages.]

97
Q

The fauces opens posteriorly from the oral cavity proper into which structures?

a) larynx
b) pharynx
c) nasal cavity
d) orbit

A

B) PHARYNX

98
Q

Which of the following can be used to describe the foramen cecum?

a) posterior portion of the palatal region in the oral cavity
b) small pit-like depression located where sulcus terminals points backward toward pharynx
c) root of multi-rooted teeth where the root originates from the crown
d) groove located posteriorly on the dorsal tongue surface

A

B) SMALL PIT-LIKE DEPRESSION LOCATED WHERE SULCUS TERMINALIS POINTS BACKWARD TOWARD PHARYNX

99
Q

The mucogingival junction is a line of demarcation between the attached gingiva and the:

a) buccal mucosa
b) alveolar mucosa
c) gingival sulcus
d) marginal gingiva

A

B) ALVEOLAR MUCOSA

100
Q

Where does the pterygomandibular fold extend from to attach to the mandible?

a) hard palate only
b) hard & soft palates
c) soft palate only
d) neither soft or hard palates

A

B) HARD & SOFT PALATES

101
Q

Which of the following is considered the 3rd phase of mitosis with the separation of two chromatids of each chromosome and migration?

a) anaphase
b) interphase
c) metaphase
d) prophase

A

A) ANAPHASE

102
Q

During what phase of mitosis does the chromatin condense into chromosomes?

a) anaphase
b) interphase
c) metaphase
d) prophase

A

D) PROPHASE

103
Q

Which of the following is the chief nucleoprotein in the non-dividing nucleoplasm?

a) chromatids
b) chromatin
c) chromosomes
d) centromere

A

B) CHROMATIN

104
Q

How many filamentous daughter chromosomes are joined at a centromere of the chromatids during cell division?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

A

A) 2

105
Q

Which of the following are considered separate concentrations of chromatin in a dividing nucleus of a cell?

a) chromatids
b) chromatin
c) chromosomes
d) centromere

A

C) CHROMOSOMES

106
Q

Which of the following is an organelle that is associated with centrioles?

a) centromere
b) chromosome
c) centrosome
d) chromatid

A

C) CENTROSOME

107
Q

Where is the cytoplasm of the cell located?

a) within the cell membrane
b) outside the cell membrane
c) between a group of cells
d) surrounding a group of cells

A

A) WITHIN THE CELL MEMBRANE

[The cytoplasm of the cell is the fluid part contained within the cell membrane.]

108
Q

What types of endoplasmic reticulum can be found in the cell?

a) filamentous or tubular
b) rough or smooth
c) circular or oval
d) dark or light

A

B) ROUGH OR SMOOTH

[The endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane-bound organelle with channels that is either rough or smooth.]

109
Q

Which of the following forms the intercellular junctions between cells?

a) hemidesmosome
b) desmosome
c) cytoplasm
d) cell membrane

A

B) DESMOSOME

110
Q

A hemidesmosome forms the type of intercellular junction involving an attachment of a cell to nearby:

a) cell surface
b) noncellular surface
c) chromosome
d) organelle

A

B) NONCELLULAR SURFACE

111
Q

Which of the following are metabolically inert substances or transient structures within the cell?

a) organelles
b) inclusions
c) chromosomes
d) lysosomes

A

B) INCLUSIONS

112
Q

Which of the following would be considered the CORRECT definition of lysosomes?

a) organelles of the cell functioning in both intracellular & extracellular digestion
b) 2nd most common WBC in the blood involved in the immune response
c) smaller inner parts of glands within the body, such as with salivary glands
d) masses of lymphocytes in a lymph node that work within the immune system

A

A) ORGANELLES OF THE CELL FUNCTIONING IN BOTH INTRACELLULAR & EXTRACELLULAR DIGESTION

113
Q

Which of the following organelles of the cell are associated with manufacture of energy for the cell?

a) lysosomes
b) mitochondria
c) Golgi complex
d) inclusions

A

B) MITOCHONDRIA

114
Q

Tonofilaments are intermediate filaments that have a major role in _____ junctions.

a) tooth
b) intercellular
c) intracellular
d) tissue

A

B) INTERCELLULAR

115
Q

Ribosomes are organelles of the cell that are associated with what type of production?

a) carbohydrate
b) vitamin
c) fat
d) protein

A

D) PROTEIN

[Ribosomes are organelles of the cell that are associated with protein production.]

