Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Last min FY > Everything > Flashcards

Everything Flashcards

1
Q

Most common organisms in infective endocarditis and associations?

A
  • Saph aureus (most common) → western world + IVDUs
  • Strep viridans (20% cases) → poor dental hygiene
  • Staph epidermidis → indewlling lines, prosthetic valve (initially, then staph aureus after 2 months)
  • Strep bovis → colorectal cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infective endocarditis - gold standard investigations?

A
  • TOE
  • Cultures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Does asymptomatic AF need treatment?

A
  • Not usually
  • Do CHADSVASC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you treat a patient who is shocked but fluid overloaded?

A

Inotropes → Noradrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Treatment for Torsade de Pointes?

A

Magnesium IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Investigation for unstable aortic dissection?

A

TOE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Investigation for stable aortic dissection?

A

CT Angio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does posterior MI present on ECG?

A
  • ST Depression
  • Tall R waves in V1-2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the stages of postpartum thyroiditis?

A
  1. Thyrotoxicosis
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Normal

Treat symptoms (eg. with propranolol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which strains of HPV cause warts?

A

6 + 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which strains of HPV cause cervical cancer?

A

16 + 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What impact does epidural anaesthesia have on BP?

A

Reduces BP in induced labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pleural Effusion: When should a chest drain be placed?

A

All patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness require diagnostic pleural fluid sampling

  • if the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage
  • if the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection a chest tube should be placed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When do you use NIV (BiPAP)?

A
  • IECOPD
  • T2RF
  • Respiratory acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is infective exacerbation COPD prophylaxis?

A

Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When do use CPAP?

A
  • T1RF
  • Pulmonary oedema
  • Acute HF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is important to give in acute life-threatening asthma?

A

Magnesium > theophylline

(O SHIT ME, but magnesium first)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens to the trachea in lung collapse?

A

It’s pulled towards the white out, ie. towards the collapsed lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Types of aphasia

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Myasthenia gravis vs Lambert-Eaton

A
  • Myasthenia → normal reflexes, anti-AChR abs
  • LEMS → areflexia, movement improves symptoms, anti-VGCC abs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Management for ascending cholangitis?

A

ERCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which pneumonia organism in IVDUs?

A

Staph aureus (also for influenza infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Osteomalacia bloods?

A
  • Low calcium + phosphate
  • Raised ALP
  • Low vit D

Sx → bone pain, fractures, muscle tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Paget’s bloods?

A

Everything normal except raised ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are associations of PBC?

A
  • Sjogren’s
  • Rheumatoid
  • Systemic sclerosis
  • Thyroid disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are associations of PSC?

A
  • IBD (UC > Crohn’s)
  • HIV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A
  • Pyrexia
  • Muscle rigidity
  • HTN, tachycardia, tachypnoea
  • Agitated + Confused

Ix → raised CK, AKI, leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which analgesics should be avoided in those who have resp disease undergoing major surgery?

A

Opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do you manage epistaxis?

A
  • Minor bleeding → silver nitrate + cautery
  • Profuse bleeding → anterior pack
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do the results of high-dose dexamethasone suppression test indicate?

A
  • ACTH + Cortisol suppressed? → pituitary
  • Just cortisol suppressed? → adrenal
  • Neither suppressed? → ectopic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In whom is primary hyperparathryoidism commoner in?

A

Older females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which diabetic drug should you suspend during intercurrent illness?

A
  • Metformin
  • Risk of lactic acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the treatment for alcoholic ketoacidosis?

A

IV Thiamine + 0.9% Saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Investigation for PSC?

A
  • MRCP
  • Shows beaded appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In which part of the gut is ischaemic colitis most common in?

A

Splenic flexure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Investigations for haemochromatosis?

A
  • Transferrin sats > 50-55%
  • Low TIBC
  • MRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which investigation for pancreatitis?

A

USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Clinical features of lymphogranuloma vereneum?

A

Proctitis + Lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should you do if a pt presents with unexplained petechiae and hepatosplenomegaly?

A

Urgent specialist assessment for leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Investigation for chlamydia?

A

NAAT

41
Q

Parvovirus B19

A
  • Slapped cheek syndrome
  • Features → red cell aplasia, anaemia + low reticulocyte count
42
Q

Clinical features of myeloma?

A
  • Hypercalcaemia
  • Proteinuria
  • Impaired renal fxn
  • Lower back pain
43
Q

Treatment for non-displaced scaphoid fracture?

A

Cast 6-8 wks

44
Q

What is Todd’s paresis?

A

Focal seizures leading to post-ictal weakness

45
Q

Treatment for cervical myelopathy?

A

Neurosurgery

46
Q

Treatment of acute ischaemic stroke < 4.5hrs?

A

Thrombolysis + thrombectomy

47
Q

Eye palsies

A
  • LR6
  • SO4
  • Rest 3
48
Q

Which nerve supplies the triceps reflex?

A
  • Radial nerve
  • C7
49
Q

Features of idiopathic intracranial HTN?

A
  • Obese young females
  • Headaches
  • Blurred vision
50
Q

How does blepharitis present?

A

Bilateral grittiness worse in morning

51
Q

Treatment for whooping cough?

A

Oral clarithromycin

52
Q

Features of HUS?

A
  • MAHA
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Acute renal failure
53
Q

Features of HSP?

A
  • Purpuric rash - bum + legs
  • NO anaemia or thrombocytopenia
  • Can lead to nephritis (haematuria + proteinuria)
54
Q

Asthma - should you do peak flow if <5 yrs old?

A
  • No, just bronchodilator test
  • Spacer is also better for asthma exacerbations in children than nebs
55
Q

What are rolandic seizures?

A
  • Centrotemporal region
  • Saliva, grunting, slurred speech
56
Q

How do you treat terminal restlessness in palliative care?

A

Midazolam syringe driver

57
Q

TCA overdose

A
  • QRS Prolongation
  • Rx → IV bicarb
58
Q

Features of delirium tremens?

A
  • Confusion
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Tachycardia
  • Pyrexia
59
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A
  • Thiamine deficiency
  • Sx → nystagmus / ophthalmoplegia / ataxia
  • Rx → thiamine
60
Q

What is Korsakoff’s ?

A
  • Leads on from Wernicke’s
  • Characterised by anterograde and retrograde amensia and confabulation
61
Q

What is minimal change disease associated with?

A
  • Atopy
  • Hodgkin’s lymphoma
62
Q

Testicular torsion or epididymitis?

A

Prehn’s sign → in torsion, the elevation of the testis does not ease the pain compared to epididymitis

63
Q

Rx epidydmo-orchitis?

A
  • IM ceftriaxone + oral doxycyline
64
Q

Arterial vs venous ulcers

A
  • Arterial → toes, heel, painful, cold, low ABPI
  • Venous → ankle, painless, brown pigment, oedema
65
Q

Investigations for acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Lipase > amylase
  • Diagnosis can be made clinically + based on above
  • Early USS important, otherwise contrast CT
66
Q

Investigations for chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Faecal elastase (if imaging inconclusive)
  • CT > AXR
67
Q

The one investigation of choice for pancreatic cancer?

A
  • High res CT
  • Demonstrates ‘double duct’ sign (simulatenous dilatation of common bile and pancreatic ducts)
68
Q

Which 3 features characterise acute liver failure?

A
  • Jaundice
  • Confusion
  • Coagulopathy
69
Q

Bloods for refeeding syndrome?

A
  • Hypophosphataemia
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Hypomagnesaemia
  • Abnormal fluid balance
70
Q

Most common causes of liver cirrhosis (3)

A
  • NAFLD / NASH
  • Alcohol
  • HCV + HBV
71
Q

Investigation of choice for liver cirrhosis?

A

Fibroscan aka transient elastography

72
Q

Ascites treatment?

A
  • Fluid restrict + low salt diet
  • Spironolactone
73
Q

Treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lactulose

74
Q

PBC

A
  • Non-caseating granulomas
  • Middle aged females
  • Ix → AMA, IgM

Rx → symptom management, ADEK, ursudeoxycholic acid, transplant

75
Q

Wilson’s investigation (1) + treatment (1)?

A
  • Ix* → Reduced serum caeruloplasmin
  • Rx* → penicillamine
76
Q

Budd-chiari triad?

A
  • RUQ pain
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Ascites
77
Q

Screening for HCC?

A
  • Ultrasound
  • AFP

Only for high risk groups

78
Q

Who needs surgery for bowel obstruction?

A
  • Closed loop obstruction
  • Obstructing neoplasm
  • Strangulation/perforation → sepsis, peritonitis
  • Failure of conservative Mx (up to 72hr)
79
Q

CAP Abx

A
  • Mild or Moderate → Amoxicillin
  • Severe → Co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin
80
Q

Types of lung cancer

A
  • Small cell → SIADH, ACTH, central, LEMS
  • Squamous cell → PTHrP, hilar
  • Adenocarcinoma → small airways
81
Q

Lofgren’s syndrome is a specific presentation of sarcoidosis.

What’s the Lofgren’s triad?

A
  • Ertyhema nodosum
  • Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
  • Polyarthralgia
82
Q

Gold standard diagnosis of sarcoidosis?

A
  • Histology from biopsy
  • Done by bronchosocopy w/ USS guided biopsy of mediastinal lymph nodes
  • Shows non-caseating granulomas + epithelioid cells
83
Q

Industrial lung diseases

A
  • Coal-workers pneumoconicosis → progressive dyspnoea, chronic bronchitis / CXR: upper zone fibrotic masses
  • Silicosis → quarrying, sand-blasting / upper zone reticular shadowing + egg shel calcification of hilar nodes
  • Asbestosis → demolition, ship building / basal fibrosis, pleural plaques / CXR: pleural effusions / do biopsy
84
Q

Brain abscess features

A
  • Headche
  • Fever
  • Focal neurology
85
Q

Labyrinthitis vs Vestibular neuronitis?

A

Both present after viral illness, associated w/ vertigo, nausea and vomiting and both treated w/ prochlorperazine

  • Lab → hearing loss, faster onset, associated w/ ramsay-hunt syndrome
  • Vest → no hearing loss
86
Q

Systemic sclerosis antibodies

A
  • Scleroderma → ANA
  • Diffuse → anti-scl70
  • Limited → anti-centromere
87
Q

Hip # Management

A
  • Displaced intracapsular → arthroplasty
  • Undisplaced intracapsular → internal fixation + cannulated screw
  • Intertrochanteric → DHS
  • Subtrochanteric → intramedullary nail
88
Q

Urethral trauma

A
  • Bulbar rupture (most common) → retention / perineal haematoma / bloody meatus
  • Membranous rupture → prostate displaced upwards

Ix → ascending urethrogram

89
Q

What is the most common benign intracranial tumour?

A

Meningioma

90
Q

Most common type of malignant brain tumour?

A

Astrocytoma

91
Q

In which brain tumours is raised ICP common earlier on in?

A

Posterior fossa tumours

92
Q

Myotomes

A
93
Q

Management of neutropenic sepsis?

A
  • Abx immediately → Tazocin
  • Do not wait for WBC
  • G-CSF in some patients
94
Q

Which diabetic drug in CKD?

A

Gliptins (DPP4 inhibitor)

95
Q

Shoulder pathologies according to age?

A
  • 40-70 → adhesive capsulitis
  • > 70 → rotator cuff tear or glenohumeral OA
96
Q

Subacromal bursitis features

A
  • Occupational or athletic hx of lifting/moving things
97
Q

Urge (OAB) incontinence treatment

A
  1. Bladder training 6 weeks
  2. Anticholinergics → oxybutynin, tolterodine, darifenacin
  3. Mirabegron
  4. Botulinum toxin A injections
  5. Sacral nerve stimulation + agumentation cystoplasty
98
Q

CTG: Baseline bradycardia and tachycardias

A
  • Bradycardia indicates (severe) fetal distress due to placental abruption/uterine rupture/fetal hypoxia
  • Tachycardia indicates prematurity / hypoxia / fetal distress / maternal pyrexia / exogenous b-agonists
99
Q

CTG: Decelerations

A
  • Early → physiological
  • Late → fetal distress
  • Variable → cord compression, oligohydramnios

Last min FY (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions