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everything Flashcards

1
Q

what is net income

A

total income minus tax reliefs (interest on qualifying loans and pension contributions)

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2
Q

what are the conditions to qualify for Business Asset Disposal Relief?

A

5% shareholding;
employee/director;
ownership for 2 years or more;
not used up lifetime allowance of £1mil

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3
Q

how much dividend income is available and who does it apply to

A

£1,000 (to everyone)

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4
Q

what is the difference between gross sums and net sums?

A

gross = total before tax
net = amount left after tax has been deducted

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5
Q

when is investors’ relief (IR) available?

A

unlisted trading co.
min 3 years;
reduces CGT from 20% to 10% for gains arising on disposals of qualifying shares (lifetime limit of £10m);

shares are qualifying if: fully paid ordinary shares for cash consideration; co is a trading co.; at time of issue, no shares were listed on a stock exchange; SH is NOT an employee of co.

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6
Q

what is non-savings income?

A

total income minus savings and dividend income

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7
Q

what is personal allowance and who gets it?

A

£12,570 for everyone who earns less than £100,000
100,000 to £125,140: reduced by £1 for every £2 of net income above £100,000
above £125,140 = NO personal allowance

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8
Q

what is taxable income?

A

total income minus tax reliefs and personal allowance

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9
Q

what is personal savings allowance and who benefits?

A

taxable income up to £37,700: 0% on first £1,000
taxable income £37,700-£125,140: 0% on first £500
taxable income above £125,140: no PSA

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10
Q

what are the tax bands for non-savings income?

A

20-40-45

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11
Q

what are the tax bands for savings income?

A

20-40-45

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12
Q

what are the tax bands for dividends income?

A

8.75-33.75-39.35

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13
Q

how do you figure out which tax band an individual falls into?

A

depends on their NET INCOME (so have to deduct tax reliefs (interest on loans + pension contributions) first

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14
Q

how do you work out an individual’s income tax?

A
  1. calculate total income
  2. deduct tax reliefs (net income)
  3. deduct personal allowance (taxable income)
  4. split into non-savings, savings and dividend income
  5. calculate whether PSA is available
  6. apply relevant tax rates
  7. add everything together (total tax liability)
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15
Q

what filing requirements are associated with a director leaving?

A

co. must update co.’s register of directors + give notice to Companies House by form TM01

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16
Q

what is the statutory order of priority on winding up?

A
  1. liquidator’s fees and expenses
  2. fixed charge creditors
  3. liquidator’s other remuneration
  4. preferential creditors (employees)
  5. prescribed part fund for unsecured creditors
  6. creditors with floating charges
  7. unsecured/trade creditors
  8. interest owed to unsecured creditors
  9. SHs
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17
Q

how much do employees get as preferential creditors?

A

remuneration due in the 4 months prior to winding up subject to max £800 plus accrued holiday pay (+the rest from the prescribed part fund if anything left)

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18
Q

how is the prescribed part fund created?

A

amount of company’s net property will be ring-fenced at 50% for the first £10,000 and 20% thereafter up to maximum fund of £800,000 for floating charges. will be shared rateably among the unsecured creditors

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19
Q

what is the standing test in s 7 HRA?

A

applicant must be a direct victim of the unlawful act and directly affected.

victim test comes from art 34 ECHR. indirect V’s can bring cases in EXCEPTIONAL CIRCUMSTANCES

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20
Q

what is Art 8 ECHR, what type is it and when can it be interfered with?

A

right to private and family life, home and correspondence;
qualified right;
can be interfered with if it’s in accordance with the law pursuant to a legitimate aim and it’s necessary in a democratic society

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21
Q

what is the def of substantial in substantial property transactions?

A
  • more than 100k
  • if between 5-100k, then: substantial IF worth more than 10% of the company’s NET ASSET VALUE
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22
Q

what are the 3 mechanisms for calculating the expectation interest and which one is the most common?

A

cost of cure (most common);
diminution in value;
loss of amenity

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23
Q

what is the cost of cure?

A

cost of substitute or remedial work to put C in the same position they would’ve been in had the contract been performed correctly.

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24
Q

what is the aim of reliance interest?

A

to put C in the position they would’ve been in had they never contracted (backwards looking)

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25
Q

what are the requirements for adding/substituting parties post-limitation?

A

1- the limitation period was current when the proceedings were actually started; and
2- the substitution/addition is necessary

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26
Q

what are the requirements for valid consideration?

A

must not be past;
must move from the promisee;
need not be adequate;
must be sufficient

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27
Q

what is private nuisance used for?

A

for land-based personal interference (physical damage or sensible personal discomfort)

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28
Q

when can public nuisance be argued?

A

when you’re an individual suffering loss (material discomfort) over and above the rest of the class

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29
Q

what is Rylands v Fletcher user for?

A

an isolated escape from D’s land of anything likely to do mischief if it escapes
(ie damage from barrel of paint/acid)

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30
Q

what are the 4 elements of private nuisance?

A

indirect interference, recognised damage, continuous act, unlawful interference

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31
Q

what type of damage is recoverable in public nuisance?

A

property damage and consequential economic loss; personal injury and pure economic loss;
also inconvenience but this has to be material

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32
Q

how is an ordinary partnership taxed?

A

each partner pays tax as an individual on their income/gains

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33
Q

what type of decisions have shorter time limits than the usual JR time limit?

A

planning permission and public procurement decisions

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34
Q

what is a prohibitory injunction?

A

a court order restraining a party from breaching a negative term

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35
Q

what is the contra proferentem rule and where does it apply?

A

used regarding exemption clauses, and general rule is that if there is any doubt as to the meaning of the exemption clause, the ambiguity will be resolved against the party (proferens) seeking to rely on it

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36
Q

what is a non-conforming good and what remedies are available?

A

-short-term right to reject;
-right to repair or replacement;
-right to a price reduction or the final right to reject

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37
Q

when might a negligent misstatement apply?