116
Q

Which of the following processes involves the engulfing and then digesting of solid waste or foreign material by the cell?

a) pinocytosis
b) endocytosis
c) phagocytosis
d) exocytosis

A

C) PHAGOCYTOSIS

117
Q

Which of the following is considered a CORRECT description of vacuoles?

a) intermediate filaments with major role in intercellular junctions
b) spaces or cavities within the cytoplasm
c) metabolically inert substances or transient structures
d) semifluid part within the nucleus

A

B) SPACES OR CAVITIES WITHIN THE CYTOPLASM

118
Q

Which of the following is the rounded nuclear organelle that is often centrally placed?

a) nucleolus
b) nucleoplasm
c) pore
d) envelope

A

A) NUCLEOLUS

119
Q

Which of the following serves as an avenue of communication between the inner nucleoplasm & the outer cytoplasm?

a) nucleolus
b) nucleoplasm
c) pore
d) envelope

A

C) PORE

120
Q

Which organelle of the cell is involved in protein segregation, packaging, and transport?

a) endoplasmic reticulum
b) Golgi complex
c) mitochondria
d) ribosome

A

B) GOLGI COMPLEX

121
Q

Which of the following WBCs contains granules of histamine that can be active in a hypersensitivity reactions?

a) macrophage
b) monocyte
c) basophil
d) lymphocyte

A

C) BASOPHIL

122
Q

Which of the following cells initially produces the cartilage tissue?

a) chrondrocyte
b) chondroblast
c) chromosome
d) chromatid

A

B) CHONDROBLAST

123
Q

Which of the following is considered the connective proper of the skin?

a) submucosa
b) dermis
c) hypodermis
d) lamina propria

A

B) DERMIS

124
Q

The eosinophil is the WBC involved in parasitic diseases since its primary function seems to be the phagocytosis of:

a) only antigens
b) only antibodies
c) immune complexes
d) natural killer cells

A

C) IMMUNE COMPLEXES

125
Q

What type of cell does the monocyte become after it migrates from the blood into the tissues?

a) eosinophil
b) natural killer cells
c) lysosome
d) macrophage

A

D) MACROPHAGE

126
Q

An immunogen is also considered which of the folllowing?

a) immunoglobulin
b) antibody
c) antigen
d) immune complex

A

C) ANTIGEN

[An immunogen is also an antigen that is treated as foreign by the body so as to possible trigger an immune response.]

127
Q

Which of the following cells synthesizes intercellular substance as well as protein fibers?

a) chrondroblast
b) fibroblast
c) macrophage
d) monocyte

A

B) FIBROBLAST

128
Q

Which of the following is the immature connective tissue formed during the initial repair of the skin or oral mucosa?

a) dermis
b) submucosa
c) granulation tissue
d) hypodermis

A

C) GRANULATION TISSUE

129
Q

Which of the following tissues can have a lacuna present besides bone?

a) blood
b) cartilage
c) muscle
d) connective tissue proper

A

B) CARTILAGE

[A lacuna is the small space that surrounds either the chondrocyte or the osteocyte within the cartilage matrix or bone, respectively.]

130
Q

Which of the following is considered the functional cellular component of the nervous system?

a) nerve
b) neural tube
c) neuron
d) neuroectoderm

A

C) NEURON

131
Q

Which of the following is an intermediate protein filament found in calloused epithelial tissues consisting of opaque waterproof substance?

a) collagen
b) keratin
c) inclusion
d) elastic fibers

A

B) KERATIN

132
Q

Where is the lamina propria located?

a) connective proper region of oral mucosa
b) alveolar bone proper of the jaws
c) within closely apposed sheets of bone tissue in compact bone
d) small space that surrounds the chrondrocytes or osteocytes

A

A) CONNECTIVE PROPER REGION OF ORAL MUCOSA

133
Q

Which of the following is the tissue deep to the oral mucosa that is made up of loose connective tissue?

