Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pathology everything > everything > Flashcards

everything Flashcards

1
Q

define hyperplasia

A

increase in cell numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define metaplasia

A

transformation of a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the aim of the vascular part of inflammation?

A

increase blood flow to the region of damage via vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does the vascular reaction occur?

A

liquid moves into the surrounding tissue as artery blood vessel walls become leakier
chemical mediators cause endothelial layers to contract causing holes in the wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the aim of the chemical reaction of inflammation?

A

get the white blood cells to the damaged soft tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does the chemical reaction of inflammation occur?

A

margination, adhesions, rolling then transendothelial migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the 3 cells present in the chemical reaction of inflammation?

A

WBC/ platelets/ erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the two types of inflammation?

A

acute and chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the predominate cells present in the acute response?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the aims of the acute response of inflammation?

A

complete resolution sometimes cannot be achieved which results in fibrosis §

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 2 predominate cells in the chronic stage of inflammation?

A

lymphocytes/ macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when will the chronic stage of inflammation occur?

A

exposure to persistent infection/ autoimmune (constant) reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where does full regeneration occur during healing?

A

cells with high proliferative capacities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when does healing by fibrosis occur?

A

when there has been damage to the underlying structure (stoma/parenchyma) because the building blocks are no longer there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what 2 components are deposited during healing by fibrosis?

A

collagen, ECM components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the 5 stages of healing?

A 
inflammation 
angiogenesis/ neovascularisation 
migration/proliferation of parenchyma cells 
scar formation (unsuccessful response)
connective tissue remodelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

one complication of healing is deficient scar formation, what does this mean?

A

wound splits open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

explain what excessive granulation tissue means within healing?

A

microscopic blood vessels form on the surface of the wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

explain a complication of healing that results in a hypertrophic scar?

A

excessive collagen formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

define the innate immune response

A

non specific mechanism against bacteria/virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

explain how skin provides an innate immune response?

A

keratin provides a physical barrier
cells continuously sloughed off
sweat contains antimicrobial materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

name 3 non specific innate immune responses?

A

macrophages release protein signals (interleukin 1/6)
fever/heat
pain/swelling/redness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

explain what the adaptive immune response is?

A

relies on antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the role of lymphocytes within the adaptive immune response?

A

produced in the bones marrow, rest in the lymphatic tissue, rapidly carried around the blood and produce b and t cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

where do t cells mature?

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

where do b cells mature?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the role of t cells in relation to the histocompatibility complex?

A

only recognise antigen presented by major histocompatibility complexes, they cannot be activated by the pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how do t cells recognise an invader?

A

macrophage takes a antigen to a t helper cell for identification if foreign an immune response is launched

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the immune response?

A

helper T cells (CD4)–> cytokines –> stimulate B cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are opsonisation?

A

particles targeted for destruction by the phagocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the process of agglunation?

A

antigen is mixed with corresponding antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

name 2 examples of immunodeficiency?

A

bone marrow dysfunction/ HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are 6 causes of secondary immunodeficiency?

A

malnutrition/ burns/ uraemia/ diabetes mellitus/ alcohol/ recreational drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

name 5 general examples of hyperactive immune system?

A

anaphylaxis, asthma, rhinitis, systemic inflammatory response syndrome, auto-immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

name 5 examples of specific diseases where the person has an hyperactive immune system?

A

diabetes m, coeliac, MS, hashimotos thyroiditis, rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is an attenuated vaccination?

A

live weakened pathogen MMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is an inactivated vaccination?

A

part of the pathogen given hep B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is a toxoid vaccination?

A

harmless version of the pathogens toxin- diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is a conjugated vaccination?

A

antigen linked to protein carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how is plaque formed in a atheroma?

A

circulating platelets activated by ligands, depositing chemokine on the endothelial cells causing damage
chemokine bind to receptors on circulating macrophages
monocyte fies to the surface of the vessel
circulating LDL’s enter the damaged wall and macrophages ingest them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what do the following symptoms show: chest pain radiating to the arm/jaw, SOB, palpitations, syncope, nausea

A

angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what does NSTEMI stand for and what is it?

A

non ST segment elevation MI, partially blocked coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what does STEMIs stand for and what is it?

A

ST segment elevation MI, complete blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the treatment of angina?

A

nitrovasodilators/ beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the treatment for a MI?

A

oxygen/pain relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what does PICA stand for in the treatment of MI?

A

percutaneous transcuminal coronary angioplasty

the use of a balloon to open up the artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what does CABG stand for and what is it, within the treatment of MI?

A

coronary artery bypass grafting (new artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what does INR stand for?

A

international normalised ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what does INR do?

A

measure coagulation, higher the number the longer the blood takes to clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

where are the 3 reasons for high INR?

A

warfarin replacement therapy, vit K deficient, liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the definition of thrombus?

A

inappropriate blood clotting meaning the formation of a solid mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is an embolism?

A

initial clot breaks off and travels to a different point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are the 4 locations where a thrombus may form?

A

heart, arteries, capillaries, veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is rheumatic endocarditis?

A

inflammatory condition of the heart and valves, occurs after MI where scar tissue forms which is not as mobile= blood pooling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what conditions comes from blood pooling?

A

atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is an aneurysm?

A

heart muscle dies and becomes thinner, cant handle the pressure= dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are the causes of abnormalities of clotting?

A

pregnancy, contraceptive pill, following trauma, damage to the liver, tumours, thickening of the blood (thrombocythaemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is shock?

A

a medical emergency, decreased blood flow and increased waste products in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are the 3 stages of shock?

A

compensated, non compensated, irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

explain the compensated part of shock?

A

non progressive, blood volume loss 15-25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

explain the non-compensated part of shock?

A

progressive, blood loss over 25%, need CPR/ blood transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

explain the irreversible part of shock?

A

failure to restore circulation, critical organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is hypovolaemic shock?

A

internal/external haemorrhage (burns)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is cardiogenic shock?

A

large acute MI (cardiovascular disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is septic shock?

A

systemic infection, endotoxins from gram negative/positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is neurogenic shock>?

A

trauma to spinal cord making the body believe that something major has occured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is obstructive shock?

A

obstruction of a major organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is chronic gastritis?

A

ongoing inflammation of the stomach mucosa, provides an environment where dysplasia can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what do the following symptoms show? upper abdo pain, bloating, N+V, belching, loss of apetite

A

chronic gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what are the 6 main causes of chronic gastritis?

A

h pylori, alcohol, tobacco, caffeine, autoimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what type of organism is h.pylori?

A

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

how is h.pylori spread?

A

faecal-oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what are the 3 effects of h.pylori?

A

chypochlorhydria (production of hydrochloric acid are low), gastric atrophy, intenstinal metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

where is a peptic ulcer normally located?

A

antrum, duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what do the following symptoms show? pain worse at night and after meals

A

peptic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are the complications of peptic ulcers?

A

bleeding anaemia, huge haematamesis, perforation leading to peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is barretts oesophagus?

A

stratified squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what do the following symptoms show?dysphagia, weight loss, haemorrhage, sepsis, respiratory fistula with aspiration, more common in female

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what do the following symptoms show? history of barretts oesophagus, more common in males, dysphagia, weight loss, haetamesis, chest pain, vomitting

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

name 4 syndromes that could lead to causing cancer?

A

pernicious anaemia, intestinal metaplasia, neoplastic poly, helicobacter gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is pernicious anaemia?

A

deficiency in the production of RBC’s via lack of vit B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

define the transcloemic spread of cancer?

A

spreads across peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

define the omentum spread of cancer?

A

spreads across the fold of peritoneum connecting stomach with organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

define the mesentery spread of cancer?

A

spreads across fold of peritoneum which attaches stomach/ small I, pancreas, spleen to the wall of the abdo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is coeliacs disease?

A

allergic disease to gluten

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what do the following symptoms show pain/discomfort, chronic constipation, diarhoea, growth stunt in children, anaemia, fatigue

A

coeliac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what are 3 risk factors of small bowel cancer?

A

chrons, coeliac, radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what do the following symptoms show? N+V, reduced appetite, tenderness, guarding, high white cell count…

A

appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

how does c/diff arise?

A

abx change balance of bacteria in the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what do the following symptoms show? diarrhoea, pain, fever

A

c.diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what are the complications of c.diff?

A

diarrhoea, dehydration, toxic mega colon, bowel perforation, sepsis/death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what are the steps in managing c.diff?