A

where there is a relationship of sufficient proximity between two parties, the court might find that one party owes a duty of care to the other to take reasonable care that statements made are accurate

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38
Q

how can a contract be discharged by agreement?

A

by subsequent binding contract between the parties

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39
Q

is performance of an existing obligation owed to a third party good consideration?

A

yes

ie cat sitter ex, don’t have to return money

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40
Q

what rule of consideration is closely related to the doctrine of privity of contract?

A

consideration must move from the promisee

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41
Q

what is the legal test for necessity?

A

D must prove they:
a) were acting in an emergency; and
b) were not at fault in causing the emergency.

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42
Q

what losses are recoverable in private nuisance?

A

physical damage, sensible personal discomfort and consequential economic loss

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43
Q

what is the test to determine a breach re the professional standard? (following Bolam)

A

the test is the standard of the ordinary reasonable man exercising and professing to have that special skill

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44
Q

what is the neighbour principle? (Caparo)

A

you must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure someone who is so closely and directly affected by your act that you ought reasonably to have them in mind when considering how to act?

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45
Q

what were the key concepts/tests discussed in Hedley Byrne when establishing a duty of care for pure economic loss caused by a negligent statement?

A

a) reasonable reliance by C on D’s advice;
b) voluntary assumption of responsibility by D for advice;
c) special relationship of trust and confidence between D and C

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46
Q

when is an occupier liable for naturally occurring nuisances?

A

when they knew or ought to have known of a danger and failed to take reasonable steps to abate the nuisance

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47
Q

what does a strict liability regime under the consumer protection act mean?

A

that parties could be found liable without it being necessary to show fault on their part

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48
Q

what is the qualifying fear trigger in loss of self control? (def)

A

that D’s loss of control was attributable to a fear of serious violence

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49
Q

when do acts of third parties break the chain of causation?
(novus actus interveniens)

A

when they’re highly unforeseeable

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50
Q

when can medical treatment break the chain of causation as an act of a third party?

A

when it is so gross and egregious as to be unforeseeable

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51
Q

when do acts of the claimant break the chain of causation?

A

when they are highly unreasonable

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52
Q

intoxication: if it’s a specific intent crime and D voluntarily drunk, what direction will the jury be given?

A

to consider if capable, did D form the intention (MR) of the offence in their intoxicated state

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53
Q

intoxication: if it’s a non-dangerous substance and voluntary intoxication, what direction will the jury be given?

A

to decide whether D has formed the MR in his intoxicated state

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54
Q

what is the approach if your intoxication is involuntary?

A

‘a drunken intent is still an intent’

check to see if D has formed MR in his intoxicated state

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55
Q

intoxication: what is the approach with voluntary intoxication and a basic intent crime? (where recklessness is available)

A

would D have formed the mens rea if sober?

(D will be deemed reckless if they would have foreseen the risk of harm if sober for ex)

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56
Q

what defence is not capable of being relied upon if you are voluntarily intoxicated? (Dowds)

A

self defence due to drunken mistake

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57
Q

if you’re drinking alcohol but are mistaken as to its strength, is your intoxication voluntary or involuntary?

A

voluntary

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58
Q

what type of crime is voluntary intoxication NOT a defence to?

A

basic intent

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59
Q

what is the mens rea of theft

A

dishonestly
intention of permanently depriving

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60
Q

what are the 3 types of impossibility?

A

impossible in fact
impossibility through inadequacy
non-existent crimes (only one that acts as a defence)

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61
Q

where is assault defined?

A

common law

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62
Q

in order to be charged with an attempted offence, how far does D’s action need to go?

A

it needs to be more than merely preparatory

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63
Q

result crimes relate to what aspect of the criminal liability equation?

A

actus reus

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64
Q

when can the defence of self-defence be used and what are its elements?

A

protection of yourself, another and/or property

1) D must honestly believe the use of force was necessary; and
2) the level of force used must’ve been objectively reasonable in the circumstances as D believed them to be

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65
Q

to be potentially classed as a householder case, which of the following must D rely on?

A

protecting themselves or another

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66
Q

what is the AR of robbery?

A

AR of theft
force
on any PERSON
use of threat of force immediately before or at the time of stealing

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67
Q

on what rare occasion does the standard of proof in criminal law shift to the defence and what is the standard then?

A

defence of diminished responsibility
standard = balance of probabilities

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68
Q

which type of accessorial liability requires a causal link between D’s act and what P does?

A

procuring

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69
Q

which requirement of the s 5(2)(b) ‘acts to protect property’ lawful excuse defence is objective?

criminal damage - lawful excuse

A

the damage caused by D must be capable of protecting the property (objective was to whether it was capable)

the others are:
1) D must act to protect property
2) D must believe the property was in immediate need of protection (subjective()
3) D must believe that the means of protection adopted are reasonable (subjective)

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70
Q

what is the MR for s 20?

A

intention or recklessness as to causing some harm

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71
Q

what is the general rule in terms of impossibility acting as a defence for attempted offences?

A

the general rule is that impossibility is not a defence

(with the exception of non-existent crimes ofc!)

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72
Q

when does the first review after arrest need to happen (if you are being detained). and when is the second one?

A

6h after arrival, and every following review is at 9h intervals after that

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73
Q

what is the max period of detention without charge?

A

96h

24h initial, + 12h if extended by superintendent + another 36+24h ONLY if MC agrees!

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74
Q

what is a custody record?

A

sets out everything that happens to the detainee during their stay

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75
Q

who can delay a detainee’s right to contact their solicitor?

A

a superintendent

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76
Q

what is the first type of ID procedure the police will do?
what’s the second?

A

1) VIPER
2) parade

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77
Q

how many people need to be in a parade?

A

D + 8 other people

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78
Q

what are the 3 adverse inferences?

A

s 34; if a fact is later relied on at trial and it would have been reasonable to have mentioned it in the interview

s 36: failure to account for a mark, object or substance

s 37; failure to account for presence at the scene

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79
Q

when can a solicitor be excluded from an interview at a police station?

A

if they are preventing or obstructing qs being put to your client

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80
Q

when must police conduct an identification procedure?

A

when the suspect denies the offence AND the eye-witness has expressed an ability to identify the suspect

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81
Q

when does a criminal D automatically pass the merits test?

(funding)

A

if they are being charged with an indictable only offence or an either-way offence is sent to CC

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82
Q

when is bail decided?

A

at the first hearing

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83
Q

what’s the difference between sending and committing to CC?

A

if not GP - you SEND to CC
if GP, you commit to CC

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84
Q

who does the right of bail not apply to?

A

(a) those appealing their conviction/sentence; or
(b) to Ds being committed for sentence from MC to CC

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85
Q

what is the difference between breaching a bail condition and failing to surrender into custody?

A

failing to surrender is a criminal offence, whereas there is no offence of breaching a bail condition

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86
Q

what are the general rules on further applications for bail?

A

a D who is having a trial in MC can have 2 attempts at getting bail at MC, and 1 attempt on appeal to CC which will be listed no later than 1 BD after receipt of the notice

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87
Q

what are the custody time limits with regards to bail?

A

56 days for trials in MC (summary or either-way); and
182 days for trials in CC (indictable only or either-way) [less any days spent in custody prior to case being sent to CC]

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88
Q

how can previous convictions be used by the prosecution in a bail app?

A

as evidence of substantiating grounds on which D should be remanded to custody, but not grounds on their own

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89
Q

what are the 2 stages of a PTPH?

A

plea and either ‘sentence’ or ‘trial preparation’

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90
Q

what is an arraignment?

A

when you enter a plea at plea stage

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91
Q

what are the main methods to exclude evidence or stop a criminal case?

A

-application for dismissal
-submission of no case to answer
-application under s 78 PACE
-application to exclude confession s 76 PACE
-app to exclude evidence under common law s 82(3) PACE
-abuse of process app

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92
Q

what is an application for dismissal in criminal law?

A

for cases sent to CC. a pre-trial app made after evidence is served and before arraignment

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93
Q

when is a submission of no case to answer submitted in CLP?

A

only available during trial at the close of the prosecution case (Galbraith test)

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94
Q

what is an abuse of process app?
CLP

A

app to stay the indictment where either:

1) D cannot have a fair trial; or
2) continuing the prosecution offends the court’s sense of justice and propriety or would undermine public confidence in the criminal justice system and bring it into disrepute

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95
Q

when can evidence be excluded under s 78 PACE?

A

when it would have such an adverse effect on the fairness of the proceedings that the court ought not to admit it

(only to exclude prosecution evidence)

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96
Q

when is a voir dire used?

A

when there is a dispute on the facts between the defence and prosecution

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97
Q

what is the def of a confession?

A

any statement wholly or partly adverse to the person who made it, whether made to a person in authority or not and whether made in words or otherwise

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98
Q

what are the 2 ways under s 76 PACE to challenge a confession?

A

oppression (2)(a); or
anything said or done which was likely, in the circumstances existing at the time, to render unreliable any confession which might be made by him in consequence thereof (2)(b)
————–
+ court can also order a rebuttal from prosecution that evidence was in fact nOT obtained how it’s set out in (a) and (b) (beyond reasonable doubt)

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99
Q

what is the standard for almost everything the prosecution needs to prove vs what the defence needs to prove?

A

prosecution: beyond reasonable doubt
defence: on the balance of probabilities

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100
Q

what are the time limits for the defence statement and Notice of Intention to Call Defence Witnesses?

A

CC: within 28 days of the date when prosecution complies with its duty of initial disclosure

MC: within 14 days of date when prosecution complies with its duty of initial disclosure

also, a defence statement is compulsory in CC!

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101
Q

how long after indicating plea and a matter being sent to CC will the PTPH be held

A

within 28 days

D will be arraigned and a trial date set

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102
Q

when is a statement hearsay?

A

when it is made out of court; and
the person that made it intended another person to believe it; and
it is adduced as evidence of the matter stated

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103
Q

when can hearsay still be admitted?

A

when the witness is unavailable;
it’s a business doc;
it is in the interests of justice to admit it;
it falls under a common law exception;
it is a previous inconsistent or consistent statement of a witness

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104
Q

what are the different stages of entering a guilty plea and how much can your sentence be reduced at each one?

A

guilty plea at first opportunity = max 1/3
guilty plea at PTPH = max 1/4
guilty plea on first day of trial = max 1/10

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105
Q

what happens if you are on a conditional discharge and commit a further offence?

A

you will be sentenced for the new offence and possibly resentenced for the original offence

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106
Q

when are Newton hearings held?

A

when D pleads guilty but says the facts are different + the judge doesn’t find the basis of plea absurd/equivocal + D’s basis would materially affect sentence

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107
Q

how do suspended sentences work?

A

resentencing does not happen here, rather the suspended sentence is just activated

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108
Q

in what circumstances do you appeal an MC decision to CC?

A

if you’re arguing an error of fact or fact and law

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109
Q

what are the possible appeal routes to HC?

A

case stated (error of law/magistrates acted in excess of jurisdiction);
app for JR (unfairness, bias or procedural irregularity)

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110
Q

if you appeal a decision from CC to CA, what sentencing powers does CA have?

A

same as CC< can’t be more excessive

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111
Q

how does requesting leave to appeal from the CA work?

A

first you apply to the single judge, and if they refuse, then can renew app for leave to the full court of 2 or 3 judges where app will be reconsidered by oral hearing

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112
Q

if you are sentenced in MC, what are the prosecution’s options for appealing?

A

can’t appeal against conviction or sentence
can only appeal to Divisional Court by way of case stated if there is an error of law/excess of jurisdiction

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113
Q

when sentenced in MC< what it D’s timeline for appealing?

A

notice of appeal must be lodged within 15 BDs of sentence(!)

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114
Q

what happens at your appeal hearing when you appeal a conviction to CC? (from MC)

A

there will be a rehearing of her case before a judge and 2 lay magistrates which will proceed in the same way as her original trial
neither defence nor prosecution are restricted to the same evidence as the original trial
evidence will be called and witnesses cross examined
CC then makes an finding of G or NG based on the re-hearing of the evidence

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115
Q

what’s the max sentence a youth court can impose?

A

2 years DTO (detention and training order)

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116
Q

what are youth rehabilitation orders?

A

community orders for youths

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117
Q

what type of interest does the B of a trust have?

A

an equitable proprietary interest

118
Q

what are the 3 requirements for all express trusts?

+ what else is needed for a trust of land? what happens if that requirement is not met?

A

1) the 3 certainties
2) a beneficiary or beneficiaries (or permitted purpose)
3) compliance with applicable perpetuity rules

+ for land: compliance with LPA 1925, s 53(1)(b) (= declaration of trust in writing + signed or in will)
if this isn’t met, the trust is unenforceable

119
Q

what are the 3 certainties for a creation of trust?

A

1) certainty of intention
2) certainty of subject matter
3) certainty of objects

120
Q

how is certainty of intention (trusts) ascertained?

A

by S’s words and conduct, objectively viewed

121
Q

when can Saunders v Vautier be used to collapse the trust?

A

when all Bs’ interests are vested and each has a distinct interest in the trust property (that can be severed without impacting the others)

122
Q

what happens to a remainderman’s interest if he dies before the life interest holder?

what if your interest hadn’t vested yet?

A

his vested right to the capital forms part of his estate and on the life interest holder’s death, T must transfer the capital to his PRs

if interest was contingent at time of death, then no right to capital

123
Q

what type of trusts need to be in writing?

A

testamentary and land trusts

124
Q

what is the crucial difference between a discretionary trust and a power of appointment?

A

the power does not have to be exercised in power of appointment!

and can give it to someone other than T as well

125
Q

what happens to a testamentary ‘trust’ clause if there’s no certainty of intention?

A

it turns into a gift

126
Q

what happens to a lifetime transfer of legal title if there’s no certainty of intention?

A

presumption of resulting trust for original owner applies
(which can be rebutted)

127
Q

what is the difference between vested and contingent interests when you die?

A

if you die, a vested interest passes to your estate, whereas a contingent interest doesn’t

128
Q

what creates a relation of bailor and bailee?

A

having possession of goods but not title to them

129
Q

if you’re authorised to sell goods for someone, what does this make you under trusts law?

A

principal and agent

130
Q

what is required to have certainty of objects?

and what may hinder it regardless

A

it must be possible to compile a complete list of the members of the class

but still watch out for administrative unworkability

131
Q

Paul v Constance: what happens if a joint bank account is purported and treated as for the benefit of both, but under only one’s name?

A

the legal title holder is assumed to hold it on trust for themselves and the other person equally

132
Q

what are the 3 requirements for a charitable purpose trust?

A

1) charitable purpose
2) public benefit
3) wholly and exclusively charitable

133
Q

what is the main aim of constructive trusts?

A

to correct some sort of unfairness or unconscionability

134
Q

when it comes to figuring out ownership in a family home situation, what is the process for joint legal owners?

A

1) presumed equitable joint tenants
2) rebut presumption
3) quantify interests

135
Q

when it comes to figuring out ownership in a family home situation, what is the process for sole legal owners?

A

1) presumed sole beneficial owner
2) establish common intention
3) establish detrimental reliance
4) quantify interests

136
Q

when it comes to figuring out ownership in a family home situation, what is the process for proprietary estoppel?

A

need to have evidence of:

1) assurance; and
2) detrimental reliance; and
3) unconscionable to resile; (and
4) remedy)

137
Q

what is the common law standard of care for administration? general + investments

and the statutory standard of care?

A

general: prudent man of business managing his own affairs
investments: prudent man of business administering a fund for persons for whom he is morally bound to provide

statutory: such care and skill as is reasonable in the circumstances

138
Q

what types of claim are available for secondary liability in trusts?

A

accessory liability (dishonest assistance) and recipient liability (knowing receipt)

139
Q

what is fair-dealing?

A

trustee directly transacting with B to buy their beneficial interest under the trust

140
Q

what type of info is in it the property register>

A

describes the property and any rights benefitting! it (covenants or easements)

141
Q

what’s in the proprietorship register?

A

gives the registered proprietor’s (owner’s) name and address, the class of title and entries affecting ownership (restrictions, indemnity covenants)

142
Q

what’s in the charges register>

A

lists rights burdening! the property (eg mortgage, COVENANTS, easements and leases)

143
Q

what type of surveys are there for pre-property transactions and when are they appropriate?

A

1) basic valuation: min. requirement if mortgage being taken. identifies any major defects that would concern a lender

2) homebuyer’s report: much more detailed. suitable for most properties in reasonable condition

3) full structural survey: especially suitable where property listed/loads of renovations/extensive renovations planned (most expensive option)

144
Q

what happens at pre-exchange?

A

seller’s solicitor provides title and draft contract (heads of terms) and replies to standard enquiries CPSEs.
buyer’s solicitor then investigates title, undertakes searches, reviews CPSEs and raises additional enquiries if necessary

145
Q

what are the main tasks for a buyer’s solicitor after completion?

A

pay SDLT, register the buyer as the owner of the property and the lender as a chargee, at the Land Registry

146
Q

what do you do when you find a positive covenant in the charges register?

A

check if there’s an indemnity covenant in the proprietorship register - if no indemnity, can ignore covenant.
however if there iS an indemnity covenant, assume it binds the property.
in that case, consider whether the covenant has been breached - if it has, seller should provide indemnity covenant at their expense or consider other insurance. if can’t get insurance, approach person with benefit to seek their consent;. if disagree, apply to Lands Tribunal as last resort

147
Q

when do restrictive covenants on unregistered land bind the buyer?

what about +ve covenants?

A

if they’ve been registered as D2 land charges

+ve covenants can’t be registered so only bind buyer if no broken chain of indemnity covenants

148
Q

what must the root of title cover?

A

good title to property:
- adequately describes the land being conveyed
- more than 15 years old
- casts no doubt on seller’s title
- deals with both legal and beneficial title to property

149
Q

how is an index map search useful in terms of unregistered land?

A

it tells you whether the land is actually unregistered!

150
Q

what is the Central Land Charge search form K15 and how is it used?

A

where property unregistered, carried out against full names of the seller and all previous owners referred to in epitome of title.

start with date the oldest owner bought it, of it unknown, start from 1926 until they sold it to next person, and so on for everyone’s period of ownership

151
Q

if you obtain a mortgage and a fixed charge under which you agree not to deal with the property without the bank’s consent, how would this be entered in the registry?

A

restriction on dealing in proprietorship register and mortgage as charge in charges register

152
Q

what is CON29 and what does it include?

A

standard enquiries of local authority:
- planning consents, refusals and completion notices
- building regulations
- roads and public rights of way
- environmental notices (including contaminated land notices)

153
Q

when is a K16 search carried out?

A

against the seller if the transaction is not at full market value

or against buyer taking a mortgage

154
Q

when would you carry out an index map search (SIM)?

A

where the property is:
- unregistered;
- comprises more than one title (registered or unregistered); or
- registered title refers to mineral rights

155
Q

what CPSE enquiries are relevant to commercial property?

A

CPSE1: standard replies

CPSE2: property subject to commercial tenancies

CPSE3: grant of a new lease

156
Q

what are the 2 standard forms for residential property search that are ALWAYS used?

A

property info form TA6 and fittings and content form TA10

TA6: boundaries, alterations, work done, neighbour disputes, occupiers, utility providers, location of utility meters

TA10: items that are included or not in the sale, such as curtains, light fittings, carpets etc

157
Q

what are the 2 main parts of a local search? what are the rest?

A

LLC1 and CON29

drainage and water enquiries CON29DW
desktop environmental search
chancel repair liability

158
Q

what is planning permission for?

A

‘development’
aka demolition, but excludes works which only affect interior!

159
Q

what are building regulation approvals for?

A

external or internal works
(to make sure building works comply with structural standards, safety, environmental protection etc)

160
Q

what is the time period for enforcement of planning permission?

A

BEFORE 25 APRIL 2024
4 years for building works or if changing use to single dwelling house

10 years for any other changes of use or breach of a planning permission condition

AFTER 25 APRIL 2024
10 years for all planning breaches

161
Q

where do you look to to investigate risk of flooding?

A

desktop environmental search

162
Q

what is the primary reason for carrying out a highways search?

A

to ensure the boundary of the property abuts a public highway

163
Q

what is limited title guarantee?

A

seller can only guarantee they’re not aware of any rights having been granted over the property during the period of their ownership, but won’t make any covenant about rights before that

164
Q

what happens to risk in the property at the point of exchange?

ie if building catches on fire

A

it passes to the buyer

(so they should have insurance cover!!)

165
Q

how are newly constructed commercial properties taxed?

A

at 20% standard rated (so automatically in SCPC)

166
Q

what is the correct form of purchase deed for a registered freehold property?
+ when does the buyer sign it?

A

TR1

buyer signs if they’re giving an indemnity covenant

167
Q

when assigning a registered old lease. what documents are needed for execution?

A

TR1 (assignment deed) and licence to assign

168
Q

when is a s 146 notice not required for forfeiture?

A

when it’s being pursued for the non-payment of rent

(landlord can either use peaceable re-entry or court action (if lease has forfeiture clause))

169
Q

what do you do if you want to call a meeting asap to get around the 15 day memorandum period?

A

short notice only saves one day, so serve WR instead and attach memorandum to it! no 15-day display requirement

170
Q

what do you do if you can’t meet the deadline to serve a budget? (as a first step)

A

try to agree an extension with the other party

171
Q

what are the 4 exceptions to the entire obligations rule?

(under discharge of contract by performance)

A

acceptance of partial performance
substantial performance
divisible obligations
wrongful prevention of performance

172
Q

if you voluntarily accept partial performance, what type of payment is the defaulting party entitled to?

A

qunatum meruit = what is deserved

it’s a remedy

173
Q

for a voidable preference claim, what does the liquidator need to prove?

A

that the company was insolvent at the time of the transaction or became so as a result of it, + a desire to prefer the creditor

(desire to prefer is presumed if associate, and timeframe is 6 months for unconnected and 2 years for associate)

174
Q

how far do safe systems of work extend?

(employer’s liability)

A

not only to providing safe equipment for the work, but also doing everything in their power to make sure employees are aware of the risks and insisting that they wear/use the safety equipment

175
Q

what are the requirements for agency under privity of contract?

A
  1. should be clear agent is contracting on principal’s behalf
  2. agent should be authorised to act as agent in relation to contract concerned
  3. consideration must move form the principal (ie who pays)
176
Q

when will a collateral contract be found?

A

when there’s been consideration between the promisor and third party

ie Shanklin Pier v Detel - here assumed due to consideration and communication between the parties (warranty given)

177
Q

what is the difference between direct and indirect bias?

A

direct bias: if you have a direct personal financial interest

indirect bias: test: would the closeness of connection give rise on an objective basis to a real possibility of bias?

ie would fair-minded and informed observer conclude that there was a real possibility of bias? ie closeness of connection, preconceived mindset etc

178
Q

what can courts do with a statutory instrument?

A

quash it if it’s incompatible with the parent Act

179
Q

what percentage is required to satisfy the but for test and what is the next step if that can’t be done?

A

more than 50%
if doesn’t work, look to: material contribution (but only if it’s an industrial disease case!!!)

180
Q

when can you use the material increase test in tort?

A

when dealing with industrial disease cases (only!)

181
Q

what are the guidelines for deciding whether interim injunction should be granted?

A

where it is just and convenient - Cyanamid

step 1: is there a serious q to be tried?

step 2: would damages be an adequate remedy for a party injured by the court’s grant of, or failure to grant, an injunction?

step 3: where does the balance of convenience lie?

182
Q

what sort of damage do you need to suffer under the Consumer Protection Act to be able to bring a claim?

A
  • death,
  • personal injury,
  • loss of/damage to property over £275, - consequential(!) economic loss
183
Q

what is the common law standard of manufacturer liability

A

can claim if manufacturer fell below the standard of a reasonably competent manufacturer

184
Q

when is a misrepresentation by conduct not actionable?

A

when C does not see or hear the attempted misrepresentation as they are not induced by it!

185
Q

what is the def of a misrepresentation?

5 points to be satisfied

A

unambiguous
false
statement of fact
addressed to C
induces C to enter into the contract

186
Q

how can capital losses of a company be set off?

A

ONLY against FUTURE capital gains!

(generally)

187
Q

what’s the difference between special and general damages?

A

special: quantifiable financial losses that have been incurred now/before/at trial

general: all other damages ie your compensation, loss of future earnings etc (unquantifiable!)

188
Q

if you’re a SH in a small co. and you’re removed as a SH, what type of action can you bring?

A

unfair prejudice under legitimate expectation cause the co. might be a quasi-partnership!

( case law)

189
Q

what is the 3 stage test for vicarious liability?

A

1) a tort has been committed
2) by an employee of the co. and
3) during the course of employment

190
Q

what is the effect of a CVA if approved?

A

binds all unsecured creditors
+ secured creditors if they consent

(no automatic moratorium)

191
Q

what is the correct legal test for determining whether a doctor is in breach of duty for failing to advise on risks?

A

the material risk test: medical professionals are under a duty to take reasonable care to ensure that the patient is aware of any material risks involved in any recommended treatment, and of any reasonable alternative or variant treatments,

material risk = one which a reasonable person in the patient’s position would be likely to attach significance to, or the doctor is or should reasonably be aware that the particular patient would be likely to attach significance to

192
Q

what is the reasonable reliance test?

A

1) C relied on D’s advice
2) reasonable for C to rely on D’s advice
3) D knew/ought to know C was relying on advice

193
Q

what do you need to establish for mental incapacity?

(contract)

A

1) that C did not understand what they were doing; and

2) that the other party knew(!) that to be the case

194
Q

what is a non-natural use def in rylands v fletcher?

A

a use which poses an increased risk over and above that of a normal use

195
Q

what % is needed for a SR?

A

AT LEAST 75%

196
Q

what order can the court make in terms of a new tenancy following a s 26 order where the landlord and tenant disagree as to the terms?

A

such terms as the court thinks fit and not exceeding a tenancy of 15 years

197
Q

what are the 3 types of duress?

A

duress to the person
duress to property
economic duress

198
Q

how do you establish duress to the person?

A

1) actual or threatened violence
2) amounts to one factor influencing the decision to enter into the contract

199
Q

how do you establish duress to property?

A

1) seizure or damage to owner’s property
2) but for the duress, the agreement would not have been entered into

200
Q

how do you establish economic duress?

A

1) lack of practical choice
2) caused by illegitimate pressure
3) but for the duress, the agreement would not have been entered into

201
Q

what questions do you ask when trying to establish illegitimate pressure?

A

has there been a threatened breach of contract?
pressure applied in goof or bad faith?
did V protest?
did V affirm?

202
Q

when is an innominate term treated as a condition for the purposes of damages?

A

when the consequence of the breach is to deprive the party ob substantially the whole benefit from the contract

203
Q

what are the different damages for breaching a warranty vs a condition?

A

warranty => damages only

condition => right of election: affirm & damages OR terminate & damages

204
Q

how can a term be incorporated?

A

through signature, notice or course of dealing

205
Q

under UCTA, it is only possible to limit liability for property damage in so far as….

A

…the exemption clause satisfies the requirement of reasonableness

206
Q

how does the obligation to provide a service with reasonable care and skill operate under the Consumer Rights Act?

A

excluding liability will not work
limiting liability depends on the amount of loss caused = will not be binding to the extent that it would prevent the consumer from recovering the price paid

207
Q

what 2 things can you not exclude liability for under UCTA and CRA?

A

death or personal injury caused by negligence

208
Q

what must you show in order to prove inducement for misrepresentation purposes?

A

that the statement was either MATERIAL or C relied upon it personally

material = would’ve influenced a reasonable person = objective

209
Q

what’s the difference between mistake and misrepresentation when it comes to selling assets to third parties?

A

if misrepresentation and fraudster has sold it to 3rd party, then legal title has already passed and you can’t get it back, but if you prove mistake, then the contract was void from the beginning and legal title didn’t pass and you can get it back!

210
Q

what does a finding of mistake mean for the validity of the contract?

A

that it was never concluded - it’s void from the start!

211
Q

when is a statement of intention actionable?

A

when you have no such intention (deliberately fraudulent)

212
Q

what do you need to file at court when issuing an interim order application?

A

application notice form N244
supporting evidence
draft order
fee

213
Q

when does the interim application notice need to be served on the other party?

A

asap and not less than 3 clear days before hearing

214
Q

when is the lates you can file and exchange statements of cost before an interim hearing?

A

not less than 24h before!

215
Q

when does service of an application for summary judgment/interim payment need to take place?

and further evidence?

A

at least 14 days before the hearing

respondent further evidence: at least 7 days before hearing
applicant: at least 3 days before hearing

216
Q

when are jurats used?

A

when you’re signing off an affidavit before someone authorised to administer affidavits, for a search order

217
Q

what must C obtain at trial in order for D’s part 36 offer to have no effect?

A

(so if you get same amount as D offered, then you have to pay D’s costs + interest from date of expiry)

218
Q

what is a calderbank offer?

A

without prejudice save as to costs

219
Q

what happens if you accept a part 36 offer?

A

you get the sum + you get your costs covered by the other party

220
Q

what is the default form that a DR appeal will take?

A

review

(rather than rehearing)

221
Q

what are the 6 stages of passing a bill in Wales?

A

1: decision on whether senedd agrees with the general principles of the bill
2: amending stage
3: second amending stage
4: decision on whether to pass the bill
5: awaiting royal assent
6: royal assent

222
Q

how can MS’s refer qs to the CJEU?

A

in the form of qs about EU law, on which CJEU will then make a preliminary ruling. the ruling will then be returned to the MS, where they can apply it

223
Q

when a statute is repealed, what happens to the subordinate legislation made under it?

A

it is also considered repealed

(exception: the transition period for Brexit, where EU law still applied despite the act having been repealed)

224
Q
A
225
Q

what are constitutional conventions?

A

effectively political rules

(not legal at all! so not enforceable legally)

226
Q

old acts of parliament are subject to implied repeal, but can you impliedly repeal a constitutional statute?

A

no

227
Q

which division of the high court would a negligence claim be brought in?

A

the King’s bench division

228
Q

what happens at the second reading of a bill?

A

a general political debate

229
Q

where is judicial review carried out?

A

by the Administrative court

(in KBD of HC of Justice)

230
Q

what is the amount of the statutory legacy that the spouse receives under intestacy rules?

A

£322,000

231
Q

what is the MR for ABH?

A

intention or recklessness to commit assault or battery

232
Q

what happens if the root of title for an unregistered piece of land refers to a deed of covenant that can’t be traced?

A

the buyer will only be able to obtain a qualified title at the land registry and their future use of the land may be affected if the covenant is later forced

233
Q

how do you remove trustees?

A

if all Bs have S v V rights, then they can do so in writing if all Bs agree
if trust only has 2 trustees, then a new one needs to be appointed before old one removed

234
Q

what are the formalities of a legal easement?

A

deed + registration at Land Registry + for a certain term

235
Q

how do you appeal a decision from CC?

A

with appeal notice and grounds of appeal

236
Q

who can authorise a suspect’s right to have someone informed of their arrest?

A

min. an Inspector

237
Q

what happens if a bill has been abated?

A

both the profit costs and VAT need to be reduced, so there will be 4 entries

238
Q

what is self-dealing and is it valid?

A

self-dealing involves a trustee purchasing assets from the trust or selling assets to the trust

it is voidable as a result (if unauthorised) and can be set aside if Bs wish

239
Q

when do you hold money as an agent vs as a stakeholder?

A

agent if it is your own client’s money, stakeholder if other side’s

240
Q

what are the elements of unlawful act manslaughter?

A

1) intentional/voluntary act
2) unlawful act
3) dangerous act
4) caused the death of the V

241
Q

what is the test for dangerous harm?

(unlawful act manslaughter)

A

the act is dangerous if: sober and reasonable people could foresee the risk of SOME physical harm

(can take into account anything D knows ie that it was an old person)

242
Q

what type of offence is robbery and aggravated criminal damage?

A

indictable only

243
Q

implied legal easements are what type of interests?

A

overriding interest

244
Q

what is retained EU law?

A

EU legislation that continues to have effect under the Withdrawal Agreement

245
Q
A
246
Q

what test is used in householder cases to determine whether D has responded in self-defence?

A

whether the force was grossly disproportionate in the circumstances as D believed them to be, and if not,
whether it was reasonable

247
Q

what is the 5 elements of gross negligence manslaughter?

A

1) duty of care owed to V by D
2) breach of duty
3) obvious and serious risk that D’s conduct COULD cause death
4) evidence breach DID cause death
5) D fell so far below the reasonable person standard that he’s grossly negligent

248
Q

what is the required MR for attempted aggravated arson?

A

intention to damage property by fire and intention/recklessness as to whether human lives were endangered by the damage by fire

249
Q

when can you still be found guilty of murder without the intent to kill/cause GBH?

A

by oblique intent: if death or serious injury was a virtual certainty and D was aware of that

‘oblique intent is not intention but evidence of it’

250
Q

for aggravated burglary, when must D have the offending weapon on them?

A

at the time of committing the burglary

(be it a s 9(1)(a) burglary (at the point of entry) or s 9(1)(b) burglary (on commission or attempted commission of theft or grievous bodily harm))

251
Q

what’s the difference between a s 62 implied easement and Wheeldon v Burrows (implied grant)?

A

s 62 upgrades an informal permission into a legal easement upon conveyance if used continuously,
whereas Wheeldon v Burrows applies to easements that would otherwise be grants (so it’s an implied grant basically), were used as a quasi-easement by the seller before, is necessary for the reasonable enjoyment of C and it’s in use by the common owner at date of transfer

252
Q

what does correct registration of an equitable land charge constitute?
and what happens if you fail to register?

(unregistered land)

A

actual notice! => binding on 3rd parties

if you fail to register it will not be binding on a purchaser (regardless of knowledge!)

253
Q

what is the purpose of doing a full search of the Land Charges register against all the names in the title deeds of unregistered land?

A

to find out if there are any equitable interests

254
Q

who has legislative competence and what does it mean?

A

NI, Scotland and Wales - means they can pass primary legislation (measures) in specified areas without reference to Westminster

255
Q

what are the monarch’s options once a Bill is presented to them?

A

1) grant Royal Assent
2) withhold Royal Assent
3) reserve Royal Assent and defer a decision until later time

256
Q

where must permission be obtained from to start a claim of JR?

A

from the HC

257
Q

when public law rights are at stake, what is the only way in which Cs may proceed?

A

by way of JR

(exclusivity rule: prevents public interest matters from becoming subject to civil proceedings)

258
Q

what are the filing requirements for partnerships?

A

none

259
Q

what is the process for issuing shares?

A

OR to allot (unless ltd co. ordinary shares)
SR to amend articles
SR to disapply pre-emption rights
SR for new class of rights
BR to allot shares

260
Q

what are non-participating preference shares?

A

it means that you get a dividend as a preferred creditor at first, but then the remaining amount of the dividend is only shared between the rest of the creditors, not you again)
(ie contrast with preference shareholders who get first dibs AND a slice of the leftover)

261
Q

what does pre-emption right mean?

A

right of first refusal

262
Q

what’s the difference between default judgment and summary judgment?

A

default is procedural (ie D doesn’t respond) but summary judgment is if the case is weak on the facts so court will consider the merits

263
Q

who is the target co. in financial assistance?

A

the co. whose shares are being acquired

264
Q

how much notice needs to be given to directors when calling a co. board meeting?

A

reasonable notice (Trinidad)

265
Q

what filing requirements follow an issue of shares? (at the CA)

A

SR within 15 days and SH01 form within 1 month

266
Q

what is an IVA?

(individual voluntary arrangement)

A

arrangement where debtor makes a proposal for a compromise of their liabilities with their creditors

267
Q

what is the effect of an interim order obtained during an individual voluntary arrangement?

A

no bankruptcy petition or other proceedings can be commenced against the debtor/their assets without the leave of the court

268
Q

how do you calculate rollover relief for new base cost?

A

1) price of new item - chargeable gain = new base cost

2) price of new item - (chargeable gain - difference between old and new item) = new base cost

269
Q

when must a person register for VAT?

A

if at any month end taxable supplies made by them during the past year exceed £85,000.

270
Q

how do you calculate the VAT on a VAT-inclusive figure?

A

divide the sum by 6

(To calculate the VAT element of a figure, the VAT fraction can be used. The current VAT fraction, based on the standard rate of 20%, is 1/6)

271
Q

when is a term implied into a contract under business efficacy?

A

when it goes to the root of the contract and is so fundamental it can’t be excluded.

272
Q

what are the characteristics of a secondary victim?

A

1) not within the immediate zone of danger but a witness
2) psychiatric injury arises from witnessing the death/pain/danger of primary V
3) sudden and unexpected shock
4) close ties of love and affection
5) C was present at event or witnessed immediate aftermath
6) injury was reasonably foreseeable

273
Q

what is a basic intent offence?

A

one that can be committed recklessly (no intention needed)

274
Q

who decides whether enough ‘force’ has been used to constitute robbery?

A

the jury

275
Q

which offences do ss 1, 8, 9 and 10 of the Theft Act relate to?

A

theft
robbery
burglary
aggravated burglary

276
Q

what is the test for determining whether a SH has been unfairly prejudiced?

A

the reasonable bystander test

277
Q

what are examples of unfairly prejudicial conduct?

A

Negligent or inept management of a company

Disagreements as to company policy

Bad faith

Breaches of the articles of association

Claimant’s conduct (no requirement for C to have clean hands)

Excessive remuneration

Legitimate expectation (in terms of certain small private companies, shareholders may have a legitimate expectation that they be involved in the management of the company, and the prevention of such involvement may equate to unfairly prejudicial conduct)

A CVA treating one creditor unfairly compared to another/material irregularity in the procedure of seeking approval for the CVA

278
Q

on whose behalf is a derivative claim brought?

A

the company’s

279
Q

what are the grounds for bringing a derivative claim?

A

an actual or proposed act or omission involving negligence, default, breach of duty or breach of trust by a director of the company.

280
Q

who can a derivative claim be brought against?

A

director or third party

281
Q

what is the two stage process for succeeding in a derivative claim?

A

1- court decides if there is a prima facie case
2- detailed consideration of criteria/evidence

=> proceed to trial if all satisfactory

282
Q

what are established membership rights that have been enforced under s 33 (just and equitable winding up)?

A

the right to a dividend
right to share in surplus capital (on winding up)
right to vote
right to receive notice of GMs and AGMs

283
Q

what is the quickest way to obtain SH approval?

A

cause can attach memorandum to WR and don’t need to display it for 15 days

284
Q

what voting threshold is required for a BR passed in writing?

A

unanimity

285
Q

what are the 4 tests for insolvency?

A

the cash flow test (inability to pay debts as they fall due)
the balance sheet test (liabilities > assets)
failing to comply with a statutory debt demand of £750
failing to satisfy enforcement of a judgment debt

286
Q

WHAT IS A MORATORIUM?

A

A PERIOD DURING WHICH CREDITORS CANNOT EXERCISE THEIR USUAL RIGHTS AND REMEDIES:

CREDITOR’S CAN’T ENFORCE THEIR SECURITIES
STAY OF LEGAL PROCEEDINGS + CAN’T BRING NEW ONES
NO WINDING UP PROCEDURES CAN BE COMMENCED
NO SH RES CAN BE PASSED TO WIND UP COMPANY
NO ADMINISTRATION PROCEDURE CAN BE STARTED

287
Q

HOW DO YOU OBTAIN A PRE-INSOLVENCY MORATORIUM?

A

BY FILING DOCS AT THE COURT THAT:
THE CO IS OR IS LIKELY TO BECOME UNABLE TO PAY ITS DEBTS
A STATEMENT FROM A LICENSED INSOLVENCY PRACTITIONER SAYING THAT A MORATORIUM IS LIKELY TO SAVE THE COMPANY

288
Q

how long does a pre-insolvency moratorium last?

A

20BDs
can be extended for another 20 by directors

289
Q

what happens if the liquidator of an MVL considers that the company will not be able to pay its debts?

A

has to change it from MVL to CVL (creditors’ voluntary winding up)

290
Q

what is the most common insolvency procedure?

A

CVL (creditors’ voluntary winding up)

290
Q

what are the main docs required for a term loan?

A

term sheet
loan agreement
security document (debenture)

SQE (3 decks)

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