a) dermis
b) keratin layer
c) hypodermis
d) submucosa

A

D) SUBMUCOSA

134
Q

Which of the following acts as a periosteum to the underlying bone?

a) keratin layer
b) basement membrane
c) basal lamina
d) mucoperiosteum

A

D) MUCOPERIOSTEUM

135
Q

Which of the following tongue lesions appears as red, then paler pink, and finally white patches on tongue body?

a) black hairy tongue
b) bifid tongue
c) geographic tongue
d) ankyloglossia with the tongue

A

C) GEOGRAPHIC TONGUE

136
Q

Which of the following mucosa is found on the dorsal & lateral surface of the tongue in the form of the lingual papillae?

a) buccal mucosa
b) labial mucosa
c) specialized mucosa
d) oral mucosa

A

C) SPECIALIZED MUCOSA

137
Q

Stippling is associated with which of the following?

a) cartilage
b) attached gingiva
c) buccal mucosa
d) lamina dura

A

B) ATTACHED GINGIVA

[Stippling is the small pinpoint depressions present on the surface of the attached gingiva.]

138
Q

What type of cell listed below has prominent granules in the cytoplasm that form a keratin chemical precursor?

a) osteoblasts
b) fibroblasts
c) epithelial cells
d) WBCs

A

C) EPITHELIAL CELLS

[Keratohyaline granules are prominent granules in the cytoplasm of epithelial cells that form a keratin chemical precursor.]

139
Q

Where is the capillary blood plexus located in the lamina propria of the oral mucosa?

a) osteoblasts
b) fibroblasts
c) epithelial cells
d) WBCs

A

C) EPITHELIAL CELLS

[The capillary blood plexus are capillaries located between the papillary layer & the dense layer of the lamina propria of the oral mucosa.]

140
Q

Which tissue listed below is CLOSELY associated with parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

a) marginal gingiva
b) attached gingiva
c) free gingival crest
d) junctional epithelium

A

B) ATTACHED GINGIVA

[Parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium is a keratinized epithelium associated with the masticatory mucosa of the attached gingiva.]

141
Q

Which of the following can be found separating the attached gingiva from the marginal gingiva in the oral cavity?

a) free gingival crest
b) free gingival groove
c) sulcular epithelium
d) junctional epithelium

A

B) FREE GINGIVAL GROOVE

142
Q

Which of the following is the CORRECT term used to describe the interdental gingiva apical to the contact area that assumes a non-visible concave form between the facial & lingual gingival surfaces?

a) col
b) canaliculi
c) free gingival crest
d) free gingival groove

A

A) COL

143
Q

The epithelial attachment is the device that attaches the junctional epithelium to the:

a) sulcular epithelium
b) tooth surface
c) free gingival crest
d) lamina propria of the attached gingiva

A

B) TOOTH SURFACE

144
Q

Which of the following is the CORRECT term used for the epithelium that is a deeper extension of the sulcular epithelium of the marginal gingiva?

a) pocket
b) sulcular
c) junctional
d) granulation

A

C) JUNCTIONAL

145
Q

Which of the following is the MOST superficial part of the marginal gingiva in a healthy situation?

a) sulcular epithelium
b) pocket epithelium
c) free gingival groove
d) free gingival crest

A

D) FREE GINGIVAL CREST

146
Q

Which of the following is the CORRECT term for an inferiorly placed margin of free gingival crest?

a) gingival hyperplasia
b) gingival sulcus
c) gingival recession
d) gingival tissue

A

C) GINGIVAL RECESSION

147
Q

Which part of the gingival tissue is MAINLY involved in gingival hyperplasia?

a) interproximal gingiva
b) free gingival groove
c) facial & lingual gingival tissue
d) free gingival crest

A

A) INTERPROXIMAL GINGIVA

[Gingival hyperplasia is the overgrowth of mainly the interproximal gingiva.]

