everything Flashcards
(327 cards)
1
Q
If protein is + in urine, what should you do?
A
test kidney function (24hr urine test)
2
Q
What does increased levels of BUN indicate?
A
renal disease and dehydration
3
Q
What does increased levels of Creatinine indicate?
A
pyelonephritis (kidney dysfunction with UTI)
4
Q
What does decreased levels of Creatinine indicate?
A
decreased muscle mass (rare
5
Q
What is the normal amount of residual urine?
A
50-100mL
6
Q
Why do we do urine cultures?
A
to find out what bacteria is in the urine and what antibiotics will work
7
Q
What are some causes of urinary retention?
A
anesthesia, surgery, obstruction (enlarged prostate), childbirth, medication (antihistamines), kidney stones, removal of catheter, STIs, constipation, sacral nerve damage
8
Q
What is Crede’s method?
A
manually pressing on bladder to empty it
9
Q
What are some causes of urinary incontinence?
A
decreased cognition, confusion, diabetes, depression, increased age, pregnancy, obesity, enlarged prostate
10
Q
What do sedatives promote when dealing with urinary incontinence?
A
relaxation
11
Q
What type of incontinence is often associated with a spinal cord injury, and causes incontinence at predictable intervals?
A
reflex
12
Q
What type of incontinence causes the release of urine when coughing, sneezing, or laughing?
A
stress
13
Q
What type of incontinence involves the ongoing unpredictable loss of urine?
A
continuous
14
Q
What type of incontinence has a small time window to void?
A
urge
15
Q
What should nursing care be like for acute incontinence?
A
change sheets/clothes, prevent skin breakdown
16
Q
you can give estrogen to post-menopausal women to deal with incontinence
A
t
17
Q
Body’s Defenses against a UTI
A
acidic pH of urine, one-way valves, bladder muscles, prostate gland secretions (M), vaginal pH (F)
18
Q
What is the most common bacteria that causes UTI’s?
A
E-coil
19
Q
What is “HARD TO VOID”?
A
Causes of UTIs
20
Q
H in “HARD TO VOID”
A
Hormone changes (pregnancy, menopause, birth control)
21
Q
A in “HARD TO VOID
A
Antibiotics
22
Q
R in “HARD TO VOID”
A
Renal stones
23
Q
D in “HARD TO VOID”
A
Diabetes (glucose in urine)
24
Q
T in “HARD TO VOID”
A
Toiletries (baths, powders, perfumes)
25
O in "HARD TO VOID" (1st
Obstruction (enlarged prostate, kidney stones)
26
V in "HARD TO VOID"
VUR (backflow into kidneys)
27
O in "HARD TO VOID" (2nd)
Overextended bladder
28
I in "HARD TO VOID"
indwelling catheters, invasive procedures, intercourse
29
D in "HARD TO VOID" (2nd)
decreased immune system
30
What two things are elevated in a simple UTI?
leukocytes and nitrites
31
S/s of pyleonephritis are the same as UTI except for... (2)
fever, nausea
32
What is CVA tenderness? When is it seen (2)?
back pain (karate chop), pyleonephritis and renal calculi
33
What 4 things are increased with pyleonephritis?
leukocytes, nitrites, WBC, RBC
34
What is a warm sitz bath used in treatment for?
UTI
35
What are renal calculi?
kidney stones
36
What is the pneumonic CRYSTAL used for?
causes of kidney stones
37
Causes of renal calculi
increased protein, increased salt, recurrent infections, hypercalemia, structural blockage of urine, increased uric acid, family history of stones, low activity (immobile)
38
What is a stone lithotripsy?
use of ultrasound shock waves to break apart a kidney stone from the inside through warm water
39
use of ultrasound shock waves to break apart a kidney stone from the inside through warm water
2x, soap and water
40
OBjective data for urinary assessment
inspect skin (breakdown, edema), abdomen (distention), weight gain, palpate for contour/masses/tenderness, percuss bladder, ausculatate for bruit, urine testing, I&O, labs, bladder scan
41
What are ingestion risks?nutritional risks
nausea, vomiting, anorexia, dysphagia, NPO
42
What are digestion risks?
IBD, celiac, CF, lactose intolerance
43
What are metabolism risks?
liver diseases (increases metabolism), older adults (decreased metabolism)
44
T/F: Nutritional requirements change as you age
f
45
Reasons older adults are at risk for nutritional deficits...
decreased saliva, decreased taste, decreased thirst, decreased gag reflex, decreased peristalsis, chronic illness, medications, cognitive impairments, fixed income, decreased access to transportation
46
Name a screening tool for nutrition
BMI
47
BMI 25-29.9
overweight
48
BMI >30
obese
49
BMI < 18.5
underweight
50
underweight
18.5-24.9
51
Does albumin have a long or short half life?
long (21 days)
52
What lab shows chronic protein depletion?
albumin
53
What is an albumin level of < 2.8 indicative of?
edema
54
What lab indicates acute nutritional problems?
prealbumin
55
Does prealbumin have a long or short half life?
short (2 days)
56
decreased Hgb leads to.
decreased gas exchange
57
Name some iron rich foods
meat, fish, soy, eggs, dry fruit, broccoli, kale, spinach, nuts, seeds, PB
58
What is a high cholesterol level indicative of?
poor cardiovascular health
59
What should the total cholesterol level be below?
200 mg/dL
60
What should LDL be below?
100 mg/dL
61
What should triglyceride levels be below?
150 mg/dL
62
HDL levels for MEN should be above...
40 mg/dL
63
HDL levels for WOMEN should be above...
50 mg/dL
64
Diet history includes...
habits, frequency, types of food, amount of food, allergies, preferences, intolerances, symptoms, cultural factors, health factors, medications
65
Cachectic
sunken ribs
66
Bad nutrition shown in POSTURE
sunken chest, hump back
67
Bad nutrition shown in NEURO
irritable, weak, decreased relfexes, fatigue, confusion
68
Edema in lower extremities (regarding nutrition) is caused by a decreased intake of...
protein
69
Who is at risk for dysphagia?
stroke pts, older adults, trauma (HFN), radiation, choking, spasms
70
S/S of dysphagia
choking, coughing, weak voice, aspiration, increased saliva, difficulty chewing, food sticks in throat, food pocketing, facial weakness
71
intake is recorded for foods that become..
liquid at room temp
72
T/F: a mechanical soft diet has INCREASED fiber
F
73
SATA: What can be included in a mechanical soft diet?
a. mashed potatoes
b. raw fruits
c. milk
d. tender meat
e. nuts
a. mashed potatoes
c. milk
d. tender meat
74
What is considered the "starting diet"?
clear liquid diet
75
SATA: What can be included in a clear liquid diet?
a. coffee
b. clear broth
c. ice cream
d. popsicles
e. gelatin
a, b,d,e
76
SATA: which of the following CANNOT be included in a low sodium diet?
a. caffiene
b. smoked meats
c. juice
d. canned vegetables
e. soups
b, d, e
77
What is a fat restrictive diet used to treat?
GI disorders and obesity
78
how many days NPO is considered to be a nutritional risk?
4-7
79
How do you know when to advance a pt to the next diet?
when they are tolerant of their current diet (no nausea/vomiting/diarrhea)
80
Name some interventions of dysphagia
sitting upright, chin tuck, double swallowing, no talking, plenty of time
81
Order the following foods from BEST to WORST to consume for a pt struggling with dysphagia.
a. pudding
b. tomatoes
c. water
d. smoothies
a, d, b, c
82
Name some gas-producing foods
carbonated drinks, fiber, chewing gum
83
What is celiac?
autoimmune related intolerance to gluten
84
T/F: IBS is an inflammatory condition
T
85
how to diagnose IBS
stool analysis
86
mucous in a stool sample is indicative of...
intestinal wall inflammation (lower GI disorder)
87
blood in stool is indicative of..
colon cancer, hemorrhoids, intestinal wall irritation
88
frothy/bulky stool is indicative of..
malabsorption
89
ribbonlike stool is a telltale sign of these two things...
obstruction, colon cancer
90
What is Occult Blood?
"hidden" blood (inside stool)
91
occult blood in stool is indicative of...
hemorrhoids, IBS, infectious diarrhea, tumors, ulcers, anal fissure
92
epithelial cells in stool is indicative of...
inflammatory bowel disorders
93
Nocturnal BMs are associated with what disease?
IBS
94
What is tenismus?
constant feeling of needing to have a BM
95
SATA: Red flags for Colorectal Cancer
a. change in bowel habits
b. vomiting
c. blood in stool
d. tenismus
e. cramping
f. unexplained weight los
a, c, d, e, f
96
Risk factors for Colorectal Cancer...
>50 y.o., family history (IBS), jewish, black, decreased fiber diet, obesity, smoking, alcohol use, Type 2 Diabetes
97
Treatments for Paralytic Ileus
NG tube, exercise, increase food and fluids
98
T/F: With C Diff, you will see blood and pus in stool
t
99
Toxic Megacolon
swelling and inflammation of colon (UC)
100
Treatments for C Diff
Flagyl, Vancomycin, probiotics, surgery, fecal transplant, colonoscopy
101
Causes for hemorrhoids
straining, constipation, on toilet for a long time, pregnancy, heart failure, liver disease
102
How are mild cases of hemorrhoids treated?
steroids
103
What is a stoma?
artificial opening in the abdominal wall
104
BRAT diet
bananas, rice, applesauce, toast
105
T/F: stimulant laxatives are safe for long-term use
f
106
What type of laxative is used short term for a whole bowel cleanse?
saline laxatives
107
SATA: large volume enemas
a. fleet
b. soapsuds
c. tap water
d. saline
c, d
108
which type of enema puts the pt at risk for electrolyte imbalance?
tap water
109
Which type of enema is an irritant that stimulates peristalsis?
soapsuds enema
110
Which type of enema is OTC?
fleet enema
111
What is Kayexelate used to treat?
hyperkalemia
112
What is Lactulose used for?
liver failure
113
Complications of enema
electrolyte imbalance, tissue trauma, vagal nerve stimulation, rigid abdomen, cramping, bleeding
114
When should you stop an enema?
rigid abdomen/bleeding
115
What should a healthy stoma look like?
pink, red, moist, some edema
116
Pallor in a stoma indicates...
decreased blood supply
117
An irritation of a stoma is caused by the leakage of..
An irritation of a stoma is caused by the leakage of..
118
Name the Sleep Stage:
right after you fall asleep, short, light sleep, easily awoken
N1 (Non-REM)
119
Name the Sleep Stage:
muscles relax (30-60 min)
N2 (Non-REM)
120
Name the Sleep Stage:
deep sleep, some body movements, extremely hard to wake
N3 (Non-REM)
121
Polysomnography
sleep study (diagnostic tests, pulse oximetry, electrocardiogram, tests for apnea/restless leg syndrome/bruxism)
122
When is a sleep study NOT done at home?
CHF or Central Sleep Apnea (CNS involvement)
123
How many hours is it recommended to exercise before sleep?
4-6 hours
124
SUBjective data for sleep
exercise patterns, alcohol, smoking, medications, daytime sleepiness, stressors, time went to sleep, how long it took, duration, frequency of awakenings, sleep partner reports
125
Absense of sleep
insomnia
126
complications of insomnia
daytime sleepiness, irritability, decreased LOC
127
those at increased risk for insomnia
geriatric pts, hospitalization
128
segmented sleep
keep getting woken up
129
failure to stay awake during the day
hypersomnia
130
Hypersomnia is common with...
depression, hypothyroidism, type 1 diabetes
131
parasomnia
anything that interferes with sleep (sleep walking/talking, bruxism, nocturnal enuresis, restless leg syndrome)
132
Bruxism
teeth grinding
133
Obstructive Sleep Apnea
apnea caused by large anatomical structures (neck, tongue, obese, smokers)
134
Central Sleep Apnea
common in kids, severe. CNS disturbs sleep frequency per minute
135
complications with sleep apnea
HTN and cardiac arrhythmias
136
How can you test mobility for someone who is bed-bound?
move in bed, positioning, strength and ROM (shrug shoulders, dorsiflex, plantarflex, hand grasp)
137
negative nitrogen balance can lead to...
muscle wasting, anorexia
138
What effect does immobility have on the urinary system?
increased risk for kidney stones, incontinence, UTI, retention
139
What effect does immobility have on the MSK system?
osteoporosis, fractures, joint stiffness, decreased weight bearing abilities, foot drop
140
What effect does immobility have on the respiratory system?
thickening/pooling of secretions, decreased cough, shallow breathing, decreased VC, can cause atelectasis/pneumonia/infections
141
What effect does immobility have on the circulatory system?
venous stasis, decreased BP, edema, clot formation, DVT, varicose veins (spider), PE (clot in lungs)
142
What are normal cardiovascular changes associated with aging?
decreased CO/SV/venous return (can lead to HTN, syncope, MI, stroke, PVD, renal failure, vericose veins)
143
What causes a decrease in height for geriatric patients?
decreased spaces between vetebral discs
144
Normal changes to kidney and liver associated with aging
decreased blood supply, decreased functioning
145
Screening tool for Melanoma
ABCDE
146
What is the most common type of skin cancer?
melanoma
147
What are two AE from polyuria?
dehydration, electrolyte imbalance
148
What is the feeling of needing to urinate all the time?
frequency
149
What is the intense and sudden need to go urinate?
urgency
150
If urine is cloudy, you can expect these things to show up in the lab. SATA
a. RBC
b. Protein
c. WBC
d. Bacteria
e. Mucus
f. Pus
a, c, d, f
151
Does lemon juice, cranberry juice, and increased protein raise or lower the pH of urine?
lowers
152
What color do anticoagulants make urine?
red
153
If ketones are + in urine, what does this indicate?
type 1 diabetes (kids), strenuous exercise
154
If there are + RBCs in urine, what does this indicate?
kidney stones, muscle breakdown, menstrual cycle
155
What does BUN measure?
urea
156
What is a normal BUN?
10-20 mg/dL
157
What does decreased levels of BUN indicate?
overhydration
158
What does Creatinine measure?
kidney function (polynephritis)
159
What do diuretics increase?
urine production
160
What type of incontinence is associated with not getting to the toilet in time due to decreated mobility?
functional
161
What is polynephritis?
kidney infection (UTI)
162
T/F: you can do a urine culture when a patient is on antibiotics
f
163
How should you wipe a patient's perineal area?
front to back
164
T/F: renal calculi can ONLY form in the kidneys
f
165
A renal calculi can be passed independently if it is less than ___mm
5
166
How are most kidney stones passed?
hydration and pain management
167
T/F: a Foley/Retention catheter is used short term
t
168
T/F: A Straight/In and Out Catheter can be used multiple times
F (one-time use)
169
T/F: A suprapubic catheter is used long-term
t
170
Should the urine collection bag be below or above the bladder?
below
171
Dysphagia
difficulty swallowing
172
Who should you consult with for pts with dysphagia?
speech and language
173
Type 1 Bristol
constipation
174
Type 2-4
normal
175
Type 5-7
diarrhea
176
does stress increase or decrease peristalsis?
increase
177
a chronic use of laxatives can lead to...
less responsive intestine
178
overuse of laxatives can lead to
dehydration, electrolyte imbalances
179
T/F: Antibiotics cause diarrhea
t
180
What do NSAIDS increase the risk for (GI)?
GI bleeding
181
What is a good SUBjective question to ask when you are concerned about paralytic ileus for a patient who recently underwent anesthesia?
"have you passed gas yet?"
182
leukocytes in stool is indicative of...
traveler's diarrhea (bacterial infection)
183
unintentional weight loss is a red flag for...
cancer
184
High pitched tinking upon auscultation of the abdomen is indicative of...
obstruction
185
T/F: Constipation is a diagnosis
f
186
constipation is defined as having LESS THAN ____ BMs per week
3
187
what can cause a vagal response?
straining when defacating
188
treatments for constipation...
increase fluid, increase fiber, exercise, laxatives, enemas
189
Encopresis
holding onto feces too long (bathroom in school); causes impaction
190
S/S of impaction
oozing, diarrhea, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, distention, cramping
191
how do you assess impaction?
digital rectal exam
192
2 treatments for impaction:
enema, digital removal (orders)
193
SATA: Mechanical Obstuction
a. paralytic ileus
b. tumors
c. diverticular disease
d. decreased motility
b, c
194
SATA: Non-Mechanical Obstuction
a. paralytic ileus
b. tumors
c. diverticular disease
d. decreased motility
a,d
195
What type of precautions for C Diff?
contact
196
What disease is an overgrowth of bacteria that attacks the lining of the intestines?
C Diff
197
What are dilated engorged veins in the rectal lining?
hemorrhoids
198
Match the stool description with the location of the colostomy.
1. ascending
2. transverse
3. descending
a. 1/2 formed stool
b. normal stool
c. semi-formed stool
1c, 2a, 3b
199
Which laxative can be used long term?
bulk forming
200
What is used as a lubricant for stool?
mineral oil
201
Emollients
stool softener lubricant
202
T/F: you CAN give anti-diarrheal medications with C Diff
f
203
Which position is best to give an enema?
sim's left side lying
204
T/F: when performing an enema, open the clamp fast for the best effects
f
205
a black stoma indicates..
necrosis
206
What is considered the "body clock"
circadian rhythm
207
Which stage of sleep does dreaming occur?
REM
208
What is considered your "restorative sleep"?
REM
209
Nocturnal Enuresis
bed wetting
210
What effect does immobility have on the GI system?
constipation, impaction (decreased exercise, decreased peristalsis)
211
What effect does immobility have on the integumentary system?
skin breakdown, pressure ulcers, friction/shearing (moist)
212
What three things can you use to help move a patient?
trapeze bar, gait belt, lifts
213
Nursing Care for Respiratory system with Immobility
turn, cough. deep breathing. postural drainage, Incentive Spirometer, increase hydration, chest x-ray
214
What bony prominences should you check when assessing an immobile patient?
coccyx, heels, elbows
215
How often should you re-position an immobile patient?
every 2 hours
216
SCDs
pump air to prevent clots in lower extremities (immobile)
217
Which two medications are given to prevent DVT?
Lovenox and Heparin
218
Geriatric patients are above the age of...
65
219
Patients that are above this age are more likely to die in the hospital
85
220
Presbyopia
age-related farsightedness (decreased accomodation)
221
Presbycusis
age related hearing loss
222
Around what age does the size and number of neurons decrease?
mid 20s
223
Which population has the decreased ability to respond to multiple stimuli at once?
geriatric
224
syncope
passing out
225
T/F: geriatric patients have moist mucous membranes
f
226
Why do we give lower doses to the geriatric population?
decreased metabolism
227
T/F: turgor increases with age
f
228
What is the process of emptying the bladder?
micturition
229
How many mL does the average adult urinate per day?
250-450
230
What is excessive urine production
polyuria
231
Which of the following can cause polyuria? SATA
a. renal disease
b. diuretics
c. diabetes
d. decreased fluid intake
e. sickle cell anemia
a, b, c, e
232
What is diminished urine production called?
oliguria
233
What is no urine production?
anuria
234
What is urination at night?
nocturia
235
What is dysuria?
painful urination
236
What is difficulty starting urination
hesitancy
237
What is the medical term for bed-wetting?
enuresis
238
T/F: to promote urination, have the patient lay down comfortably
f
239
How many reps/hour should Kegel exercises be done?
10
240
SUBjective data for urinary assessment
past health history, medications, surgery, diet, urinary patterns, exercise, sleep, cognitive abilities
241
Upon urinary assessment, you percuss the bladder and there is a DULL sound. Does this tell you there is increased/decreased fluid in the bladder?
increased (full)
242
What is hematuria?
blood in urine
243
Describe the normal clarity characteristics of urine
clear/translucent
244
If urine has a strong ammonia smell, what does this indicate?
infection
245
What measures the kidney's ability to concentrate urine/measures renal function?
specific gravity
246
Is the normal pH of urine more acidic, basic, or neutral?
acidic (4.6-8.0)
247
What color does pyridium make urine?
orange/reddish
247
What color do diuretics make urine?
pale yellow
248
Does dairy, veggies, and beans raise or lower the pH of urine?
raise
249
What color does B-Complex Vitamins make urine?
green/bluish
249
What color does iron make urine?
brown/black
250
Is urine dark/clear with dehydration?
dark
251
If urine pH is >8, what does this indicate?
infection
252
If urine pH is <4.6, what does this put the pt at risk for?
kidney stones
253
What is a normal specific gravity
1.010-1.025
254
If specific gravity is > 1.025, does this indicate dehydration or overhydration?
dehydration\][\\
255
If specific gravity is < 1.010, does this indicate dehydration or overhydration?
overhydration
256
What is the normal result for Leukocytes in urine?
negative
257
What is the normal result for ketones in urine?
negative
258
If leukocytes are + in urine, what does this indicate?
inflammation
259
What is the normal result for bilirubin in urine?
negative
260
What should you do if bilirubin is + in urine?
test liver and gallbladder function
261
What is the normal result for glucose in urine?
negative
262
If glucose is + in urine, what does this indicate
type 2 diabetes
263
What is the normal result for nitrites in urine?
negative
264
If there are + nitrites in urine, what does this indicate?
infection of kidneys
265
T/F: When doing a 24-hour urine test, collect the first voided sample
f
266
T/F: If your pt misses a urination when doing a 24-hour urine test, you can just guess the past void and move on with the collection.
f
267
What is the deadliest skin cancer for geriatric patients?
basal cell carcinoma
268
T/F: libido decreases with increasing age
f
269
What should we teach the geriatric population concerning sexual health?
STD/STI prevention, ED
270
T/F: Cognitive impairment is normal with aging
f
271
T/F: Delirium is reversible
t
272
Causes of Delirium
infection, anesthesia, stress, environment, dehydration, sleep deprivation
273
T/F: For a delirious patient, increase the amount of choices they have about their care
f
274
What can you use instead of restraints on an older adult who is showing S/S of delirium?
distracting activities (stacking towels)
275
Dementia has a (quick/gradual) onset, and is (reversible/irreversible)
gradual, irreversible
276
Nursing Care for a patient with Dementia
frequently orient, positive attitude, explain things simply, decrease paranoia, do not lie to pt, observe closely (close to nursing station)
277
What is the most common, yet most untreated disease in the geriatric population
depression
278
What are early indicators for acute illness in the elderly?
mental status change, falls, dehydration, anorexia
279
What is an early indicator of a UTI/Pneumonia/MI in the geriatric population?
confusion
280
What are geriatric LGBTQ+ patients at risk for?
isolation, depression, alcohol abuse, smoking
281
T/F: you are obligated to report any signs of elder abuse
t
282
Education strategies for the older adult
decrease distractions, involve pt directly, speak clear/slow, one idea at a time, relate to past experiences
283
Dysfunctional Complicated Grief
prolonged
284
Anticipatory grief
grief prior to loss (terminal illness/amputation
285
Disenfranchised grief
don't share grief because the cause of death is deemed socially unacceptable
286
Public Tragedy
9/11, COVID, flood, fire
287
Actual loss
occurs from an actual event
288
Perceived loss
event perceived by client, not based in reality
289
Situational loss
loss of a loved one
290
Maturational loss
"developmental"; loss of youth
291
Necessary loss
expected at the end of life
292
Order the Kubler-Ross Grief Cycle
a. bargaining
b. acceptance
c. depression
d. anger
e. denial
e, d, a, c, b
293
S/S of grief
decreased immune response, anger, sleep disturbances, blame, withdrawal pain, panic, decreased neuroendocrine function
294
Nursing Care for a grieving person
establish trust, employ coping strategies, refer to support groups
295
1st Phase of the Dying Process includes...
respiratory congestion, change in respiratory pattern (Cheyne-Stokes), decreased orientation, pallor, increased sleep, anorexia, incontinence, restlessnesss, social withdrawal, hallucinations, saying "goodbye"
296
Palliative Care or Hospice Care?
Relieving symptoms with active treatment
Palliative Care or Hospice Care?
Relieving symptoms with active treatment
297
Palliative Care or Hospice Care?
provide comfort, non-curing
Hospice Care
298
Someone can turn to hospice care if they have less than ___ months to live
6
299
What is Haldol used for?
severe delirium
300
What are anticholinergics used for?
dry secretions
301
Last Will and Testament
states what you want to happen to your assets after you die
302
Power of Attorney
states a person to act on your behalf and handle your finances
303
Medical Power of Attorney
states a person to make medical decisions on your behalf
304
Living Will
describes your wishes for medical treatment (life suport, ventilator, feeding tube, DNR, organ donation)
305
When does the process of discharge begin?
a. when the patient feels better
b. after surgery
c. upon admission
d. after their first round of meds
c
306
T/F: home health is continuous care
f
307
What do Case Managers do?
help with discharge, coordinate patient care and follow-up appointments
308
If a person has chosen not to follow the prescribed treatment, what is this called
Nonadherance
309
Discharge process:
educate, communicate, document
310
What teaching method should you use if a patient has a low health literacy and you want to make sure they understoon their discharge instructions?
teach-back
311
What is discharge disposition?
the patient's anticipated status after discharge/transfer (stable, unstable, or dead)
312
What department normally assesses the patient's home environment concerning discharge?
Physical Therapy
313
What is the most important implementation for discharging a patient?
teaching
314
If a patient is readmitted to the hospital after being discharged, would you consider the discharge to be a success or failure?
failure
315
Payor Sources
Insurance
316
What is Blue Cross Blue Shield
Private Insurance
317
T/F: with private insurance, you get less choices for care
f
318
With what type of insurance is a co-pay or a precertification needed?
private insurance
319
What is mediCAID dependent on?
income
320
Who does mediCAID serve
low income people (based on monthly income
321
low income people (based on monthly income
mediCARE
322
What does the home and community based waiver program do (HCB
keeps people in their homes (homelessness prevention)
323
keeps people in their homes (homelessness prevention)
a, b, c, e
324
T/F insurance covers bathroom equipment
F
325
T/F: insurance CANNOT pay for BOTH a wheelchair and a walker
