Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSRA Srey > Everything!!! > Flashcards

Everything!!! Flashcards

1
Q

Name some scenarios in which HbA1c is UNreliable?

A

pregnant women, end stage renal disease, HIV infection, splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A skin question with the buzz words “coin shaped lesion” that is dry

A

Think discoid eczema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the name for the eczema affecting hands or feet?

A

pompholyx or dyshidrotic eczema
it causes tiny blisters - itchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the associated underlying systemic disease of CMV retinitis?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What eye condition is Sjogren’s syndrome associated with?

A

keratoconjunctivitis sicca
- gritty eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name some conditions associated with HLA -B27

A

ank spond, reactive arthiritis, IBD, psoriasis, sarcoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What examination finding is suggestive for anterior uveitis

A

positive talbot’s test - pain increases as the eyes converge and pupils constrict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Chvostek’s sign in hypocalcaemia?

A

facial muscle contraction upon tapping of the facial nerve

(moa low calcium, so nerve hyperexcitability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the risk of phimosis?

A

inability to clean under foreskin -> stones -> penile cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What age range of children does Perthes disease present?

A

4-8 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sudden loss of vision + cherry red spot

A

central retinal artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which chemo drug is used to treat CML?

A

Imatinib (Gleevec), it is a genetically targeted drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

rash starting with one spot (herald patch) followed by multiple other pink-red circular/oval lesions

A

pityriasis rosea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what blood gas would you expect in a patient with chronic renal failure?

A

metabolic acidosis with resp compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

small t waves, prominent u waves, prolonged PR and depressed ST - what is the cause?

A

HYPOkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ST depression and inverted T waves in V5-6 (reverse tick)

A

Digoxin toxicity

Bonus: what is a side effect of dig .. green/yellow visual discoloration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which antihypertensive drug interactions with simvatstation

A

amlodipine (weak cyp inhibitor) - dose of simvastatin must be restricted to 10mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which drug can cause gynaecomastia

A

Gosrelein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Shoulder exam shows reduced ROM, weakness, creps, and tenderness over the subacromial area

A

rotator cuff injury (most common is supraspinatus rupture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you test for supraspinatus strength?

A

test resistance to abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What antibiotic do you give for toxoplasmosis?

A

Spiramycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

child with nasal discharge that is initially watery then bloody
inflamed pharynx with greyish membrane
bull neck

A

Diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What bacterial infection is bullous myringitis associated with

A

mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what bacteria causes malignant otitis externa?

A

pseudomonas aurginosa

bonus: how does it present: purulent otorrhoea and red mass lesion in the ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

who is my fave person ever

A

Subo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What organism causes a quinsy

A

strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the next medical step after thrombolysis?

A

heparin or LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the first line regular treatment for stable angina?

A

beta blocker or a CCB such as verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is an undetectable ACTH a strong indicator of?

A

adrenal adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most common epilepsy syndrome in children?

how does it present?

A

benign rolandic epilepsy
ages 7-10yrs
focal aware motor seizures
nighttime
one side of the face - gurgling, grunting, dribbling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

eating broad beans increases risk of haemolysis in which condition?

A

G6PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Radiating leg pain associated with walking but relieved with rest
pain lessens when patient bends forward

A

spinal stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which laxative stains urine red?

A

co-danthramer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how do you calculate the anion gap?

A

(Na+K) - (HCO3- + Cl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how do you diagnose diabetes in children?

A

Random blood glucose >11.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What conditions are mefenamic acid contraindicated in?

A

IBD, severe heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what gestation is downs syndrome screening , including nuchal tranlucency done

A

11-13+6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

what antibody is associated with it?

A

sclerodactlyly (hardening of the skin on the hands which causes fingers to curl inwards), telangectasia, raynauds

Anti-centromere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what does scleroderma mean?

A

tightening and fibrosis of the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

sexual health: how do you treat solitary keratinised warts

A

cryotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

MOA of mini pill

A

thickens cervical mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MOA of injectable progesterone contraceptive

A

inhibits ovulation

+thickens cervical mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MOA of IUS

A

prevents endometrial proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MOA of COCP

A

inhibits ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MOA copper coil

A

decreases sperm motility and survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how does emergency contraception work?

A

inhibits ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Side effect of rifampicin

A

orange tears/urine
abdo pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Abx for dental abcess

A

Amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how do you distinguish viral labryrinthitis with vestibular neuronitis?

A

you get hearing loss with VL and not with VN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do you differentiate vestibular neuronitis and posterior circulation stroke in patients with persistent vertigo?

A

HiNTs exam

head impulse- corrective saccade = VN, normal reflex intact = central cause
unidirectal nysagmus pos = VN
test of skew normal = VN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

which medication is associated with spider naevi?

A

COCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what age should children be able to combine two words?

A

2 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

child can say mama and dada and understands no - how old are they

A

9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what age can a child respond to own name?

A

12 months

55
Q

what age can a child talk in short sentences?

A

3 yrs

56
Q

how do you treat minimal change glomerulonephritis?

A

prednisolone

57
Q

what is a test for cervical myelopathy?

A

Hoffman’s sign - flicking a finger on the patients hand - if the other fingers twitch then it is positive

58
Q

what abx is given as prophylaxis to contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis?

A

oral cipro one of dose or rifampicin

59
Q

what are the features of keratitis?

A

red eye, photophobia and gritty

60
Q

what are the 3 M’s in primary biliary cholangitis?

A

igM
Anti Mitochondrial antibiodies
Middle ages females

61
Q

what UKMEC is positive antiphospholipid antibiodies when considering COCP

A

4

62
Q

how do you treat actinic keratosis?

A

topical fluoroucil 2-3 weeks

63
Q

what is Auspitz’s sign?

A

bleeding when scratching off psoriasis plaques

64
Q

what is the initial treatment for kawasaki disease?

A

high dose aspirin

65
Q

child, high grade fever (resistant to antipyretics) , maculopapular rash, conjunctivitis, erythematous/cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphaednopathy

diagnosis

A

kawasaki

66
Q

why is an echo important to do in kawasaki kids

A

screen for coronary artery aneurysms

67
Q

how do you treat whooping cough?

A

Azithromycin or Clarithromycin if onset of cough is within 21 days

68
Q

anti HBc IGG positive, IGM negative, antiHBs negative, HbsAG positive

A

Chronic hep B infection

if HBsAg remains positive for 6 months then the patient has a chronic infection

igm is produced in ACUTE infections which is then gradually replaced with igg = G for gradual

69
Q

what blood tests would show immunity to hep B following previous infection

A

positive anti-HBc IgG and Anti HBs. HbsAg negative

this vs vaccine –> igG would not be positive in vaccinated

70
Q

blurred vision and shadow in the red reflex

A

cataracts

71
Q

what electrolyte abnormality do you get in addisons

A

HYPOnatraemia and HYPERkalaemia

72
Q

neonate with swelling on head that crosses suture lines

A

caput succedaneum - resolves in few days

73
Q

common cause of RAPD

A

optic neuritis

74
Q

side effect isoniazid (3)

A

peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, hepatotoxicity

75
Q

side effects pyrazinamide

A

arthralgia, gout, hepatotoxicity

76
Q

Treatment of chlamydia in pregnancy?

A

Azithromycin, erythromycin or amox (doxy is contraindicated)

77
Q

name 5 live vaccines

A

BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, oral thypoid

78
Q

What is the argyll robertson pupil

A

small, irregular pupils
no response to light but there is a response to accommodate

Causes
diabetes mellitus
syphilis

79
Q

what is bartters syndrome

A

autosomal recessive
severe hypokalaemia due to defective chloride absorption in the ascending loop of Henle
Features
usually presents in childhood, e.g. Failure to thrive
polyuria, polydipsia
hypokalaemia
normotension
weakness

80
Q

Tenderness distal to the common extensor origin
It is most common in gymnasts, racquet players and golfers who frequently hyperextend at the wrist or carry out frequent supination/pronation. Patients can also complain of hand paraesthesia or aching at the wrist.

A

Radial tunnel syndrome

81
Q

Hoovers sign (msk)

A

Hoover’s sign is used to differentiate organic from non-organic leg paresis. In non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the paretic leg when lifting the non-paretic leg against pressure, this is due to involuntary contralateral hip extension

82
Q

What is berger’s disease

A

iga nephrtopathy, presents visible haematuria, 24-48 hours post URTI

83
Q

Pain on wrist extension against resistance when elbow is extended - diagnosis?

A

lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)

84
Q

what other blood test helps to determine the cause of high ferritin?

A

transferrin saturation - if normal then this excludes iron overload as a cause (such as haemochromatosis)

85
Q

Pain is elicited during wrist flexion and pronation - diagnosis?

A

medial epicondylitis

86
Q

The delusion that a friend or partner has been replaced by an identical-looking impostor

A

Capgras syndrome

87
Q

Most common cause of diarrhoea in HIV patients?

A

Cryptosporidium

88
Q

First line maintenance therapy for Crohn’s?

A

Azathioprine or mercaptopurine

89
Q

man with mitral stenosis with worsening dysphagia

A

left atrial hypertrophy - as the atria enlarges it compresses the oesophagus =dysphagia

90
Q

most common location for a dermoid cyst

A

lateral aspect of the eyebrow

91
Q

what are the 3 main features in haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A
  1. Acute renal failure
  2. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
92
Q

what is PSC? and what is it associated with?

A

chronic inflammation and fibrosis of the bile duct

associated with IBD, esp UC

93
Q

what is PBC?

A

autoimmune disease of the live with destruction of the bile canalicui

94
Q

mode of inheritance of haemochromatosis?