148
Q

What structure does the gingival tissue cover in the oral cavity?

a) alveolar bone proper
b) alveolar process
c) apical tooth region
d) supporting bone

A

B) ALVEOLAR PROCESS

149
Q

Which of the following is considered part of the gingival tissue besides the marginal gingiva?

a) attached gingiva
b) labial mucosa
c) junctional epithelium
d) sulcular epithelium

A

A) ATTACHED GINGIVA

[The gingival tissue includes both the attached gingiva & marginal gingiva.]

150
Q

Where is the gingival crevicular fluid initially located?

a) free gingival groove
b) gingival sulcus
c) canaliculi of bone
d) internal basal lamina

A

B) GINGIVAL SULCUS

[The gingival crevicular fluid is the fluid in gingival sulcus.]

151
Q

Which of the following is the material in the follicles of the thyroid gland that is reserved for the production of thyroxine?

a) collagen
b) colloid
c) keratin
d) lysosome

A

B) COLLOID

152
Q

Which of the following is considered an enlarged thyroid gland?

a) goiter
b) hypercementosis
c) hyposalivation
d) generalized resorption

A

A) GOITER

153
Q

Which of the following structures has a germinal center?

a) join capsule
b) mitochondria
c) lymph node
d) nucleus

A

C) LYMPH NODE

[The germinal center is the center region of the lymphatic nodule of a lymph node.]

154
Q

In what part of the lymph node do the lymphocytes mature?

a) hilus
b) germinal center
c) lumen
d) efferent vessel

A

B) GERMINAL CENTER

[The germinal center is the center region of the lymphatic nodule of a lymph node where the lymphocytes mature.]

155
Q

By which of the following structures does the lymph flow into the lymph node?

a) afferent vessel
b) efferent vessel
c) canaliculi
d) lacuna

A

A) AFFERENT VESSEL

156
Q

Which of the following is the duct associated with the acinus, or terminal part, of a salivary gland?

a) excretory
b) intercalated
c) thyroglossal
d) striated

A

B) INTERCALATED

157
Q

Which of the following is the lesion resulting from the retention of saliva in the submandibular salivary gland?

a) mucocele
b) ranula
c) goiter
d) rubella

A

B) RANULA

158
Q

Which of the following terms describe dry mouth in the oral cavity of a patient?

a) nicotinic stomatitis
b) xerostomia
c) hyposalivation
d) retrognathic

A

B) XEROSTOMIA

159
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a major salivary gland?

a) parotid
b) submandibular
c) sublingual
d) von Ebner’s

A

D) VON EBNER’S

[The von Ebner’s salivary glands are serous minor salivary glands associated with the circumvallate lingual papillae.]

160
Q

Which of the following salivary glands ONLY secrete a serous secretory product?

a) submandibular
b) von Ebner’s
c) sublingual
d) parotid

A

B) VON EBNER’S

[The von Ebner’s salivary glands are serous minor salivary glands associated with the circumvallate lingual papillae.]

161
Q

Which of the following processes is BEST defined as the hard tooth tissue loss from tensile & compressive forces during tooth flexure?

a) erosion
b) caries
c) attrition
d) abfraction

A

D) ABFRACTION

162
Q

Attrition is the hard tooth tissue loss caused by the tooth-to-tooth contact during mastication or:

a) caries
b) parafunctional habits
c) interocclusal clearance
d) impaction

A

B) PARAFUNCTIONAL HABITS

163
Q

Which of the following is the crystalline structural unit of enamel?

a) rod
b) organ
c) tuft
d) spindle

A

A) ROD

164
Q

Which of the following processes directly involves bacteria?

a) erosion
b) caries
c) attrition
d) abfraction

A

B) CARIES

[Enamel caries is a carious lesion that involves bacteria invading through the enamel either by pits & grooves or through a smooth surface.]

165
Q

Which of the following are considered the incremental lines noted in mature enamel?

a) lines of Retizus
b) imbrication lines of von Ebner
c) intermembranous ossification
d) linguogingival groove

A

A) LINES OF RETIZUS

166
Q

Enamel caries is a carious lesion that involves the enamel either by pits & grooves or through a:

a) lamella
b) smooth surface
c) apical foramen
d) lacuna

A

B) SMOOTH SURFACE

167
Q

When does the neonatal line EXACTLY form in enamel?

a) during birth
b) after birth
c) after eruption
d) with aging

A

A) DURING BIRTH

[The neonatal line is an accentuated incremental line of Retzius in enamel or contour line of Owen in dentin that results from birth process.]

168
Q

Which of the following is considered an accentuated line of Retzius?

a) contour line of Owen
b) imbrication line of von Ebner
c) neonatal line
d) perikymata or imbrication line

A

C) NEONATAL LINE

[The neonatal line is an accentuated incremental line of Retzius in enamel or contour line of Owen in dentin that results from birth process.]

169
Q

In which of the following is the line of Retzius noted?

a) mature enamel
b) enamel matrix
c) enamel organ
d) enamel tuft

A

A) MATURE ENAMEL

170
Q

Which of the following are considered partially mineralized vertical sheets of enamel matrix?

a) lamellae
b) tufts
c) caries
d) pearl

A

A) LAMELLAE

171
Q

Where are the enamel spindles located?

a) near the dentinoenamel junction
b) near the cementoenamel junction
c) apical foramen region
d) pulpal chamber region

A

A) NEAR THE DENTINOENAMEL JUNCTION

[Enamel spindles are a microscopic feature present in mature enamel as short dentinal tubules near dentinoenamel junction.]

172
Q

Where are enamel tufts located?

a) near the dentinoenamel junction
b) near the cementoenamel junction
c) apical foramen region
d) pulpal chamber region

A

A) NEAR THE DENTINOENAMEL JUNCTION

[Enamel tufts are a microscopic feature in mature enamel of small dark brushes near the dentinoenamel junction.]

173
Q

Enamel dysplasia is considered the:

a) carious lesion of enamel
b) faulty development of enamel
c) removal of enamel through chemical means
d) removal of enamel through physical means

A

B) FAULTY DEVELOPMENT OF ENAMEL

174
Q

Which of the following can contribute to abrasion?

a) carious bacteria
b) toothbrushing &/or toothpaste
c) developmental factors
d) chemical means

A

B) TOOTHBRUSHING &/OR TOOTHPASTE

[Abrasion is the hard tooth tissue loss caused by friction from toothbrushing &/or toothpaste.]

175
Q

Which of the following is also considered interrod enamel?

a) enamel knot
b) enamel lamellae
c) interprismatic region
d) mantle region

A

C) INTERPRISMATIC REGION

[The interprismatic region is the outer region surrounding each enamel rod & is also called interrod enamel.]

176
Q

Which of the following are associated with pulp horns?

a) pits & grooves
b) cusps
c) radicular pulp
d) mantle dentin

A

B) CUSPS

[The pulp horns are extensions of coronal pulp into the cusps of posteriors.]

177
Q

Which of the following become mineralized to form pulp stones?

a) enamel
b) cementum
c) dentin
d) pulp tissue

A

C) DENTIN

[The pulp stones are masses of mineralized dentin in the pulp tissue.]

178
Q

Which part of the tooth comprises the pulp chamber?

a) radicular pulp in root
b) coronal pulp in cusps
c) mass of pulp tissue
d) mineralized dentin

A

C) MASS OF PULP TISSUE

179
Q

Where are the accessory canals usually located?

a) near the dentinoenamel junction
b) beneath the cementoenamel junction
c) lateral parts of roots
d) near the posterior’s cusps

A

C) LATERAL PARTS OF ROOTS

[Accessory canals are extra openings located on the lateral parts of roots.]

180
Q

Which of the following is considered the faulty development of dentin?

a) dentinal hypersensitivity
b) dentinal dysplasia
c) dentigerous cyst
d) dilaceration

A

B) DENTINAL DYSPLASIA

181
Q

Imbrication lines of von Ebner are incremental lines or bands in:

a) osteoid
b) predentin
c) mature dentin
d) cementoid

A

C) MATURE DENTIN

182
Q

Which of the following is the BEST definition of mantle dentin?

a) outermost layer of dentin found in the crown region
b) dentin matrix laid down by apposition by the odontoblasts
c) dentin that creates the wall of the dentinal tubule
d) dentin where only primary mineralization has occurred

A

A) OUTERMOST LAYER OF DENTIN FOUND INT EH CROWN REGION

183
Q

Interglobular dentin is a form of dentin where ONLY _____ mineralization has occurred.

a) complete
b) primary
c) secondary
d) primary & secondary

A

B) PRIMARY

184
Q

In what part of the tooth is Tomes’ granular layer located?

a) cementum
b) enamel
c) dentin
d) pulp

A

C) DENTIN

[Tomes’ granular layer is in dentin beneath cementum & adjacent to dentinocemental junction that looks granular.]

185
Q

The opening from the pulp near the apex of the tooth is called the apical:

a) horn
b) chamber
c) formaen
d) accessory canal

A

C) FORAMEN

186
Q

What is the BEST term to be used when a patient has a dentition with either partial or complete loss of teeth?

a) abfraction
b) edentulous
c) dysplasia
d) diastema

A

B) EDENTULOUS

187
Q

Cementicles are mineralized bodies of cementum either attached to the root or free in the:

a) dentin
b) cementum
c) periodontal ligament
d) gingiva

A

C) PERIODONTAL LIGAMENT

188
Q

Which of the following is the bone lining the alveolus?

a) alveolar process
b) alveolar bone proper
c) alveolar crest
d) alveolar crest group

A

B) ALVEOLAR BONE PROPER

189
Q

The lamina dura is BEST associated with which of the following?

a) alveolar process
b) alveolar bone proper
c) alveolar crest
d) alveolar crest group

A

B) ALVEOLAR BONE PROPER

[The lamina dura is the radiopaque line representing the alveolar bone proper.]

190
Q

Which part of the jaws forms the body of the maxilla or mandible?

a) basal bone
b) alveoli
c) alveolar process
d) lamina dura

A

A) BASAL BONE

191
Q

What part of the alveolar bone proper is considered the MOST cervical rim?

a) bundle bone
b) alveolar crest
c) basal bone
d) free gingival groove

A

B) ALVEOLAR CREST

192
Q

The alveolodental ligament subgroup on multi-rooted teeth that is inserted on cementum of one root to the cementum of the other root(s) is the:

a) alveolar crest group
b) interradicular group
c) horizontal group
d) oblique group

A

B) INTERRADICULAR GROUP

193
Q

Which of the following is considered the principal fiber subgroup that inserts interdentally into the cervical cementum of neighboring teeth?

a) alveolar crest group
b) interdental ligament
c) alveolodental ligament
d) interradicular group

A

B) INTERDENTAL LIGAMENT

194
Q

The horizontal group is an alveolodental ligament subgroup originating in alveolar bone proper to insert horizontally into:

a) dentin
b) alveolar bone
c) cementum
d) enamel

A

C) CEMENTUM

195
Q

Which of the following is a fiber group within the gingiva that has no bony attachments?

a) interdental ligament
b) alveolodental ligament
c) gingival fiber group
d) interradicular group

A

C) GINGIVAL FIBER GROUP

196
Q

Which of the following is the radiolucent area representing periodontal ligament on radiographs?

a) lamina dura
b) space
c) alveolar crest
d) septum

A

B) SPACE

[The periodontal space is the radiolucent area representing periodontal ligament on radiographs.]

197
Q

The alveolar bone between the roots of the same tooth is the:

a) interdental septum
b) interradicular septum
c) alveolar crest
d) alveolar bone proper

A

B) INTERRADICULAR SEPTUM

198
Q

The trabecular bone is the canellous bone between the alveolar bone proper and the:

a) plates of cortical bone
b) alveolar crest of neighboring teeth
c) roots of the same tooth
d) interdental ligament

A

A) PLATES OF CORTICAL BONE

199
Q

The supporting alveolar bone of the jaws consists of both cortical bone and:

a) trabecular bone
b) basal bone
c) alveolar bone proper
d) cortical plates

A

A) TRABECULAR BONE

200
Q

The cortical bone consists of plates of _____ bone on the facial & lingual surfaces of the alveolar bone.

a) trabecular
b) compact
c) basal
d) supporting

A

B) COMPACT

Dental Histology, Embryology, & Anatomy (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions