Evidence Flashcards

1
Q

Prima facie evidence is best defined as evidence which

A: is based on the personal observation of a witness.
B: suffices to establish a fact in issue until rebutted by contrary evidence.
C: is presumed from the existence of other known facts and its connection therewith.
D: is inferred as circumstantial evidence by a jury

A

B: suffices to establish a fact in issue until rebutted by contrary evidence.

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2
Q

Evidence is direct and positive when

A: given by a witness under oath
B: the facts in dispute are communicated by those who have the actual knowledge of them by the use of their senses.
C: it tends to prove one or more facts in issue.
D: the facts in issue may properly be inferred from other facts shown.

A

B: There are two types of testimonial evidence - direct and circumstantial. Choice “B” is a good definition of direct evidence.

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3
Q

Evidence which does not tend directly to prove the controverted facts but to establish collateral facts from which the facts in issue will follow as a logical inference is called

A: circumstantial evidence.
B: hearsay evidence.
C: corroborative evidence.
D: opinion evidence.

A

A: This is a good working definition of circumstantial evidence

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4
Q

Evidence furnished by the things themselves exhibited to the court for inspection is known as

A: positive evidence.
B: prima facie evidence.
C: real evidence.
D: partial evidence.

A

C: Real evidence is one of the three kinds of evidence.

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5
Q

Such evidence as relates to or bears directly upon the point in issue, tending to prove it, is known as

A: real evidence.
B: competent evidence.
C: presumptive evidence.
D: relevant evidence.

A

D: relevant evidence.

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6
Q

The term “autoptic proference” is sometimes used to refer to

A: oral evidence.
B: circumstantial evidence.
C: state’s evidence.
D: real evidence.

A

D: real evidence.

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7
Q

Real evidence is also commonly known as

A: demonstrative evidence.
B: second-hand evidence.
C: substantive evidence.
D: positive evidence.

A

A: demonstrative evidence.

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8
Q

The one of the following statements which constitutes hearsay evidence is,

A: “I was told not to take the chance.”
B: “He told me that I would be sorry if I reported the crime.”
C: “The boy’s mother told me that her son committed the crime.”
D: “The defendant reported the crime to me.”

A

C: A classic example of inadmissible hearsay.

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9
Q

In a prosecution for disorderly conduct, a police officer testifies that he heard the defendant say, “American soldiers are blustering cowards.” This testimony of the police officer is not hearsay evidence because

A: it relates to an offense and not to a crime.
B: the person who made the statement has an opportunity to deny it.
C: the hearsay rule does not apply to peace officers under oath.
D: the truth or falsity of the statement is not in issue

A

D: In this case the “fact in issue” is not whether soldiers are cowards but whether the defendant said it.

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10
Q

Hearsay evidence is generally not admissible in a criminal trial because

A: it proves nothing.
B: it is generally false.
C: it is not subject to the test of cross-examination.
D: it usually is irrelevant.

A

C: The true witness is not giving the testimony

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11
Q

The burden of proof required to convict in a criminal trial is

A: a fair preponderance of evidence.
B: beyond a reasonable doubt.
C: the testimony of the greatest number of credible witnesses.
D: the quantum of convincing evidence.

A

B: Criminal conviction is a serious matter. Guilt must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt.

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12
Q

A confession made by an accused is not deemed circumstantial evidence because

A: a confession proves the fact in issue directly.
B: a confession will not stand alone, without additional proof of the crime charged.
C: it is documentary.
D: it is demonstrative.

A

A: Be careful, the question deals with CIRCUMSTANTIAL as opposed to DIRECT testimony

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13
Q

The prosecution may not introduce evidence of a criminal defendant’s bad character unless

A: the crime is an infamous one.
B: the defendant was previously convicted of other crimes.
C: the defendant is permitted to introduce evidence of his good character.
D: the court rules otherwise.

A

C: the defendant is permitted to introduce evidence of his good character.

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14
Q

At the trial of Tondelayo for murder, Tondelayo is asked on cross-examination whether she has ever been previously convicted of any crime. This mode of questioning is

A: improper if the particular crime charged differs from her previous convictions.
B: allowed as a means of testing her credibility.
C: improper unless Tondelayo has already testified as to her good character.
D: permitted to show her general criminal disposition (she took the stand).

A

B: When a defendant elects to “take the stand,” he or she swears to tell the truth. Credibility becomes a factor to consider. Admission of previous convictions on record is a test of truthfulness.

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15
Q

“Judicial Notice” is best defined as

A: the recognition which a judge will officially take of a fact of common knowledge without proof thereof.
B: a rule of law that courts and judges shall draw a particular inference from particular facts or evidence, unless and until the truth of the evidence is disproved.
C: a mandate issued by the court during the course of a trial requiring one of the parties to produce certain evidence in his possession.
D: the knowledge of a fact in issue which is imputed to one of the parties to the litigation.

A

A: A “Judicial Notice” precludes the need to introduce evidence to prove a fact.

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16
Q

A “presumption” is best defined as a rule of law which

A: requires that a particular inference must be drawn from an ascertained state of facts.
B: is given to explain, repel or disprove facts given in evidence.
C: is plain, obvious, and conclusive as to its certainty.
D: admitted as a substitute for what would be the primary instrument of evidence

A

A: A good definition of a presumption of law. It requires that a particular inference be drawn.

17
Q

An “inference” drawn by a jury from circumstantial evidence is sometimes termed

A: a presumption of law.
B: presumption of fact.
C: a conclusive presumption.
D: judicial notice.

A

B: This inference is frequently referred to as a “presumption of fact.” This is theoretically erroneous because the inference drawn is not mandatory. A true presumption requires that a certain inference be drawn. In theory, there are only presumptions of law, and not presumptions of fact.

18
Q

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A: All relevant, material, and competent proof of facts is admissible in evidence unless excluded by a specific rule of law.
B: Documentary evidence is real evidence of a particular type.
C: Evidence is relevant when it has a direct bearing on a fact worth consideration by the jury.
D: Hearsay evidence is always inadmissible.

A

D: Hearsay evidence is always inadmissible.

19
Q

The recent and exclusive possession of the fruits of a crime justifies the inference of guilt, provided

A: the possession is proved by direct evidence.
B: the possession is unexplained or explained falsely
C: the nature of the guilt of the possessor is certain.
D: it is applied only to larceny.

A

B: the possession is unexplained or explained falsely

20
Q

“Burden of proof” is best defined as

A: the burden of trying to persuade the trier of the facts of the truth of the allegations contained in the pleadings.
B: the coming forward with evidence.
C: taking the initiative in establishing guilt or innocence.
D: the sum total of all the evidence necessary to establish innocence.

A

A: The “Burden of Proof” is almost always on the prosecution. In some states, if the defendant raises an affirmative defense, he must prove the affirmative defense. “Burden of proof” refers to proving guilt.
Choice (D) refers to proving innocence.

21
Q

Of the following terms, the one which is normally within the province of the court, rather than the jury, to decide is

A: rejecting a confession because it was not made voluntarily.
B: whether the witness was the common-law wife of the defendant.
C: credibility of witnesses.
D: admissibility of evidence.

A

D: Questions of fact are for the jury to decide. Questions of law are for the court to decide.

22
Q

An ordinary witness (not an expert) may give his opinion concerning any of the following, except

A: that a photograph is a good likeness of a person he knows.
B: the estimated age of a person.
C: that a person seemed to be intoxicated.
D: that a fire was of incendiary origin.

A

D: that a fire was of incendiary origin.

23
Q

Tondelayo was charged with murder. At her trial, Tondelayo, claiming self defense, introduced evidence that the deceased had the general reputation of a quarrelsome, vindictive, and violent man. Such evidence is

A: not admissible, unless supported by specific acts of violence toward other persons.
B: admissible, to prove that the deceased was the aggressor.
C: not admissible, since the deceased cannot cross-examine the character witnesses.
D: admissible, if such reputation had come to Tondelayo’s knowledge prior to the homicide.

A

D: Is it RELEVANT, MATERIAL, and COMPETENT? Then it is admissible.

24
Q

The “Best Evidence Rule” has application mainly to

A: the use of non-hearsay as the best way to establish a fact.
B: questions concerning the contents of documents.
C: the use of evidence which will not be held inadmissible.
D: direct as opposed to circumstantial evidence

A

B: questions concerning the contents of documents.

25
Q

If a witness to a fatal accident testifies that he heard the driver of the car say, at the time of the accident, that his brakes failed, this statement, though hearsay, is admissible because

A: it is a confession.
B: it is part of the “res gestae.”
C: it is direct, testimonial evidence.
D: it is relevant, material, and competent.

A

B: it is part of the “res gestae.”

26
Q

“Evidence” is subdivided into THREE major classifications: DIRECT, REAL, CIRCUMSTANTIAL. Which of the following most clearly would be DIRECT evidence?

A: Evidence based on EXPERT OPINION
B: It carries the least amount of weight
C: An eyewitness describing something he observed
D: A weapon introduced into evidence

A

C: An eyewitness describing something he observed

27
Q

CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE may be described as

A: all evidence based on OPINION.
B: evidence that establishes certain facts and tends to prove certain elements by inference.
C: the portion of PROOF that is obtained by hearsay.
D: evidence possessing no materiality and little weight.

A

B: evidence that establishes certain facts and tends to prove certain elements by inference.

28
Q

The TRIPLE STANDARD of ADMISSIBILITY is:

A: Relevant, Material, Timely.
B: Relevant, Material, Competent.
C: Direct, Circumstantial, Opinion.
D: Proof, Inference, Presumption.

A

B: Relevant, Material, Competent.

29
Q

PROOF can be said to be

A: the result of evidence.
B: always direct.
C: dependent upon testimony.
D: a fluctuating element.

A

A: the result of evidence.

30
Q

Which of the following relationships does not necessarily result in a PRIVILEGED relationship

A: Husband and wife
B: Penitent and clergyman
C: Client and social worker
D: Police officer and confidential informant

A

D: Police officer and confidential informant

31
Q

In which of the following OPINION EVIDENCE situations is it not necessary to show familiarity with the subject matter?

A: Value of property
B: Speed of a vehicle
C: Apparent age of a person
D: Genuineness of another’s handwriting

A

C: Apparent age of a person

32
Q

According to Article 60 of the C.P.L., the extent of Corroboration required for ACCOMPLICE TESTIMONY is

A: that the offense was, in fact, committed.
B: evidence which tends to connect the defendant to the offense.
C: direct evidence establishing reasonable suspicion.
D: evidence which is material and relevant.

A

B: evidence which tends to connect the defendant to the offense.

33
Q

Which of the following would not qualify as REAL evidence?

A: An assault victim’s scars
B: A firearm used as a murder weapon
C: The odor of kerosine
D: An original copy of a contract

A

C: The odor of kerosine