A

stop causative antibiotics (clindamycin, ciprofloxacin), start new abx (vancomycin, metronidazole)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what are the signs of crohns?

A

spreads unevenly, at all layers leading to thickened walls and granulomma fissures (cracks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What do the following symptoms show?abdo pain, weight loss, N+V

A

crohns disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what are the 4 complications of crohns disease?

A

anaemia, malabsorption, bowel obstruction, perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what are the factors associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

affects rectum and colon, spreads continously, only ulceration of the 1st layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what do the following symptoms show? diarhoea with blood and mucus…

A

ulcerative colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what are the complications of ulcerative colitis?

A

blood loss, electrolyte disturbances, toxic dilation of the bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what is the national bowel screening programme?

A

targets people 60-75, faecal occult blood test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what do the following symptoms show?blood per rectum, change in bowel habits, iron deficiency, anaemia, weight loss, abdo pain, lump in back passage

A

bowel cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what type of cancer ends in -oma?

A

benign epithelial tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what type of cancer ends in -soma?

A

malignant epithelial tumor

103
Q

name a few examples of premalignant conditions?

A

cirrhosis of the liver, chronic ulcerative colitis, xeroderma pigmentosum, familial polyp coli

104
Q

what do the following symptoms show? crackles, peripheral oedema, ascites (fluid in abdo), pulmonary effusion (fluid outside the lungs)

A

heart failure

105
Q

in terms of valvular disease what is stenosis?

A

narrowed valve

106
Q

in terms of valvular disease, what is regurgitation?

A

leaky valve, allows blood flow in both directions

107
Q

in terms of valvular disease, what is vegetations?

A

clot/infective endocarditis, rheumatic fever (blockage of some sort)

108
Q

what do the following symptoms show? syncope, arrthymias, cardiac murmur, angina

A

valvular heart disease

109
Q

what type of bacteria causes infective endocarditis?

A

L sided (strep) R side (staph)

110
Q

what is cardiomyopathy?

A

dilation of heart chambers

111
Q

what are 3 causes of cardiomyopathy?

A

alcohol, pregnancy, myocarditis

112
Q

what do the following symptoms show? SOB, chest pain, palpitations, syncope, sudden death

A

cardiomyopathy

113
Q

what causes primary hypertension?

A

diet, obesity, alcohol

114
Q

what causes secondary hypertension?

A

problems with kidney, renal artery stenosis, renal parenchymal disease

115
Q

what is a aneurysm?

A

abnormal dilation of the blood vessels

116
Q

what do the following symptoms show, chest pain, breathlessness, calf swelling, syncope, sudden death?

A

pulmonary embolism

117
Q

what is eisenmengers disease and where is it seen?

A

congenital heart disease, septic defect, deoxygenated blood travels around the body

118
Q

what gender is lung cancer more prominent in?

A

male

119
Q

what do the following symptoms show? cough, weight loss, chest pain, dyspnoea

A

lung carcinoma

120
Q

what cancer presents as tightly packed ovioids, with little cytoplasms and no nuclei?

A

small cell carcinoma

121
Q

what type of cancer causes keratin formation due to damage to cillia?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

122
Q

where does adenocarcinoma occur in the lungs?

A

lobes of the lung, associated with TB

123
Q

what are pleural tumors?

A

tumors of the connective tissue sac that covers and attaches lungs to the chest wall

124
Q

what cancer presents 30 years on average after asbestos exposure?

A

malignant mesothelioma

125
Q

what do the following symptoms show? chest pain, dysponea, pleural effusion

A

malignant mesothelial of the lungs

126
Q

what do the following signs show: inflammation of the lung parenchyma, consolidated air spaces, exudate?

A

pneumonia

127
Q

what are the symptoms of pneumonia?

A

fever, SOB, pleuritic chest pain, purulent sputum

128
Q

what is emphysema?

A

enlargement of the air spaces, as the walls are broken down by antitrypsin

129
Q

what do the following symptoms show? cough, wheeze, weight loss, pneumothorax

A

emphysema

130
Q

what is chronic bronchitis?

A

persistent cough and sputum, due to irritation by chemicals

131
Q

what is bronchiectasis?

A

severe infection/ permenant obstruction within the lungs

132
Q

name 2 conditions that can cause the patient to have bronchiectasis?

A

cystic fibrosis, cartageners (ciliated cells dont function to clear mucous)

133
Q

what do the following symptoms show, tachycardia, end inspiratory crackles, cyanosis, wheezing?

A

restrictive lung disease

134
Q

what are the 4 main causes of pulmonary embolism?

A

sepsis, hormone replacement therapy, recent surgery, blockage of pulmonary artery

135
Q

what are the symptoms of a minor PE?

A

acute pain, SOB, coughing up blood

136
Q

what are the symptoms of a major PE?

A

cardiac arrest/ collapse/ death

137
Q

what do the following symptoms show? increase venous pressure, SOB, pink frothy sputum, fluid at the bottom of the lungs…

A

pulmonary oedema

138
Q

name two examples of miscellanous?

A

pneumothorax, atelectasis

139
Q

what is a pneumothorax?

A

air in the pleural cavity so lung cannot expand as well

140
Q

what is atelectasis?

A

incomplete expansion of the lungs, predisposes infection

141
Q

when can atelectasis occur?

A

after surgery with general anaesthetic

142
Q

what do the islets of langerhams do?

A

hormone secreting cells, insulin/glucagon

143
Q

what are the actions of insulin?

A

uptake of amino acids/glucose, increase glycogen, promotes storage of fats (estirification)

144
Q

what are the symptoms of diabetes?

A

polyuria, polydipsia, hunger, weight loss

145
Q

what is gestational diabetes?

A

hormonal changes during pregnany causes the mother to get diabetes

146
Q

what are the dangers associated with gestational diabetes to the mother?

A

risk of type 2 diabetes in later life, hypertension, pre eclampsia, oedema/albumin in urine, obstructed labour

147
Q

what are the dangers associated with gestational diabetes to the child?

A

obesity, macrosomma, neonatal hypoglycaemia, neonatal jaundice, respiratory distress syndrome

148
Q

what are the risk factors to mothers getting gestational diabetes?

A

maternal age, family history, african-north american nature, previous baby over 4kg, smoking

149
Q

what can cause secondary diabetes mellitus?

A

chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, pancreatic surgery, haemachromatitis (high levels of haemoglobin), endocrine disease (cushings disease)

150
Q

what are the biochemical diagnosis of diabetes?

A

fasting plasma glucose over 7.ommol, 2 hours after a 75g oral glucose load (11.1mmol), random glucose level over 11.1

151
Q

what is diabetic retinopathy?

A

proliferation of blood vessels in the retina causing fluid exudation

152
Q

what is diabetic neuropathy?

A

microangiopathy of vasa nervosum, causes peripheral numbness, tingling and pain

153
Q

what hormones does the posterior pituitary gland produce?

A

oxytocin, ADH

154
Q

what does the anterior pituitary gland produce?

A

TSH, ACH, FSH, LH, prolactin

155
Q

what syndrommes come from a lack of ACTH?

A

cushings

156
Q

what syndromes come from a disturbance in the levels of growth hormone?

A

quantism, acromegaly

157
Q

what syndromes come from a disturbance in prolactin?

A

sexual dysfunction, infertility, galactorhoea (inappropriate production of milk), absence of menstruation

158
Q

what causes hypopituitarism?

A

ischaemic necrosis of the pituitary (sheenans syndrome), non functioning adenomas, surgery, inflammatory regions

159
Q

what causes hyperthyroidism?

A

graves, quevains thyroiditis, toxic multinodular goitre

160
Q

what do the following symptoms show?rapid weight loss, intolerance to heat, bulging eyes, goitre, tacchycardia, finger clubbing, tremor

A

hyperthyroidism

161
Q

what causes hypothyroidism?

A

iodine deficient, hashimotots thyroiditis, pituitary gland defect

162
Q

what do the following symptoms show? hair loss, lethargic, constipation, muscle weakness, intolerance to cold, receeding hairlines, thick tongue

A

hypothyroidism

163
Q

what is the most common thyroid cancer?

A

papilary carcinoma

164
Q

what do the following symptoms show? muscle irratability, intermittent muscle spasms, lethargy, seizures

A

hypoparathyroidism

165
Q

what do the following symptoms show? constipation, seizures, muscle wasting, polyuria, bone fractures, kidney stones

A

hyperparathyroidism

166
Q

what are the 3 functions of the glucocorticoid cortisol?

A

regulates blood sugar, inhibits inflammation, stress response

167
Q

what sequence controls the production of cortisol?

A

circadien rythme

168
Q

what do the following symptoms show? emotional disturbances, moon face, osteoporosis, cardiac hypertrophy, buffalo hump, obesity, thin skin and increased abdo fat

A

cushings syndrome

169
Q

what do the following symptoms show, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, weight loss, hyper pigmentation, low sodium

A

addisons disease

170
Q

what do the following symptoms show… fever, vomitting, loin pain and tenderness

A

pyelonephritis

171
Q

what do the following symptoms show, flu like symptoms, swollen tender prostrate

A

prostatitis

172
Q

what do the following signs indicate, low urine volume and rising plasma urea/creatine?

A

acute renal failure

173
Q

what is glomerulonephritis?

A

leakage of protein/ urea into the blood

174
Q

what are stones and what age do they occur most in?

A

20-40, crystal aggregates

175
Q

what are the risk factors for kidney stones?

A

dehydration, loop diuretics, antacids, corticosteroids, theophylline, aspirin, recurrent UTI’s

176
Q

what age does renal cancer occur most freq in?

A

50-70 years

177
Q

what do the following symptoms show?haematuria, loin pain, abdo pain, abdo mass

A

renal cancer

178
Q

what changes occur in the prostrate during benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

goes from 20gsm to 60-100 gsm

179
Q

what do the following symptoms show? increased freq urine, nocturia, terminal dribbling, enlarged prostrate

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

180
Q

what do the following symptoms show, nocturia, hesitancy, poor stream, terminal dribbling, hard irregular prostrate?

A

prostrate cancer

181
Q

what is the main sign of prostrate Ca?

A

raised prostrate specific antigen

182
Q

what is the treatment for testicular torsions?

A

bilateral surgery, orchidopex

183
Q

what age range does testicular cancer most freq occur in?

A

15-44 years old

184
Q

what is the fibroocystic disease of the breast?

A

lumpiness of the breast, least to pain and tenderness

185
Q

what age groups do mamographys occur in?

A

50-70 years old

186
Q

what do the following symptoms show, red/tendr/warm breasts

A

mastitis

187
Q

what benign tumours can be found in the breast?

A

fibroadenoma, papilloma

188
Q

what malignant tumours can be found in the breast?

A

ductal carcinoma, lobular carcinoma, padgets disease

189
Q

what is the name of the cancer where it presents as mobile lumps in the breast?

A

fibroadenoma

190
Q

how does breast cancer present?

A

lump, skin dimpling, change in colour and texture of the nipple, nipple discharge

191
Q

what is padgets disease of the nipple?

A

eczema type rash with itching, bleeding, shows signs of an underlying cancer

192
Q

what is HPV?

A

virus transmitted by sex

193
Q

what are low risk examples of HIV?

A

warts/ veruccas

194
Q

what are high risk examples of HIV?

A

cervical ca

195
Q

abnormal discharge and bleeding in women is signs of…

A

cervical cancer

196
Q

what are endocervical polyps made up of?

A

benign stromal cells and glandular epithelium

197
Q

what is menorrhagia?

A

heavy menstrual periods (80ml+), lasting more than 7 days

198
Q

what can be the causes of menorrhagia?

A

fibroids, endometriosis, polyp, dysfunctional uterine bleeding

199
Q

what is the treatment for menorrhagia?

A

mirena coil, metanamic acid/ traneaximic acid, cocp, endometrial ablation

200
Q

where do fibroids arise from?

A

myometrium (uterine muscular walls)

201
Q

pelvic pain and heavy periods is signs of…

A

fibroids

202
Q

abnormal bleeding, pelvic pain and painful sex are symptoms of…

A

endometritis

203
Q

what is endometriosis

A

endometrial tissue in the wrong location

204
Q

heavy/painful periods, pelvic pain, painful sex are all examples of

A

endometriosis

205
Q

what does post menopausal bleeding suggest?

A

endometrial cancer

206
Q

what are cystadenomas?

A

large fluid filled cysts

207
Q

irregular periods, no periods and infertility could all be associated with…

A

polycystic ovarian syndrome

208
Q

what is the treatment for polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

cocp, metformin, clomifene

209
Q

what is the function of the skin in relation to a vitamin?

A

vit D synthesis allowing the body to absorb calcium from the gut which mineralises bone

210
Q

what is the function of the epidermis

A

blocks uv radiation

211
Q

what is the cellular function of the basal layer?

A

tall nuclei, keratinocytes (not yet matured),

212
Q

what is the spinosum?

A

cell to cell protein bridges

213
Q

what occurs in the corneum?

A

melin is produced that protects from uv

214
Q

what is a macule?

A

flat patch of area of altered color

215
Q

what is a patch

A

flat area of altered colour/texture

216
Q

what is a papule?

A

lesion under 0.5 cm

217
Q

what is a nodule?

A

lesion over 0.5 cm

218
Q

what is a vesicle?

A

raised clear fluid filled lesion under 0.5 cm

219
Q

what is a bulla?

A

raised clear fluid filled lesion over 0.5cm

220
Q

where does fibroepithelial polyps occur?

A

sights of friction

221
Q

what is a naevi?

A

proliferation of benign melanocytes

222
Q

what is seborrheic keratosis?

A

occurs at head/trunk/neck, brown stuck on appearance

223
Q

what is a haemogioma?

A

vascular tumour of the dermis, red/bluey surface, made up of RBC and epidermis

224
Q

what are the characteristics of basal cell carcinoma?

A

slow growing, occurs at sun exposed sites, only invades locally, rolled edges, dilated blood vessels

225
Q

what is a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma?

A

bowens disease

226
Q

what are 2 features of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin?

A

large nuclei, keratinised pearls

227
Q

what is a melanoma and where does it occur?

A

sun damaged skin, aggressive and spreads rapidly, proliferaiton of melanocytes

228
Q

what are the features of melanoma

A 
A- asymetry 
B- border is irregular 
C- colour varies 
D- diameter is over 6mm
E- evolution (changes rapidly)
229
Q

what does a melanoma look like under the microscope?

A

white gaps dye to a collection of non supportive melanocytes, melanocytes all have white gaps around them

230
Q

what is psoriasis?

A

increased skin turnover, elbows/ knees/scalp/ penis

231
Q

how does psoriasis show?

A

salmon pink plaques with skin scaling and raised ares

232
Q

how does scabies present/

A

affects in between fingers and spreads down the hands, blistering and redness, grey areas are burrows

233
Q

what do the following symptoms show? headache, stiff neck, dislike of bright lights, cold hands/feet, deteriorate rapidly, rash that turns into purple bruising ..

A

meningitis

234
Q

what population is at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis?

A

women (due to decreased oestrogen)

235
Q

what is the treatment of osteoporosis?

A

aledronic acid/ bisphophates

236
Q

what is gout?

A

produced by the breakdown of purine bases by xathine oxidase, urate deposited as crystals

237
Q

what is a sign of gout?

A

raised uric acid

238
Q

what do the following symptoms show? sudden onset excrutiating pain in joint, redness, warmth, tenderness, stiffness, 1st attack on big toe

A

gout

239
Q

what is pseudogout?

A

calcium pyrophosphate crystals in connective tissue, crystal shedding in joint and cartilage ruptures

240
Q

what is a primary bone cancer?

A

osteoidosteoma

241
Q

what is a herniation?

A

where one part of the brain moves to a different section of the brain

242
Q

what does the frontal lobe do?

A

logical thinking

243
Q

what does the parietal lobe do?

A

movement

244
Q

what does the occipital lobe do?

A

vision

245
Q

what does the temporal lobe do?

A

language

246
Q

what does the cerebellum do?

A

balance

247
Q

what does the brain stem do?

A

resp/cv function

248
Q

what does the broccas area of the brain do?

A

frontal lobe and for speech production

249
Q

what does the wernickes area of the brain do?

A

temporal lobe, speech comprehension of written/spoken language

250
Q

what are the symptoms of a intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

headache, rapid decrease in conscious levels, few survive

251
Q

what are the signs of a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

sponteanous/catastrophic, meningitis symtoms, thunderclap headache

252
Q

what are the signs of a subdural headache?

A

fluctuating conscious levels

253
Q

what are the signs of a extradural haemorrhage?

A

post head injury, slowly falling conscious levels

254
Q

what is parkinsons caused by?

A

accumulation of AB amyloid, tau-neurofibrillarly tangles

pathology everything (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions