Evidence and justification Flashcards
How does Hume divide Knowledge claims?
He divides them into:
1) Matters of fact: “Probable” claims that are Synthetic a posteriori
2) Relations of ideas: “Demonstrative” claims that are analytic a priori
What does Hume say about the relation of causation? And what does this mean
it is is how… “we go beyond the evidence of our memory and senses.”
Only through what we perceive in the physical world, can we gain further knowledge.
If observations about the physical world are our only method of gaining insight about the physical world and causation, what does this mean?
We can not use a priori statements to gain insight into the physical world, they have no relation to it as the don’t describe actual things.
We therefore can only induce using a posterior arguments, so are claims of knowledge about the physical world are falliable
Why does Hume argue that we can see cause and effect but not causality directly?
We can see that in any given circumstance the cause leads to the effect, but we can not know for sure that this is the case with every given circumstance.
What are we guilty of when we assume that the future will act as the past has?
We are guilty of inferring through the “uniformity of nature”, a natural human psychological feature that is not based on deduction but the habit to find patterns.
Why can’t causal inference be made from demonstrative claims?
Because demonstrative claims are true in of themselves. You can describe a situation in a causal argument where the cause has a different effect, thus it can not be true in of itself.
According to Hume, what do repeat similar results mean?
Chance. You cannot fully generalise because you cannot know causality directly.
If we assume Hume is right, how does this effect scientific realism?
Only empirical data can meaningfully describe the world. Empirical data cannot be used to derive in information about “unobservables” nor can unobersavables be used to to describe things we can observe.
Kant uses ideas of “transcendental deduction” to attack Humes separation between “probable” and “demonstrative” claims?
He argues that there are statements that are true in of themselves, but require experience to gain knowledge of.
What implication does “transcendental deductive claims” about the relationship between observable and unobservables?
If we can deduce transcendentally, then we can make certain truth inferences about unobservables using observables and vice versa.
What does Kant use to exemplify synthetic a priori claims and why?
Kant argues mathematical claims are synthetic a priori. He gives the example of “5+7=12” as nothing about the subject 12 is necessitated by the nature of the predicates; 5&7.
How does Kant synthesis the aprioricity of causation, and use it to make inference generalisable?
Because we know that cause and effect is a priori, when we see a given effect repeatable stem from the same cause, we can generalise that this is true in all cases.
If Hume is right in that we can not use inference to make truth claims, how does this impede the data collection?
There would be know way of determining the falsehood of anomalous results certainly.
If we accept Hume is right, how dies the effect contrastive underdetermination?
It strengthens the notion that we cannot certainly discern between empirically identical hypotheses.
Though Hume dismisses that certain claims can be be made through inference, his argument allows for probable claims. Give 2 major examples of this.
1) Nomologically- explanatory solutions.
2) Bayesian probability.