A

autosomal recessive

95
Q

CT shows bilateral hypodensities in the temporal lobes

A

herpes simplex encephalitis

96
Q

what are the characteristic features of tetralogy of falot?

A
  • VSD
  • right ventricular hypertrophy
    -right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (pulmonary stenosis)
  • overriding aorta
97
Q

what is behcet’s syndrome

A

rare
vasculitis

  • mouth ulcers painful
  • genital sores
  • eye inflammation
    -increase risk VTE
98
Q

what is reiter’s syndrome?

A

reactive arthritis
cant see cant pee cant climb tree

anterior uveitis/conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis

99
Q

A newborn baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.

A

Edwards syndrome

100
Q

cleft lip or palate, polydactyly (extra digits), microphthalmia (small eyes), scalp defects, and congenital heart disease.

A

Patau’s syndrome

101
Q

This genetic condition is associated with ‘elfin’ facies, supravalvular aortic stenosis, high calcium, learning disability and outgoing personality

A

Williams syndrome

102
Q

what is fragile X?

A

intellectual disability
long face, large ears, hyperextensible joints
ADHD/Autism
big ballzzzzzzz

103
Q

micrognathia, glossoptosis (downward displacement/retraction of the tongue), cleft palate

A

Pierre-Robin

104
Q

when can kids go back to school if they get:
1. rubella
2. scarlet fever
3. measles
4. chicken pox
5. mumps
6. whooping cough
7. impetigo

A
  1. 5 days from onset of the rash
  2. 24 hours after abx started
  3. 4 days from onset of the rash
  4. all lesions crustyyyy
  5. 5 days from onset of swollen glands
  6. 2 days after abx or 21 dats from symptoms if no abx
  7. lesions crusty and healed or 48hrs after abx started
104
Q

how soon can u drive after tia

A

This condition is a rare skin disorder that typically presents in middle-aged women with diabetes. well-demarcated erythematous plaques on the shins

105
Q

1 month symptom free - no need to tell dvla

A

necrobiosis lipoidica

106
Q

which type of antidepressants is contraindicated in pts taking warfarin

A

ssri

107
Q

abx for human or dog bite

A

co-amox

108
Q

which autoantibody is associated with sjorgens

A

anti ro

109
Q

p450 inducers (9)

A

phenytoin,
carbamazepine
phenobarbitone
rifampicin
St John’s Wort
chronic alcohol intake
griseofulvin
smoking
sulphoylureas

110
Q

First line treatment for acne rosacea

A

Topical ivermectin

111
Q

Symptoms of SSRI discontinuation

A

Mood change, restless, poor sleep, unsteady, sweat, GI, parasthesia

112
Q

Secondary prevention Treatment of TIA

A

Clopidogrel 75mg long term

If not then aspirin and dipyrindamole

113
Q

What day post Partum do women need contraception

A

After 21 days

114
Q

When can you start cocp post pregnancy if breastfeeding

A

After 6 weeks

115
Q

Second line COPD with asthmatic features if SAMA of SAMA failed

A

LABA AND ICS

116
Q

Second like COPD NO asthmatic features

A

LABA and LAMA

117
Q

What is lights criteria pleural effusion

A

Pleural fluid protein / serum protein >0.5
Pleural fluid LDH/ Serum LDH >0.6
Pleural fluid LDH >2/3 serum LDH upper limit of normal

118
Q

Most commonly sprained ligament in inversion injuries of the ankle

A

Anterior talofibular ligament

119
Q

Smear - positive high risk - cytology normal then what?

A

Repeat test at 12 months
If normal then back to normal routine
If positive then rpt cycle
If positive again at 24 months - colposcopy

120
Q

Cervical smear sample inadequate

A

Rpt in 3 months

2 consecutive inadequate then colposcopy

121
Q

Which RA drug should be avoided in patients with aspirin hypersensitivity

A

Sulfasalazine

122
Q

Second treatment of angina if on beta blocker

A

Long acting CCB - MR nifedipine or amlodipine

123
Q

What medications are known to exacerbate plaque psoriasis

A

Beta blockers, NSAIDS initiation, lithium

124
Q

Management of chronic anal fissure

A

Topical GTN

125
Q

Bradycardia with shock

A

IV atropine 500 micrograms - can repeat up to 3gm

126
Q

What is bechets disease

A

Oral ulcers, genital ulcers, uveitis

127
Q

Management of TIA presenting within 7 days

A

Aspirin 300 and review in 24 hrs

128
Q

Initial management of acute limb ischemia

A

Analgesia IV heparin and vascular review

129
Q

Mx of intracapsular hip fracture in healthy pts vs unfit

A

Total hip replacement vs hemiathroplasty

130
Q

When do u use intrameduallsfy nail

A

Subtrochanterjc fracture

131
Q

p450 inhibitors

A

SICKFACES.COM
Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Acute alcohol
Chlorampenicol
Erythomycin
Sulphonamides
.
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

132
Q
A

MSRA Srey (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions