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MSRA > Everything else > Flashcards

Everything else Flashcards

1
Q

What is atrophie Blanche

A

Star shaped atrophic scar with surrounding hyperpigmentation seen in venous ulcers

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2
Q

Hairless and pale skin on lower legs indicates which type of ulcer

A

Arterial

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3
Q

Solid lump in testis which age for each tumour

A

Teratoma in troops - Ie young 20-35

seminoma in Sargents - 35-45

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4
Q

10-year-old with rigidity, dystonia and resting tremor

A

Wilsons disease

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5
Q

Most common cause of acromioclavicular dislocation

A

Fall onto shoulder tip

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6
Q

Most common cause of posterior shoulder dislocation

A

Seizures

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7
Q

Most common cause of supraspinatus tear

A

Weight lifter jerking lift weight

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8
Q

Normal hearing is ? What would happen in noise-induced hearing loss?
Presbycusis?

A

Able to hear <20db

Noice induced - loss at 4000hz with notch at 4000

Presbycusis - loss of high frequencies

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9
Q

Symptoms of OA. What age do you not need to investigate

A

> 45 - clinical diagnosisi

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10
Q

Anterior spinal artery thrombus clinical picture

A

Loss of pain and temp below lesion
Spastic paresis

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11
Q

Child with abdo mass, splenomegaly, night sweats. Normal urine studies =

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

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12
Q

Antibodies pemphigoid vs pemphigus

A

Goid - haemosiderin
Gus - desmoglein

Goi hae
Gus des

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13
Q

AS murmur located

A

2nd space R sternal edge

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14
Q

Kid with frequent URTIS. Nasal stuffiness and nasal voice

A

Adenoidal enlargment

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15
Q

38 persistent runny nose for 2 years. Allergy testing negative
swollen inferior turbinates

A

nasal polyps

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16
Q

Ideal management of thyrotoxicosis in someone planning preg

A

Thyroidectomy

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17
Q

What is in an annual diabetic eye check

A

Acuity and retinal photography

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18
Q

Unexplained syncope - how long no drive

A

6 months

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19
Q

Multiple hypos on insulin driving

A

Banned long term

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20
Q

Stroke fully resolved driving

A

1 month

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21
Q

Who get no treatment for shingles, who gets oral only

A

Children - if healthy

Health adult gets oral

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22
Q

P450 Inducers

A

CRAPGPS - Crap as you get less drug

Carbemazepines
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulphonylureas

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23
Q

P450 inhibitors

A

SICKFACES.COM

Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol & Grapefruit juice
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

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24
Q

Angina symptom relief rx

A

B blockers
CBB
GTN

(Nitrates if any above contraindicated)

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25
Q

Posterior MI on ECG

A

V1 v2 ST depression and tall R waves

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26
Q

What is worth 2 points each in chadsvasc

A

Age >75
Prev stroke / tia

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27
Q

Which leads for anterolateral mi

A

V2-6
1 avl

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28
Q

What is the modified dukes criteria used for

A

Diagnostic classification of infective endocarditis

[Not predictor of prognosis]

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29
Q

Acute coronary syndrome going for PCI should all get? If not suitable for PCI or thrombolysis?

A

Aspirin + prasugrel

Aspirin + ticagralor
Aspirin + clopidogrel if high bleeding risk

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30
Q

When is prasugrel contraindicated in MI going for PCI

A

Prev stroke/ TIA

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31
Q

MI going for PCI with prev stroke taking Aspirin should get

A

Aspirin + clopidogrel

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32
Q

Chadsvasc points

A
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33
Q

Tumor found in Anterior neck triangle in high altitude persons

A

Carotid body

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34
Q

Conductive hearing loss that’s dominant inheritance

A

Otosclerosis

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35
Q

Parkinsons develops dyskinesia despite dopa therapy rx?

A

Dopamine agonist
Eg Ropinirole, rotigotine, pramipexole

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36
Q

Seizure free for how long before considering stopping antiepileptics

A

2 years

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37
Q

Baby who had period of asphxia at birth now having episodes of drawing up legs =?

A

West syndrome
[salaam attacks]

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38
Q

Juvinile myoclonic epilepsy also called

A

Janz syndrome

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39
Q

TIA hx in GP plan?

A

Aspirin 300
Admit

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40
Q

1st line generalised tonic clonic seizure rx

A

valproate
[Lamotrigine / keppra second line]

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41
Q

1st line acne

A

Topical benzyl peroxide
+Adapaline / clindamycin

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42
Q

Raised itchy lesions on wrists with white lacy pattern in mouth

A

Lichen planus

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43
Q

intensly itchy bullous rash on elbows and ankles? rx?

A

dematitis herpetiformis

dapsone

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44
Q

diabetic with well defined red tender area? usual cause

A

erysipelas
strep pyogenes

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45
Q

elderly female with red reticulated rash over forarms =

A

Erythema ab igne

[due to heat eg by fire]

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46
Q

Compare appearance of SCC and BCC on scalp

A

SCC - ulcerated crusting lesion

BCC - pearly nodule with rolled edge

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47
Q

Slow growing scaly red plaque in old person

A

Bowens disease

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48
Q

palmar psoriasis 1st line?

A

emollients

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49
Q

acne rosacea 1st line topical rx

A

ivermectin

[metronidazole alternative]

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50
Q

Psoriasis already on intermittent steroids + emollients

A

Calcitrol ointment

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51
Q

middle age scaly red rash on face and around eyebrows =? rx?

A

seborrhoec dermatitis

malasezzia furfur

hydrocortisone + miconazole cream

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52
Q

2 psoriasis creams that stain clothes bad

A

coal tar
dithranol

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52
Q

started on med for skin condition. Now has hair loss, nose bleeds, dry lips

A

retinoids

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52
Q

psoriasis now features of bone marrow supression most likely drug

A

methotrexate

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52
Q

When give vit k 1-3mg with warfarin

A

INR >5 with minor bleeding
INR > 8 no bleeding

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52
Q

what are drepanocytes

A

sickle cells

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53
Q

what is rouleux formation

A

Clumped RBCs which stick together because of high levels of acute phase proteins

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54
Q

antiphospholipid rx? if pregnant?

A

Warfarin

Aspirin + LMWH

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55
Q

40-60 with WCC 90 and splenomegally most likely

A

CML

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56
Q

What are smear cells seen in

A

CLL

[Ruptured lymphocytes during blood film prep]

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57
Q

tear drop cells seen in

A

Myelofibrosis
myelodysplastic syndrome
metastatic marrow infiltration

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58
Q

Mild depression 1st line ?

A

CBT

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59
Q

Which hormones are raised in anorexia

A

Cortisol
growth hormone

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60
Q

Which cognition assessement takes 20 minutes and is best for different types of dementia?

Which doesnt need english as first language

A

Addenbrookes

GPCOG

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61
Q

MMSE score for dementia

A

<24

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62
Q

Which cognitive assement has 10 questions with monark and ww2 dates

A

AMT

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63
Q

Which is first line depot injection for schitz

A

risperidone
[2 weekly]

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64
Q

nephrotic syndrome in adults most likely

A

FSGN

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65
Q

Bilat hydronephrosis and uti in kid key ix

A

micturating cystogram

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66
Q

Herpes cold sore + pneumonia bug?

viral infection -> pneumonia?

COPD?

A

herpes - strep pneumo

viral - S aureus

COPD = Haemophilis influenza

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67
Q

What is dacryocystitis

A

Inflammation of tear sack

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68
Q

Which eye condition do you get charles bonnet hallucinations

A

Macular degeneration

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69
Q

AV nipping seen in

A

hypertensive retinopathy

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70
Q

Severe eye pain after sunbeds =? rx?

A

damage to cornea -> high risk of infections

Antibiotic ointment and analgesia with eye rest

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71
Q

What gives you blue tinged vison

A

sildenafil

[blue pill]

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72
Q

blue / green urine and blurred vision

A

amitriptyline

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73
Q

HIV vision issues with white deposits and small haemorrhages on fundoscopy

A

CMV

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74
Q
A
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75
Q

Diabetic drug that makes you fart loads

A

Acarbose

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76
Q

Antihypertensive that cause impaired Glucose tolerance

A

Thiazides
B blockers a bit

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77
Q

Tumor secreting what gives low sodium

A

ADH

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78
Q

Which NSAID worst for cauing an MI

A

Diclofenac

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79
Q

HRT in woman who gets migranes

A

Estradiol patch

[Continuous release doesn’t trigger migranes]

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80
Q

Systemic eostrogen HRT contraindication

A

Recent thromboembolic disease
Eg MI

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81
Q

Montelukast key side effects

A

Vivid dreams
Diarrhoea
Pysch issues

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82
Q

What is xylometazoline

A

Nasal decongestant

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83
Q

Which ssri has a long half life and so needs a gap of 1 week before starting other SSRIs / SNRIs

A

Fluoxetine

The flu lasts several days

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84
Q

Which asthma medication can worsen asthma if not taken with a steroid

A

Salmeterol - LABA

MUST be taken with a inhaled steroid

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85
Q

Which b blockers worsen asthma

A

No cardioselective eg propranolol

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86
Q

Cellulitis then has an MI which abx

A

Clarithromycin

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87
Q

Which class of medication in IHD have to be weaned slowly to prevent rebound MI

A

B blockers

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88
Q

Which drugs cause liver enzyme inhibition ?

A

Get more drug SICK

SICKFACES.COM

Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol & Grapefruit juice
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

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89
Q

Which drugs cause liver enzyme induction

A

thats crap, less drug

CRAPGPS

Carbemazepines
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulphonylureas

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90
Q

Thickend glomerular basement membrane with IgG /C3 deposits + nephrotic syndrome =?
Assoc?

A

Membranous glomerulonephritis

10% either GI adenocarcinoma or Bronchial SCC

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91
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome which ca ?

Hypovolaemic hyponatraemia

Raised ACTH

HyperCa

Gynaecomastia

HyperThyroid

Lambert eaton

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoathripathy

A

Hypovolaemic hyponatraemia -[SIADH] Small cell

Raised ACTH - small cell

HyperCa - Squamous (bony mets +/- PTH producing)

Gynaecomastia - adenocarcinoma / large cell

HyperThyroid - Squamous (TSH)

Lambert eaton - small cell

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy - adenocarcinoma

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92
Q

Plasma / urine osmolalitis in DI vs psychogenic polydipsia? Differentiate cranial and nephrogenic + Rx

A

DI- High plasma low urine
Psychogenic - low plasma low urine

Cranial - low levels ADH
Nephro - resistance to ADH in kidneys

Give DDAVP. In cranial -> increases urine osmolality

Nephrogenic - Treat cause, then bendoflumethazide if still requires rx

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93
Q

COPD and clubbing

A

NONE

94
Q

Rheum A on new drug and now heart failure?

A

Infliximab

95
Q

What is high does ICS in asthma

A

1000mcg / day
[>800 at minumum]

96
Q

Why hyponatraemia in DKA

A

glucose and ketones interfere with assay
[ie its erroneous]

97
Q

purple/blue/red lesions on nose/ears/fingers/toes =

A

Sarcoid
[lupus pernio]

98
Q

2 key drugs which worsen psoriasis

A

lithium
b blockers

99
Q

Severe HAP rx 1st line

A

Taz

100
Q

Woman with bloating and weight loss + mouth ulcers

A

coeliac

101
Q

epigastric pain 2 hours after eating. Relieved by eating snacks

A

DU

102
Q

When is it barrets on biopsy

A

metaplasia to Collumnar epithelium
[from squamous]

103
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes which lung Ca ?

Hypovolaemic hyponatraemia
Raised ACTH
Hyper Ca
Gynaecomastia
Hyperthyroid
Lambert-eaton
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

A

Hypovolaemic hyponatraemia - SIADH = small cell

Raised ACTH - Small cell

Hyper Ca - Squamous - from bony mets [rarely produces PTH too)

Gynaecomastia - Large cell (large breasts) and adenocarcinoma

Hyperthyroid - Squamous (produces TSH)

Lambert-eaton - Small cell

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy - Adenocarcinoma

104
Q

Chemo drugs side effects TOXMAN

A

C (ears) - Cisplatin carboplatin -> Ototoxicity

T (eyes) - Tamoxifen
->Reduced acuity

B (lungs) - bleomycin, bulsupham
->Fibrosis

D with T (heart) - Doxorubicin
Tratasizumab
-> cardiac

M liver - methotrexate
Liver toxiticy

C - kidney. Cisplatin and carbocystine

O bladder (cycle) - cyclophosphamide - haemorrhage cystitis

V - Vincristine - peripheral neuropathy

5,6,MPH - Bone marrow suppression
5-fluorouracil
6-mercaptopurine
Methotrexate
Paclitaxel
Hydroxyurea

105
Q

Bromocriptine key side effects

A

cardiac / pulm / retroperitoneal fibrosis

106
Q

drug-induced dystonia rx? key side effect

A

procyclidine

anticholinergic

107
Q

symptoms of tia which have resolved by time of presentation to GP plan?

A

stroke team rv within 24 hrs

108
Q

painless loss of vision with haemorrhages that change colour from orange/yellow to red/ pink

A

Vitreous haemorrhage

109
Q

Pink mild pigmented plaque on lower leg

A

Bowens
Needs biposy

110
Q

Sharply defined erythematous lesion

A

Erysipelas

111
Q

Non itchy hypopigmented scales on back ? bug?

A

Maassezia furfur
Ptyriasis versicolour

112
Q

New red lump in baby which has continued to grow? Rx?

A

Capilliary haemangioma

No treatment unless interferes with vision. Usual complete regression by age 5

113
Q

Port wine birth mark management

A

Laser therapy

[usually just camouflage]

114
Q

most common skin condition in HIV

A

Warts

115
Q

Women in 30s with scaly red patches which heal to leave hypopigmented areas. May have some in mouth too.

A

Discoid lupus

116
Q

Actinic keratoses rx 1st line if few lesions? multiple?

What if most treated with 1st line therapy and then there is just 1 which lingers?

If severe eczema?

A

few - cryotherapy

multiple- 5-FU

1 lingering - excision as risk if SCC

Severe eczema - diclofenac gel

117
Q

Which deficiency when resected
duodenal?
Jejunum?
Ileum?

A

Dude I just feel ill bro

D - Iron
J - Folate
I - B12

Stomach - b12

118
Q

Key coag in antiphospholipis

A

Prolonged APTT
Thrombocytopenia
Normal PT usually

119
Q

Key side effect of chloramphenicol

A

Bone marrow suppression -> aplastic anaemia

120
Q

woman on COCP gets DVT rx?

A

Apixaban 3 months only

121
Q

Tripple positive antiphospholipid gets DVT rx?

A

LMWH + warfarin

Then warfarin for 3 months and review

122
Q

Gingival hypertrophy usually caused by?

A

Calcineurin inhibitors
- Eg ciclosporin

123
Q

Antihypertensive -> lithium toxicity?

A

Thiazides

124
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome pharma rx?

A

Bromocriptine
Dantrolene

125
Q

Which class of antidepressant -> HypoNa

A

SSRI eg paroxetine

126
Q

OCD mainstay therapy

A

Exposure and response prevention

127
Q

Type 1 vs 2 bipolar

A

1 - usual

2 - Depressive symptoms usually predominate with only hypomania (still manic)

128
Q

Depression scoring tool? Mild moderate and severe scores?

A

Patient health questionnaire PHQ-9

5-9 Mild
10-19- moderate
>20 severe

129
Q

IgA nephritis vs post strep differentiate?

A

Post stretp haematuria 10 days after.

IgA at same time

130
Q

Gold standard Ix for renal artery stenosis

A

Digital subtraction angiography

131
Q

Constant wet pants following hysterectomy / obstructed labour

A

Vesicovaginal fistua

132
Q

Bladder Ca most common Uk? Worldwide?

A

TCC
SCC

133
Q

Urge incontinence surigcal rx

A

Sacral nerve stimulation
Cystoplasty
Botox injection

134
Q

Chronic sinusitis and haematuria

A

GPA

135
Q

Vaccination schedule for babies

A

8 weeks
-6-in-1 vaccine
-Rotavirus vaccine
-MenB vaccine

12 weeks
-6-in-1 vaccine (2nd dose)
-Pneumococcal vaccine
-Rotavirus vaccine (2nd dose)

16 weeks
-6-in-1 vaccine (3rd dose)
-MenB vaccine (2nd dose)

136
Q

Vaccines given at 1 year

A

Hib/MenC vaccine (1st dose)

MMR vaccine (1st dose)

Pneumococcal vaccine (2nd dose)

MenB vaccine (3rd dose)

137
Q

Cavvines at 4 years

A

MMR vaccine (2nd dose)

4-in-1 pre-school booster vaccine
-diphtheria
-tetanus
-whooping cough
-polio

138
Q

Whats in the 6 in 1 vaccine

A

diphtheria
hepatitis B
Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b)
polio
tetanus
whooping cough

139
Q

Vaccines at age 65

A

Flu vaccine (given every year after turning 65)

Pneumococcal vaccine

Shingles vaccine (if you turned 65 on or after 1 September 2023)

140
Q

Vaccines age 13

A

HPV

141
Q

Drug induced lupus antibody

A

ANTI -HISTONE

142
Q

Dermatomyositis antibody

A

Anti Mi-2

143
Q

Post exposure flu prophylaxis options

A

Oseltamivir
Zanamivir

144
Q
A
145
Q

Painless loss of vision looks like ‘stormy sunset’

A

CRVO

146
Q

rx wet macular degenerarion

A

VGEF inhibitors

147
Q

HLA B5 japanese and eye symptoms

A

bechets

148
Q

Long term sun exposure and now large growth on nasal aspect of eye beginning to involve cornea?

What are smaller, yellowish and do not involve cornear

A

Pterygium

pinguecula

149
Q

red bump on your eyelid. It is sometimes called an eyelid cyst or a meibomian cyst?

A

Chalazion

150
Q

Longstanding chalazion which has responded to treatment for months and now has eyelash loss

A

Sebaceous cell carcinoma

151
Q

Most common eyelid tumur

A

BCC

152
Q

6 weeks irritated red swelling eye lids which are watering more than usual

A

blephritis

153
Q

Pain and swelling over medial part of lower lid with low grade fever

A

dacrocystitis - inflamation lacrimal sac, typically caused by obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct.

154
Q

cut off in prolactin for micro vs macro adenoma for MSRA

A

> 2000mU/L

155
Q

Bilat adrenalectomy -> Sx of pituitary tumour =? What is the usual first symptom?

A

Nelsons syndrome
- ACTH secreting pituitary macroadenoma

Hyperpigmentation

156
Q

30% of people on octreotide develop?

A

Gallstones

157
Q

Primary vs secondary hypothyroidism bloods

A

Primary - High TSH
Secondary - Low TSH

[Both low t4]

158
Q

Who gets an islet transplant in T1DM

A

<50 units / day

2 or more severe hypoglycaemia attacks in 2 years

159
Q

Most common medication causing hypoMg

A

PPIs

160
Q

prev PE and now pregnant ->

A

Heparin

161
Q

Antidepressant that gives you withdrawal sx after missing for 1 day? Other one with worst withdrawal Sx ?

A

venlafaxine

Paroxetine

162
Q

Which antiepileptic most likely to cause agranulocytosis

A

Carbamazepine

163
Q

Psoriasis then develops rash with rings and double edges whats happened

A

Steroid cream on fungal infection

164
Q

common antibiotic where alcohol will make you feel shite

A

metronidazole

165
Q

Which SSRI increases QTc the most

A

citalopram

166
Q

egg allergy - which vaccines CI

A

Flu / Hep A (egg free versions do exist)
Yellow fever

167
Q

antimalarial with most neuro psych side effects

A

mefloquine

168
Q

Prostatitis then gets vasovagal striaght after new medication

A

tamsulosin

169
Q

What criteria for CCF

A

Framingham

170
Q

Anaemia with tachy and wide pulse pressure is developing

A

High output cardiac failure

171
Q

Foreign kid, pink ring-shaped lesions, joint pain and movement disorder is? Caused by? Criteria for Dx?

A

Rheumatic fever
Strep pyogenes
Jones criteria

172
Q

Baby with PDA should get?

A

Cardio ref
NSAID - eg ibuprofen

173
Q

Early diastolic murmur - L sternal edge vs left upper sternum

A

Tricuspid stenosis
Pulm regurg

174
Q

when can you not drive with aortic aneurysm

A

> 6.5cm
5.5 if HGV

175
Q

HIV, bird exposure now lymphadenopathy and pulm sx

A

histoplasmosis

176
Q

UC with reduced sperm count

A

Sulfasalazine

177
Q

Which is UC drug that 5% have severe reaction to

A

Infliximab

178
Q

UC which cancer? which disease?

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis
-> cholangiocarcinoma

179
Q

The most common benign liver tumour ?

A

Haemangioma

180
Q

carcinoid 2 common locations? ix? rx?

A

Bronchi / Jejenum

Urinary 5-haii

somatostatin

181
Q

Painful lesions in mouth and widespread target lesions which painful blistering widespread

A

SJS

182
Q

Pustular tonsilitis -> widespread blanching red rash starting on torso

A

Scarlet fever ->
Rash is bacterial exanthem

183
Q

Scalp psoriasis not responding to topical corticosteroid

A

Add in topical vit d analogue
Eg calcipotriol + betnovate cream

184
Q

Lung Ca now with pedunculated hyperpigmented lesions on back

A

seborrhoeic keratoses
[leser-trelat sign]

185
Q

CHOP chemo is

A

cyclophosphamide, hydroxydanorubicin, vincristine, prednisolone

186
Q

cooleys anaemia is

A

b-thalassaemia major

187
Q

CML curative rx

A

only BMT - should be for al young pts

[imatinib - non curative for older]

188
Q

single drug for CLL in someone not fit for big rx

A

Chlorambucil

189
Q

Thalassaemia with reduced growth hormone despite good iron chelation compliance

A

somatotropin [growth hormone]

190
Q

Most common blood finding HIV

A

Lymphopenia (loss of CD4)

191
Q

Diabetic with sudden loss of vision, pale swollen optic disk on fundoscopy

A

Anterior ischemic neuropathy

192
Q

H pylori rx ? penicillin allergy?

A

PPI amox, clary

PPI Metrondiazole, clary

193
Q

Depression
+ IBS / Chronic pain?
+ recent MI?
+ Bipolar on lithium?

A

+ IBS / Chronic pain - tricyclics eg amitriptyline
+ recent MI - Sertraline
+ Bipolar on lithium - citalopram

194
Q

Bilat small irregular pupils that dont react to light

A

argyll robertson

195
Q

Right pupil constricts with light test. Then when left eye shown light both dilate

A

Marcus gunn

196
Q

Lung function test for pulmonary fibrosis progression

A

Lung diffusion test - measures gas exchange of CO

197
Q

2 mins into blood transfusion -> hypotension, SOB

A

Acute haemolytic reaction

[need angioedema + urticaria for anaphylaxis]

198
Q

High pitched diastolic murmur loudest on expiration

A

Aortic regurg

199
Q

ejection systolic murmur which doest radiate to carotids

A

Aortic sclerosis

200
Q

Which therapy for family who all argue and shout at each outer

A

Systemic therapy

201
Q

Which therapy for addiction issues

A

group therapy

202
Q

Which therapy anxiety disorders

A

CBT

203
Q

Which therapy for relationship issues at work and school

A

Interpersonal therapy

204
Q

Therapy for bereavement

A

one-to-one councilling

205
Q

Therapy for autism

A

Social learning programme

206
Q

lateral epicondylitis is tennis or golfers elbow?

A

Tennis

207
Q

Sciatica rx

A

Analgesia and rest
If ongoing at 6 weeks -> physio

208
Q

teratoma vs seminoma produce? Rx?

A

Tera - AFP + bHCG
- Surg + chemo

Seminoma - bHCG only
- Surg + radiotherapy

209
Q

Prostate issues
When transurethral incision of prostate?
When open prostatectomy?

A

Insicion - BPH < 30g no Ca

Open - >80g as an option - usually still TURP

210
Q

Penis now bends in the middle when gets an erection? assoc with?

A

Peyronies disease

Dupyutrens contracture

211
Q

Prostae ca which tablet and which injection cause gynaecomastia

A

flutamide/finasteride
[F for feminism]

gosereline - injection

212
Q

Which prostate drugs must use a condome if women going to be pregnant? Or even touch a leaking capsule

A

Finasteride
Dutasteride

213
Q

Rx for low / intermediate / high-risk prostate Ca

A

Low - active surveillance
Int/high - prostatectomy

214
Q

Androgen-dependent prostate mets rx if wants to continue having sex? if not?

A

Sex - Bicalutamide (worse survival than below)

Longer survival - goserelin / bilat orchidecotmy

215
Q

Prostate spinal mets with pain despite radiotherapy

A

Bisphosphonates

216
Q

Prostate Ca starts therapy then gets spinal compression symptoms

A

goserelin - initial LH stimulation in first 2 weeks then suppression after

-> get flare of sx in first bit

217
Q

Abx worsen myasthenia

A

-mycins
-cyclines

218
Q

Most common B cell deficiency ? leads to?

A

IgA deficiency
-> Encapsulated gram positive bacilli infections

219
Q

guillian barre antibody

A

Anto-ganglioside

220
Q

Low ocular pressure, blood in anterior chamber, irregular pupil

A

Globe rupture

221
Q

HSV with blisters from eye to nose tip which nerve

A

Trigeminal - opthalmic branch

222
Q

Most common eye allergy

A

perennial allergic rhinoconjunctivitis

[summer - pollen
All year - dust]

223
Q

Sudden shower of floaters in eye

A

retinal tear

224
Q

What is dumping syndrome? when do you often get it?

A

food quickly bypass the stomach -> pancreas overproduces insulin -> hypoglycaemia

Usually following gastric surgery -> damages gastric nerves

225
Q

Which pit tumour is eosinophilic

A

GH producing

226
Q

raised prolactin but no Sx

A

macroprolactinaemia
- macro-prolactin is not biologically active

[Not to be mistaken with macroprolactinoma]

227
Q

Gout treatment
Which causes D&V?
Ischemic stroke?

A

D&V - colchicine

Stroke - cox-2 Eg celocoxib

228
Q

On warfarin for AF - when can you switch to apixaban?

A

When INR <2

229
Q

DMARD causing retinopathy?
Nephropathy ?
Needs check for signs of infection before each dose?
Needs height and weight checks?
Insomnia and altered taste?
Blood glucose and pressure?

A

Retinopathy Hydroxychloroquine
[think SLE rash around eyes]

nephropathy - Penicillamine
[P kidney and ureter]

Signs of infection - adalimumab
[a agranulocytosis]

Height and weight - leflunomide
[left

insomnia and taste - sulfasalazine
[tastes like sulfuric]

glucose + BP - tacrolimus
[tacrolimus tummy]

230
Q

Lots of steroids - how to wean from 30mg daily

A

Down to 7.5mg over 1 month [0.1mg/kg]
down to 0 month after

231
Q

Difficult to control HTN. Starts new med and develops hypoglycaemia?
Hyperglycaemia?

A

Hypo - B blocker - inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis [beta 2 adrenoceptors]

Hyper - indapamide / thiazide

232
Q

How to wean off any benzo?

A

switch to diazepam first - 50hr half life
Then wean

233
Q

takes drug for aeroplane flight anxiety and becomes aggressive and hostile?

A

Diazepam - paradoxical reaction

234
Q

Which antidiabetic med causes UTIs?
Bladder Ca?

A

UTIs - SLGT2

bladder Ca - Pioglitazone

235
Q

How to switch from methadone to buprenorphine

A

Stop methadone,
Wait for withdrawal sx then start buprenophine

236
Q

b12 deficient then takes med which rapidly causes subacute degeneration of the spinal cord?

A

Folate

If deficient in both MUST replace B12 first

237
Q
A

MSRA (8 decks)

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