Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AR95-1 To Be Continued > Everything > Flashcards

Everything Flashcards

1
Q

What is the form number that a flight is logged on?

A

2408-12 (5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When can you officially log night fight time?

A

From official sun set to official sun rise (6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When does log able flight time start and end?

A

when the a/c starts to roll for take-off or when the a/c lifts off the ground. It ends when the a/c has land and engines stop or an crew change occurs (6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long does a ACM have to turn in his/her IATF once they arrive at their new unit?

A

14 Calendar Days (6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What Forms are in the IATF?

A

DA Form 3513 (Individual flight records folder)
DA Form 759 (individual flight record and flight certificate -Army)
DA Form 7120 (Commanders Task List) (CTL)
DA Form 7122 (Crew member training record)
DA Form 4507 (Crew members grade slip) (6-7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What document governs the ATP and to include the IATF?

A

FM 3-04.300

TC 3-04.11 (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What AR covers special use airspace?

A

AR 95-2 (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When must the Anti-collision lights be on?

A
  • In accordance with host nations flight regulations
  • Between official sunset and sun rise.
  • Acceptations can be made in accordance to AR 95-2 with commander’s approval to modify aircraft lighting requirements depending on threat situation. (8)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three components to the mission approval process?

A

Initial mission approval authority
Briefing officer
Final mission approval authority (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What or who is the Initial Mission approval authority?

A

Commanders or their designate representative. They have to determine if the mission feasible and either reject or accept the mission. (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who assigns a Mission Briefing Officer and what is their purpose?

A

The Commander or designate representative that interacts with the mission crew/ AMC to identify, asses, and mitigate risk. (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who and what is the FMAA?

A

Members of the Chain of Command who are responsible for accepting risk and approving all aviation operations within their Unit. (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is the unit commander required to have a Risk Assessment Work (RAW) sheet?

A

Yes per AR 95-1 (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the form number for the RAW?

A

DA Form 5484 (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long should the Unit keep a copy of the 5484?

A

For at least 30 Days (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For noise sensitive area, unless required by the mission, all Army aircraft will maintain a minimum of _______ feet above the surface of the following: national parks, monument, recreation areas, and scenic river ways administer by the National Park Service, national wildlife refuge, big game refuges, or wildlife ranges administer by the US Fish and Wildlife Service and wilderness and primitive area administered by the US Forest Service.

A

2000 ft (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who can grant a waiver to individual ATP aircraft requirements?

A

The first commander, O-6 or above, in the individual’s chain of command (19)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is the unit required to maintain an aircrew reading file?

A

Yes (20)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If you are qualified on more than one aircraft with would that information be found?

A

IATF, DA Form 759 (21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

To conduct emergency procedures training what must you have?

A

Per the appropriate ATM, set of controls in both crew stations, qualified IP/SP who is current in the mission, type, design, and series at one set of controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If a none PIC ACM fails to meet the ATP requirements the commander must investigate. How long does he have?

A

30 days from when the ACM is notified to complete the investigation (23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When a PIC fails to meet ATP requirements what will happen?

A

The PIC will be placed on a non-medical suspension until the investigation is complete. (23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a none PIC ACM fails to meet ATP requirements what can happen after the Commanders investigation is complete?

A
  • Commander can authorize an extension of up to 30 days to complete requirements
  • Commander requests a waiver for the requirement
  • Commander recommends a Flight Evaluation Board (FEB) (23)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If an extension is granted where would the extension restrictions and conditions be recorded?

A

ACM’s IATF, specifically the DA Form 759 (23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If an extension is granted what can the ACM not do?

A

Restricted from performing PIC and MBO duties until missed ATP requirements are met. (23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If the ACM’s ATP extension is denied or if the ACM fails to complete the ATP requirement before the extension period expires what must the Commander do?

A
  • Non-medical suspension
  • Request ATP requirement wavier from the appropriate authority
  • Recommend or convene a FEB
  • Enter suspension in IATF/759 (23)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If a PIC fails to meet the ATP requirements, who does the extension request go to?

A

The first O-6 in the Chain of Command, if it is approved it will be reported to the first General officer in the chain of command (23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If a PC is denied a waiver or fails to complete the requirements before the extension expires what will happen?

A
  • Place the officer before a FEB
  • Remove officer from the position
  • Request an extension wavier from DCS (23)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A crew member who fails a hands-on performance test will be restricted from performing the _________________________.

A

flying duty for which evaluated (23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If this occurs where will the restriction be recorded?

A

DA Form 7122 and will remain in effect until requirements are completed. (23)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Can the Commander approve his/her own ATP requirements extension?

A

NO (23)

32
Q

If am ACM Fails a Hands-on performance test the Commander must do what?

A
  • Must reclassify ACM to the appropriate RL classification
  • Authorize additional training
  • Reevaluate aviators or impose a temporary suspension from flying duties. (23)
33
Q

Per AR 95-1 what is required to maintain A/C currency?

A

Every 60 days must perform duties as a pilot or PC in the aircraft mission, type, design, and series. (25)

34
Q

If a ACM Fails to maintain currency, what must happen?

A

Must conduct a PFE (25)

35
Q

The PC will be…..(7 things)

A

A. The individual responsible and having final authority for, operating, servicing, and securing the aircraft in which thy pilot.
B. Selected in writing from the unit commander through a qualified crew training program in which crew duties are specified.
C. Qualified, current, and designated RL in a/c mission, type, design, and series.
D. Listed in the flight plan or unit operations log.
E. Responsible for crew briefs.
F. At a crew station with access to the flight controls.
G. Approved per mission approval process before each mission. (26)

36
Q

If two or more aircraft are operating as one flight what must the Commander assign?

A

Air Mission Commander (26)

37
Q

Can UT’s conduct EP training?

A

No (26)

38
Q

What does ARMS stand for?

A

Aviation Resource Management Survey (29)

39
Q

What is the purpose of an ARMS ?

A

Evaluates the management of the unit aviation programs, provide staff assistance, and identifies internal and systemic issues for resolution and not to assign personal or collective blame. (29)

40
Q

How often is an ARMS conducted?

A

Every 24-36 months and should be coordinated with DES (29)

41
Q

What guide lines and regulations must we abide by?

A
  1. Federal aviation regulations. Laws, and rules
  2. The ICAO regulations
  3. Host country regs, laws, and rules
  4. Military regs
  5. Non-aviation Federal and state laws applicable to army aviation operations
  6. DOD FLIP
  7. Aircraft operators manuals, checklists, and applicable airworthiness releases.
42
Q

Smoking and open flame is prohibited within how many feet from and Army aircraft?

A

50 feet (32)

43
Q

During fueling, de-fueling, arming, de-arming, oxygen servicing, and loading or unloading flammable or explosive cargo and maintenance what must be done to the aircraft?

A

Aircraft must be bonded or grounded (32)

44
Q

When can a GPS be used for an IFR flight? non-emergency situation

A
  • If IFR GPS is authorized in the applicable sovereign nation
  • GPS equipment is certified for IFR Operations. (32)
45
Q

Is the AH64D certified for IFR Flight?

A

No, the GPS waypoint must come from an approved non-corruptible data base. Our data base s corruptible. (32)

46
Q

What are the planning fuel requirements?

A

At takeoff, you must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate if situation applies with a VFR reserve of 20 minutes, IFR reserve of 30 minutes at cruise burn rate. (32)

47
Q

What does AR-95 say about icing conditions?

A

Aircraft will not be flown into known or forecasted severe icing conditions. Flight into known or forecast moderate icing conditions the a/c must be equipped with adequate operational deicing or anti-icing equipment. (32)

48
Q

What are the three different forms used for a flight plan?

A

FAA Form 7233-1(flight plan)
DD Form 1801 (DOD International Flight Plan)
DD Form 175 (Military Flight Plan)( 33)

49
Q

For VFR and IFR flights. Destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR/ weather planning minimums for the approach at estimated time of __________ through ___________ after ETA

A

estimated time of arrival, 0ne hour (33)

50
Q

Helicopter SVFR minima is _______mile visibility and clear of cloud unless a higher minimum is required at the airfield.

A

1/2 (33)

51
Q

When there are intermittent weather conditions, ___________weather will apply.

A

predominant (33)

52
Q

Aviators flying helicopters may reduce destination and alternate Category A visibility minimums by _____, but not less than ____mile or metric equivalent

A

50%, 1/4 mile (33)

53
Q

If flying a helicopter can I reduce visibility minimum for a “copter only” approach?

A

No (33)

54
Q

If there is no weather reporting service, the aviator may use the __________ forecast.

A

Area (33)

55
Q

when available we must receive a weather brief from…

A

U.S. military weather service facility (33)

56
Q

If no military weather service facility is available, where can I find information on local weather services?

A

DOD and/or Government flip for guidance(FIH)(33)

57
Q

How long in a weather brief good for?

A

weather forecast will be void after 1.5 hours (33)

58
Q

An alternate airfield is required when filing IFR to a destination under any of the following conditions…

A
  1. radar is required
  2. if navaids are unmonitored
  3. predominant weather is less than 400 feet above and 1 sm the planning minimum required for the approach (33-34)
59
Q

An alternate is not required if descent from en route minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach, and landing can be made in _______conditions.

A

VFR (34)

60
Q

What is acceptable criteria for a suitable alternate airfield?

A
  1. Predominant weather from ETA plus 1 hours is 400 ft, and 1 sm vis or greater than the planning minimum.
  2. Landing can be completed VFR
  3. Can not be ANA(alternate not authorized
  4. Radar not required
  5. Navaid must be monitored
  6. Must be in controlled airspace to the surface
  7. Can not require GPS (34)
61
Q

What is the PC’s responsibility for weight and balance?

A

(1) The accuracy of computations on the DD Form 365–4 (Weight and Balance Clearance Form F–Transport/ Tactical).
(2) That a completed DD Form 365–4 is aboard the aircraft to verify that the weight and center-of-gravity will remain within allowable limits for the entire flight Several DD Forms 365–4 completed for other loadings also may be used to satisfy this requirement. In this case, the actual loading being verified must clearly be within the extremes of the loading shown on the DD Forms 365–4 used for verification.(34)

62
Q

What are the weather takeoff minimums for an aviator that have 50 hours or more of actual weather time as PIC?

A

No Army takeoff minimums (35)

63
Q

what are the weather take off minimums for and aviator with less than 50 hrs actual weather time as a PIC?

A

100 ft ceiling and vis either 1/2mile, RVR1200 ft or metric equivalent.(35)

64
Q

What is Army helicopter SVFR minima?

A

one-half mile visibility and clear of clouds unless higher minimum is required at the airfield.(35)

65
Q

What is the VFR weather minimums for class A airspace?

A

3 sm, Clear of clouds (35)

66
Q

What are the weather minimums for class C/D airspace?

A

3 sm , BCC (35)

67
Q

What is basic cloud clearances (BCC)?

A

500ft below, 1,00ft above and 2,000ft horizontal (35)

68
Q

What is the weather minimums for class E airspace less than 10,000 MSL?

A

3 sm, BCC (35)

69
Q

What is the weather minimums for class E airspace greater than 10,000 MSL?

A

5 sm, 1,000 ft below, 1,000 ft above and 1 sm horizontal (35)

70
Q

What are the weather minimums of Class G airspace for 1,200 ft or less above the surface(regardless of MSL)?

A

Day 1/2 sm, COC

Night 1 sm, COC (35)

71
Q

What are the weather minimums of Class G airspace for more than1,200 ft above the surface but less than 10,000 ft MSL?

A

Day 1 sm, BCC

Night 3 sm BCC (35)

72
Q

What are the weather minimums for Class G airspace for more than 1,200 ft above the surface at or above 10,000 ft MSL?

A

day/night 5 sm, 1000 ft above/below and 1 sm horizontal (35)

73
Q

Helicopter traffic patterns at Army heliports and airfields are normally flown at ____ feet AGL. At other airports, helicopters will avoid the flow of airplane traffic.

A

700 ft AGL (38)

74
Q

When conducting an IFR approach procedure, when can an aircraft descend below the MDA?

A

(1) The approach threshold of the runway, or the approach lights or other markings, identifiable with the approach end of the runway or landing area, must be clearly visible to the pilot.
(2) The aircraft must be in a position from which a safe approach to the runway or landing area can be made.(38-39)

75
Q

Is the PC required to closed his/her flight plan?

A

When the flight terminates, the PC will ensure the flight plan is closed as shown in DOD/ U.S. Government FLIP.(39)

76
Q

When is an emergency approach recovery procedure required?

A

In locations without an approved DOD and/or U.S. Government approach or commercially developed approach, an emergency GPS recovery procedure will be developed per the ATM. (39)

AR95-1 To Be Continued (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions