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Flying > Everything > Flashcards

Everything Flashcards

1
Q

What is the saying surrounding which way to go with magnetic variation?

A

East is Least and West is best

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2
Q

How far is 1 degree of latitude and why doesn’t this apply to longitude

A

1 degree is 60nm and so 1 minute is 1nm, this only works for latitude as their grid lines stay parallel around the globe

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3
Q

What does QDM and QDR mean?

A

QDM is the magnetic heading from the aircraft to the station, QDM is the magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft

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4
Q

What are the classes for Q-Codes?

A

A = -+2°, B = +-5°, C=+-10°, D = anything less than class C

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5
Q

What is the formula for correction angles

A

Correction angle = drift angle + (Distance Travelled/Distance to go) x drift angle

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6
Q

What is the 1 in 60 rule?

A

1nm subtends an arc of 1° at a distance of 60nm

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7
Q

How can a CRP5 be used to find wind correction

A

1) set wind direction on the wheel
2) Set centre over wind speed on the bottom section and mark the 0kts position
3) Set track on wheel
4) Slide up until penned dot is over planned TAS
5) GS is where the centre dot is and read off drift angle for correction

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8
Q

How does a VOR work?

A

Two radio signals are emitted from the station, one as a reference phase and one as a variable phase which is able to change depending on which radial it is emitted from. The change in wavelength, between the variable phase and reference phase then tells you which radial you’re on

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9
Q

What is buy ballots Law?

A

“Facing the wind you’re left high and dry” meaning when facing the wind the high pressure cell is on your left and so wind rotates around a dry high pressure cell clockwise

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10
Q

What is a cyclone and an anticyclone?

A

An anticyclone is a high pressure cell rotating clockwise and an cyclone is a low pressure cell rotating anticlockwise

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11
Q

What is a warm front?

A

Warm air passing into a region of less warm air which has an average slope of 1:150, contains cirrus at the top going down with, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus which cause rainfall and finally stratus near ground level

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12
Q

What is the risk flying through rain coming from a warm front?

A

The rain may be falling through the freezing level which will then cause airframe icing if flown through

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13
Q

What is a cold front?

A

Cold air passing into a region of warmer air, is very steep at a 1:50 gradient, contains large CB’s all the way up and forces warm air to rise rapidly, may contain rain with cumulus clouds within.

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14
Q

What is an occluded front?

A

When a warm front and a cold front meet and the warm front cuts under the cold front causing building thunderstorms and very aggressive weather

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15
Q

Which way is wind deflected in the northern hemisphere and why?

A

Geostrophic wind is deflected right in the northern hemisphere due to the coriolis force which is because of the earths rotation and the fact that air moves faster at the equator compared to the poles

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16
Q

What is the fohen effect?

A

The fohen effect is where cool moist air rises up a mountainside and passes the dewpoint on the way up causing a cloud to form at the top but then it’s lost some relative moisture and so now is warm dry air passing back through the dewpoint down into the valley of a range. This can then cause roll clouds and turbulence if several streams of air collide in a valley

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17
Q

What is the structure of the atmosphere?

A

The troposphere is the low level which contains most of the cloud and weather, it is 18km high at the poles but is thinned out to 9km at the equator, then the tropopause is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere where most of the high level cloud is contained, then the top of the stratosphere is called the sratopause

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18
Q

What is an inversion layer?

A

When air rises in temperature with rising altitude until a certain point where it sharply drops, there exists a risk of hoar frost when passing through the layer

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19
Q

What are the VFR weather minimums?

A

If < 3,000ft and < 140 KIAS, in sight of the surface with 5km visibility - ONLY IN CLASS G
Between 3,000ft and 10,000ft, 1,500m horizontally and 1,000 ft vertically clear of cloud with 5km vis
Above 10,000ft,m 1,500m horizontally and 1,000ft vertically clear of cloud with 8km visibility

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20
Q

What does a solid green light signal mean?

A

Clear to takeoff if on ground and clear to land if in air

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21
Q

What does a flashing green light signal mean?

A

Cleared to taxi or continue circling

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22
Q

What does a flashing white light signal mean?

A

Return to start point or continue approach and when landed continue to apron

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23
Q

What does a solid red and flashing red light signal mean?

A

Flashing red means do not land AD closed and solid red means Stop if on ground or give way and continue circling if in air

24
Q

What is the rule for flight level options?

A

East london is odd meaning heading east requires odd flight levels + 500ft so 3500ft, 5500ft, 7500ft and conversely, westbound travel needs even flight levels + 500ft

25
Q

What are the low flying rules?

A

500ft clear of all people or buildings, and 1000ft if flying over a congested area OR minimum height needed to safely glide away from a built-up area if the engine were to fail

26
Q

what is the legal definition of night?

A

Night is 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise, OR, between the end of evening civil twilight to the start of morning civil twilight, OR, when the centre of the suns disk is 6° below the horizon

27
Q

What are the different lengths of a runway?

A

TORA is the take off run distance available, and is the stopway to the start of the threshold, TODA is the take off distance available and is TORA + any clearway allowing for a 50ft obstacle. LDA is the landing distance available and is just the runway with no stopway, ASDA is the accelerate stop distance available which can be used for rejected takeoffs

28
Q

What are the different lengths of a runway?

A

TORA is the take off run distance available, and is the stopway to the start of the threshold, TODA is the take off distance available and is TORA + any clearway allowing for a 50ft obstacle. LDA is the landing distance available and is just the runway with no stopway, ASDA is the accelerate stop distance available which can be used for rejected takeoffs

29
Q

What are the dimensions of an ATZ?

A

2nm in diameter from the midpoint of the longest runway, with it being 2.5nm when the runway is longer than 1850m. 2000ft AAL upper limit

30
Q

What are the dimensions of a MATZ

A

5nm centre up to 3000ft from SFC, then stubs with dimensions 2nm in diameter each side from the longest runway, with heights 1000ft - 3000ft AAL

31
Q

What are the airworthiness requirements?

A

All aircraft need to have a Certificate of airworthiness which is non-expiring but needs to have an airworthiness review certificate (ARC) and a certificate of release to service (CRS) from a maintenance crew. Any unapproved changes to the airframe will void the CofA, not following maintenance regulations (100hr inspections) will also do this. The CofA + CRS and POH must be carried on every flight

32
Q

What is required on a flight staying within the current FIR?

A

POH, Current charts License documents + ID, Nav plog, CofA, CRS, ARC, Certificate of registration

33
Q

What is required on a flight if going outside the current FIR?

A

POH, Current charts License documents + ID, Nav plog, CofA, CRS, ARC, Certificate of registration, Noise certificate, Radio licence, Insurance certificate, Certificate of registration

34
Q

When must a flight plan be filed?

A

When: Crossing an FIR boundary, Subject to an ATSU service, or when leaving the aerodrome at night. This can be however an abbreviated FPLN over radio when getting a service

35
Q

What is needed to keep the SEP rating valid?

A

The PPL certificate is non expiring but the SEP rating is only valid if you have the following in the past 12 months: 12 hours flight time with at least 6 hours PIC, 12 takeoffs and landings

36
Q

What are the minimum to carry pax?

A

SEP minima + 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in the last 90 days, at least least one set at night if a night flight is taking place, UNLESS an IR is held

37
Q

What are the legal fuel minima?

A

45 minute reserve by night for arrival, and 30 minutes by day, meaning 7.5 US gal by night and 5 US gal by day for a PA28 Warrior II

38
Q

What are the minimum lights to have working and fitted?

A

By day only the anti collision light, which needs to be on while the engine is running and by night: anti collision and navigation lights and strobes

39
Q

What is a CTR, CTA and TMA

A

A CTR (Control zone) is ground level to some height and surrounds the aerodrome, normally class D, a CTA (Control area) is above a CTR and is another layer of controlled airspace that is not from ground level, also class D and a TMA (Terminal control area) is in the upper airways and is class A so is forbidden to VFR traffic

40
Q

What is to happen if two aircraft are on converging tracks outside a control zone not under a service from an ATSU

A

Both must turn right

41
Q

What is the HASELL checklist

A

Height - Able to recover by 3,000ft
Airframe - Flaps set, gryos caged
Security - Loose articles stowed, hatches and harnesses
Engine - Fuel sufficient, correct tank, T’s & P’s
Location - Clear of airspace, airfields, DA’s etc
Lookout - 90 degree clearing turns either way

42
Q

What are the downwind checks?

A

Brakes - Parking off, pressure released
Undercarriage - Down and fixed
Mixture - Full reach
Fuel - Pump on, correct tank
Landing Light - On
Carb heat - As req
Flap - As req
Hatches and harnesses - Secure
Clearance - As req

43
Q

What is Vs0 and Vs1 speed?

A

Vs0 = 44 KIAs and is stall speed dirty, Vs1 = 50 KIAS and is stall speed clean

44
Q

What is Vr, Vx, Vy, Vapp, Vfe, Vno, Va and best glide speed?

A

Vr = 55 rotation speed
Vx = 63 best angle of climb speed
Vy = 79 best rate of climb speed
Vapp = 65 (70 with wind) approach speed
Vfe = 103 Max flap extension speed
Vno = 126 Max structural cruising speed
Va = 88 -> 111 Maneuvering speed
Best glide = 73

45
Q

What is the MTOW of a PA28 Cadet

A

Normal category = 2325 lbs
Utility category = 2020 lbs

46
Q

What are the CAA required safety multiplies for takeoff and landing?

A

1.33x for takeoff
1.43x for landing

47
Q

What is contained in the basic empty mass

A

Aircraft with everything in but pilots, pax, ballast for balance, and useable fuel

48
Q

What is the formula for the moment arm

A

(sum of all individual moments)/Gross mass

49
Q

What effect does CG have on stability?

A

A forward VG will cause high stability and will require lots of control input but an aft CG will cause instability. This is because of moment arms being dependent on distance from the pivot point which is the tail

50
Q

What effect does CG have on stability?

A

A forward VG will cause high stability and will require lots of control input but an aft CG will cause instability. This is because of moment arms being dependent on distance from the pivot point which is the tail

51
Q

What are the g load limits for the normal category

A

+3.8g and -1.52g

52
Q

How much fuel and oil does the warrior take?

A

50 US gallons in tank, 48 gallons useable, 8 US Quarts

53
Q

What are the pressure allowances for the oil?

A

25 psi to 100 psi

54
Q

How much pressure do the tires need on the warrior?

A

24 psi on the main gears and 30 psi on the nose gear

55
Q

What’s the difference between the normal and utility category?

A

The normal category only allows basic maneuvers and the utility category allows basic aerobatic maneuvers such as spins if the aircraft POH permits it

Flying (1 decks)

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