Everything Flashcards
1
Q
What were Charles Darwin’s four main observations in the Galapagos Islands
A
Variation
Inheritance
Superfecundity
Selection
2
Q
Which one of Darwin’s observations states that not all creatures of a species are identical
A
Variation
3
Q
Which one of Darwin’s observations states that some features of a species are passed down from generation to generation
A
Inheritance
4
Q
Which one of Darwin’s observations states that the absence of limiting factors will lead a species to continue to reproduce
A
Superfecundity
5
Q
Which one of Darwin’s observations states that not all members of a species will reach the stage of reproduction. Those who die before this stage will not have the ability to pass on their genetics
A
Selection
6
Q
Which two individuals first described the theory of natural selection
A
Charles Darwin
Alfred Wallace
7
Q
Which Darwin theory states that members of species choose mates based on heritable traits that facilitate reproductive success
A
Sexual selection
8
Q
An offspring’s inherited alleles
A
Genotype
9
Q
Observable expression of a genotype
A
Phenotype
10
Q
In Mendelian Genetics, alleles can be _________ or _________
A
dominant; recessive
11
Q
Which set of principles propose that each parent has:
two alleles
passes one of these alleles onto offspring
each allele can either be dominant or recessive
the possibility of passing on the allele to offspring is random
A
Mendelian Genetics
12
Q
What objects did Gregory Mendel use to study heritability
A
Pea plants
13
Q
In Mendel’s study which pea plant had two recessive alleles
A
Wrinkled pea plant
14
Q
In Mendel’s study, which pea plant had two dominant alleles
A
Smooth pea plant
15
Q
What tool did Mendel use to discover all possible allele combinations
A
Punnett Square
16
Q
Do dominant alleles repress recessive alleles
A
No
17
Q
What do nucleotide pairs cause when they do not match
A
Mutations
18
Q
What kind of mutation occurs when there are changes in the nucleotide sequence of a gene
A
Point mutations
19
Q
What kind of mutation do mutagens sometimes cause
A
Point mutations
20
Q
What kind of mutation sometimes occurs when there are spontaneous errors of replication in DNA
A
Point mutations
21
Q
Are mutations sometimes random and accidental (e.g., UV rays)
A
Yes
22
Q
Mutations may ______ or ______ an individual’s ability to survive
A
help; harm
23
Q
What does evolution favor
A
Reproducibility
24
Q
Evolution is NOT ________
A
Intentional
25
What does natural selection reward positive mutations with
Reproducibility
26
How does natural selection get rid of mutations
By weeding out the genome
27
What kind of selection favors a shift in characteristic within a population
Directional selection
28
During the industrial revolution in England, trees became darker from soot. Lighter moths were originally the dominant phenotype; however, darker moths blended in better. Darker moths became the dominant phenotype. What kind of selection is this an example of
Directional selection
29
During the industrial revolution in England, trees became darker from soot. Lighter moths were originally the dominant phenotype; however, darker moths blended in better. Darker moths became the dominant phenotype. When the trees were no longer darker, the white moth population was restored. What kind of selection is this an example of
Stabilizing selection
30
Reduces variation of a characteristic within a population
Stabilizing selection
31
What kind of selection favors divergence of a characteristic within a population
Disruptive selection
32
What kind of evolution has geological and ecological features that may guide the evolution of different species toward the same traits
Convergent evolution
33
Regarding convergent evolution, what term is used to describe species with the same structure but with minute variations (specialization)
Homology
34
Regarding convergent evolution, what term is used to describe species with evolution based on common evolutionary ancestry
Homology
35
Regarding convergent evolution, what term is used to describe species with evolution towards a future
Analogy
36
Regarding convergent evolution, what term is used to describe species with evolution of a feature in distantly related species towards the same function
Homoplasy
37
The Linnaeus system of classification contains how many classifications
8
38
In the Linnaeus system of classification, a group of species that resemble each other is known as a
Genus
39
In the Linnaeus system of classification, a group of individuals that can breed with one another and produce offspring is known as a
Species
40
Is basic brain structure different in mammals and other vertebrates
No. Basic brain structure is the same for all mammals and other vertebrates
41
Regarding basic brain structure, what has been subject to evolutionary modifications
Relative sizes
Proportions
Locations
42
As evolutionary distance _______, similarities _______
Increase; decrease
43
Brain differences are usually ________
Quantitative (A matter of size)
44
Which one has the more complex central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
Vertebrates or nonvertebrates
Vertebrates
45
Bilateral brain symmetry and spinal cord structures
Segmentation of spinal cord
Hierarchical control
Separation of central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
Functional specialization
These are all common to what kind of systems
All vertebrae nervous systems
46
3D Representation of cranial cavity
Endocasts
47
What can be used to compare/contrast modern-day species with extinct species
Endocasts
48
Which one bares a closer resemblance to ancestral species than other living species
Living species
49
Regarding simultaneous evolution, what have many species evolved with
Larger brains
50
Regarding simultaneous evolution, what part of the brain became smaller
Medulla
51
Regarding simultaneous evolution, what part of the brain maintained its relative size
Cerebellum
52
To allow a baby's head to through the birth canal, cortical development happens when
After birth
53
Regarding simultaneous evolution, which part of the brain became proportionally large
Cortex
54
Relative to the size of the whole brain, what often predicts an animal's specialized abilities
Size of CERTAIN brain regions
(e.g., Rats having larger olfactory region compared to humans)
55
What is the outer covering of the cerebral hemisphere that consists of cell bodies and dendritic branches
Six-layer cortex
56
What kind of correlation is there between brain and body weight
Strong positive correlation
57
What are two things are differences in brains among vertebrates based on
Relative size
Elaboration
58
Measure of brain size relative to body size/body weight
Encephalization factor
59
What happened to hominin brains during recent evolution
Hominin brain enlarged rapidly
60
What ability led to a reduction in jaw size and teeth size since their large sizes were no longer necessary
Ability to use tools
61
Regarding homo genus, what made and used tools but had small brains
Australopithecines
62
Homo erectus evolved with ______ brains and ______ faces
larger; smaller
63
Homo erectus were able to do four key things because of their larger brains
Make elaborate tools
Use fire
Hunt
Expand travel their travel over 3 continents
64
When homo sapiens arrived 300,000 years ago, what had happened to the homo erectus brain
It had reached modern levels
65
Long gestation time (Time spent in the womb)
Difficult birthing experience
High metabolic demand (More sodium-potassium pumps require more metabolic activity)
Complex genes (More mutation possibilities)
These are all ________ of large brains
Ramifications
66
What is an ovum that has been fertilized by a sperm cell
Zygote
67
What is a female gamete called
Ovum
68
What is a male gamete called
Sperm cell
69
During rapid cell division, what does the embryo develop into
Gastrula
70
What are the 3 distinct layers of the gastrula
Endoderm
Mesoderm
Ectoderm
71
Which layer (endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm) of the gastrula forms the skin and nervous system
Ectoderm
72
What are the subdivisions of the brain
Forebrain
Midbrain
Hindbrain
73
Cerebral hemispheres
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
What subdivision of the brain do these areas occupy
Forebrain
74
Tectum
Tegmentum
Which subdivision of the brain do these areas occupy
Midbrain
75
Brainstem
Cerebellum
Pons
Medulla
Which subdivision of the brain do these areas occupy
Hindbrain
76
Nature is decided by one's _______
Genotype
77
What does nurture exert its influence over
Phenotypes
78
Are genotypes changeable
No
79
Monozygotic twins have _______ genotypes but can have _______ phenotypes
identical; different
80
How do cells communicate to coordinate differentiation
(e.g., whether a stem cell will become a neuron or a skin cell)
Cell-to-cell interactions
81
Any environmental influences that can disrupt cell-to-cell interactions resulting in neurodivergent development
Teratogens
82
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome affects what percentage of children born to alcoholic mothers
40%
83
In severe cases of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, what area of the brain does not develop
Corpus callosum
84
What is the most common problem with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Mental retardation
85
The severity of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome is _______ related to the amount of alcohol consumed by the birth mother
directly
86
Aversion to social interaction
Underdeveloped communication skills
Repetitive behaviors/fixated interests
These are the 3 main deficits of which disorder
Autism spectrum disorder
87
Difficulty speaking
Difficulty understanding nonverbal cues
Repeating words or phrases often
These are all signs of which autism spectrum disorder deficit (aversion to social interaction, underdeveloped communication skills, repetitive behaviors/fixated interests)
Underdeveloped communication skills
88
When do symptoms of autism spectrum disorder first appear
In the first 2 years of life
89
Is autism considered a spectrum disorder
Yes
90
ASD Level 1
ASD Level 2
ASD Level 3
These are the severity levels for which disorder
Autism spectrum disorder
91
Regarding autism spectrum disorder, which severity level requires the most support
ASD Level 3
92
What is the ratio for boys having autism spectrum disorder
1 in 38 boys
93
What is the ratio for girls having autism spectrum disorder
1 in 152 girls
94
Which disorder has a strong case of heritability
Autism Spectrum Disorder
95
What is the heritability estimate range for dizygotic twins having autism spectrum disorder
5-10%
96
What is the heritability estimate range for monozygotic twins having autism spectrum disorder
60-90%
97
Phenylketonuria is a _______ hereditary disorder
recessive
98
Phenylketonuria affects how many births
1 in 10,000 births
99
How many individuals have one recessive allele for pheylketonuria
1 in 100 individuals
100
Phenylketonuria leads to a defective enzyme that ordinarily metabolizes _______
Phenylalanine
101
What are the main dangers of phenylalanine buildup
Toxic
Eventual intellectual disability
102
What are the 6 stages of neuronal development
Neurogenesis
Cell migration
Differentiation
Synaptogenesis
Neuronal cell death
Synapse rearrangement
103
What happens during neurogenesis
New neurons are created from undifferentiated cells via mitosis. Remaining undifferentiated cells migrate to the marginal zone where some cells become nerve cells. Others return to the ventricular zone for further mitosis
104
During neurogenesis, undifferentiated cells form a layer of cells lining the cerebral ventricles known as the ______
Ventricular zone
105
What happens during cell migration
Cells that leave the ventricular zone travel to their final destination
106
During cell migration, what type of cells act as scaffolding for cells to climb and migrate
Radial glial cells
107
What type of molecules guide migrating neurons and axons through cell-to-cell interactions
Cell Adhesion Molecules (CAMs)
108
What happens during differentiation
Undifferentiated cells become specialized for function (differentiated) depending on their local environment. Neighboring neurons can release proteins to direct cell specialization.
(e.g., students who are undeclared majors in college, decide to become music majors)
109
How are Sonic the Hedgehog proteins examples of differentiation
Sonic the Hedgehog proteins are released by the notochord to signal cells to become motor neurons
110
During differentiation, lost or damaged cells can be replaced by what process
Regulation (Cells are removed and replaced with healthy ones)
111
What happens during synaptogenesis
New synapses are created, growth cones adhere to axons and dendrites, filopodia extend from growth cones to adhere to CAMs, and axons are guided by chemicals released by target cells
112
Regarding synaptogenesis, what are chemical signals that attract certain growth cones
Chemoattractants
113
Regarding synaptogenesis, what are chemical signals that repel growth cones
Chemorepellents
114
Humans are born with most of the ______ they'll ever have
Neurons
115
In what region of the brain does adult neurogenesis occur
Hippocampus
116
How can adult neurogenesis be boosted
By exercising
117
What can harm adult neurogenesis
Stress
118
What happens during neuronal cell death
Excess neurons die off via apoptosis
119
Regarding neuronal cell death, what process is known as programmed cell death
Apoptosis
120
What are the steps for apoptosis
1) CA2+ influx causes mitochondria to release the Diablo protein
2) Diablo protein binds to apoptosis inhibitors (IAPs)
3) Without IAPs, caspases can now disable the cell
121
How is apoptosis regulated
Through cell-to-cell interactions
122
What happens during synaptic pruning
Synapses formed during early development are retracted or reorganized
123
What does the net loss of synapses in late childhood/adolescence cause
Thinning of grey matter in the cortex
124
During synapse rearrangement, what direction does thinning happen
Thinning will happen from caudal to rostral direction
125
During synaptic rearrangement, which region of the brain matures last
Prefrontal cortex
126
What syndrome occurs when the body cannot perform normal elimination of synapses after birth
Fragile X syndrome
127
What does Fragile X lead to
Mental impairment
128
In Fragile X syndrome, what is excessively repeated
Trinucleotide sequences
129
Which sex is Fragile X more common in
Males
130
With Fragile X syndrome, why are defects in X chromosomes more likely to impact males
There is no additional X chromosome to compensate
131
Long face
Large ears
Prominent jaw
Autism
ADHD
Prader-Willi syndrome
These are all characteristics of what syndrome
Fragile X syndrome
132
What is necessary in early life for normal development
Proper stimulation
133
Lack of _____ cannot be made up later in life
Stimulation
134
What happened to kittens that were used in the binocular deprivation experiment
Their eyes were sewn shut. The developed blindness over time
135
What is eventually caused by lack of light received by both eyes
Binocular deprivation
136
What happens after binocular deprivation occurs
Loss of dendritic spines
Reduction in visual cortex synapses
137
What is the study of factors that affect gene expression
Epigenetics
138
What is the biochemical process of adding methyl groups to DNA molecules to usually repress transcription
Methylation
139
Low maternal licking and grooming leads to high stress hormones levels and high anxiety
High maternal licking and grooming leads to low stress hormone levels and low anxiety
What is this an example of
Methylation
140
What syndrome is caused by a mutation that disables the MeCP2 gene and disrupts brain/body development
Rett syndrome
141
What determines the severity of Rett syndrome in an individual
Health of the microglia
142
Replacing damaged _______ has shown improvements in mice impacted with Rett syndrome
Microglia
143
Shrinkage of what brain region is correlated with memory impairment during aging
Hippoccampus
144
What brain region acts as a transfer station for memory
Hippocampus (STM => LTM)
145
Are long term memories stored in the hippocampus
No
146
The ability to form new memories ______; however, existing long term memories remain _______
declines; intact
147
What form of dementia may appear in middle age but is more apparent in elderly individuals
Alzheimer's disease
148
Senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are the two biological markers for what disease
Alzheimer's disease
149
Which biological marker for Alzheimer's is formed by Beta-amyloid accumulation and impairs synaptic function
Senile plaques
150
Which biological marker for Alzheimer's is caused by abnormal clusters of neurofilaments and the Tau protein
Neurofibrillary tangles
151
With Alzheimer's disease, what is correlated with the number of neurofibrillary tangles
Degree of cognitive impairment
152
What does neurotoxicity of cholinergic proteins in the basal forebrain halt
Acetylcholine production
153
What does halting acetylcholine production lead to
Alzheimer's disease
154
Simple, unvarying, and instinctive responses to sensory stimuli
Reflexes
155
Complex set of commands to muscles that is established before a behavior starts
Motor plan
156
Are motor plans predetermined
Yes
157
What do closed-loop control mechanisms maximize
Accuracy
158
In closed-loop control mechanisms, what happens to information attained from the subject being controlled
The information flows back to the device controlling it
159
What are the 3 components involved in closed-loop control mechanisms
Error detectors
Controllers
Transducers
160
In closed-loop control mechanisms, what component (error detector, controller, transducer) acts as a perceptual system that identifies deviation from the motor plan
Error detector
161
In closed-loop control mechanisms, what component (error detector, controller, transducer) works with muscles that correct the detected discrepancies
Controller
162
In closed-loop control mechanisms, what component (error detector, controller, transducer) acts as a sensory system that provides sensory data input to the error detector
Transducer
163
An example of a closed-loop control mechanism is threading a needle. The position of fingers holding the thread is the control signal. Match the next steps with their corresponding component
1) Perceiving the discrepancy between the position of the thread and the position of the needle
2) Controlling the thread and holding the needle with the muscles in your finger
3) Looking at the positions of the thread and needle (Visual system [hint: sensory system])
Error detector
Controller
Transducer
164
In closed-loop control mechanisms, how long does stimulus-response adjustment take
At least 1/5th of a second
165
The ability to enable precise controls
The ability to allow for execution of new movements
These are advantages of what control mechanism
Closed-loop control mechanism
166
Slow
Cognitively demanding
These are disadvantages of what control mechanism
Closed-loop control mechanism
167
What do open-loop control mechanisms maximize
Speed
168
Fast
Little to no cognitive demand
These are advantages of what control mechanism
Open-loop control mechanism
169
If motor program contains error, they errors will still be executed in their movement
Overcoming errors requires extensive practice
Novel situations cannot be adapted to
These are disadvantages of what control mechanism
Open-loop control mechanism
170
Which control mechanism is required for ballistic movements
Open-loop control mechanism
171
Which body part controls skeletal muscles
Spinal cord
172
Which brain regions are responsible for modulating activities of control systems
Cerebellum and basal ganglia
173
Which joints allow movements in all angular motions
Ellipsoid joints
174
Which joints allow movements on all three planes
Ball and socket joints
175
Which joints allow movements on a single plane
Hinge joints
176
What connects bones to skeletal muscles
Tendons
177
What are muscles that oppose each other called
Antagonistic muscles
178
Principle muscles (prime mover) involved in a movement are called ________
(e.g., when lifting a dumbell, the bicep acts as this kind of muscle)
Agonist muscles
179
What muscles provide support to agonist muscles
Synergistic muscles
180
Where do motor neurons originate from
Motor neurons originate from muscle fibers on the spine synapse
181
What forms the neuromuscular junction
Motor neurons
182
Muscle fibers contain which two common overlapping filaments
Thick filaments
Thin filaments
183
What are thick muscle fiber filaments made of
Myosin
184
What are thin muscle fiber filaments made of
Actin
185
During muscle contractions, heads of ______ filaments bind to ______ and ______ inward to shorten ______ length
myosin; actin; muscle
186
What are two types of muscle fibers
Slow-twitch muscle fibers
Fast fatigue-resistant muscle fibers
187
Regarding slow-twitch fibers, how long does it take to reach maximal contraction
100-200ms
188
Regarding fast-twitch fibers, how long does it take to reach maximal contraction
50-80ms
189
Which fast-twitch fibers contract rapidly, fatigue quickly, and are useful for dangerous situations
Type 2B
190
What do motor neurons and all muscle fibers innervated by them form
Motor units
191
What ratio expresses the number of muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron
Innervation ratio
192
Motor neurons branch off to many terminals called ______
Collaterals
193
In the neuromuscular junction, action potentials cause the release of what chemical
Acetylcholine
194
What toxin blocks acetylcholine receptors
Bungarotoxin
195
What autoimmune disorder causes the body to develop acetylcholine receptors
Myesthenia gravis
196
What is an individual's sense of body position and muscle use alled
Proprioception
197
What is the process for a stretch reflex
1) Weight added
2) Muscle becomes stretched
3) Muscle spindle afferents become excited
4) Spindle afferents excite motor neurons
5) One muscle is stimulated to oppose the muscle stretch
6) An antagonistic muscle is inhibited to relax
198
Do central pattern generators classify as reflexes
No because they do not require sensory input
199
What type of CPG does walking involve
Half-center oscillation type CPG
200
What does polio do to motor neurons of the spinal cord
Destroys them
201
What nerves provide motor commands for muscles above the spinal cord
Cranial nerves
202
Where does input to basal ganglia originate
Cortices; Usually the prefrontal cortex
203
What disease is caused by the loss of dopaminergic cells of the substantia nigra
Parkinson's disease
204
Regarding Parkinson's disease, the loss of disinhibition leads to excessive activation of the _______
Thalamus
205
What are species-specific behaviors that signify a willingness and motivation to reproduce
Preceptive behaviors
206
Chemical signals that communicate between animals of the same species
Pheremones
207
Which organ has specialized receptors
Vomeronasal organ
208
What is involved in eating, sexual, and aggressive behaviors
Ventromedial hypothalamus
209
What is secreted by fat cells that signals current long-term energy stores
Leptin
210
Too much solute in the extracellular compartment
Osmotic thirst
211
Low fluid waters in the extracellular compartment due to obligatory losses
Hypovolemic thirst
212
Without salt, what would the osmotic pressure of water do to cells
Osmotic pressure would drive into cells and cause them to rupture
213
What is the principal sugar used for energy called
Glucose
214
Complex carbohydrate made of glucose and stored short term in the liver and muscles
Glycogen
215
Increased secretion of angiotensin II triggers the release of what two chemicals
Aldosterone and vassopressin
216
When kidneys release renin into the bloodstream, it increases secretion of what chemical
Angiotensin II
217
What is the conversion of glucose to glycogen called
Glycogenesis
218
The body can use what two things as energy stores
Glucose
Fatty acids
219
The brain can only use one thing for energy stores
Glucose
220
What can the brain use glucose without
Insulin
221
The body cannot use glucose without _______
Insulin
222
What occurs if food deprivation is prolonged
Glucogenesis
223
What process converts fats and proteins into glucose and ketones
Glucogenesis
224
What is the process of heat production, maintenance of membrane potentials, and all other basic life-sustaining processes called
Basal metabolism
225
What percentage of energy in food is lost during digestion to excretion or indigestable materials
33%
226
What percentage of energy in food is used for basal metabolism
55%
227
at percentage of energy in food is used for the behavioral process
12%
228
What are the two regions that possibly control hunger and satiety
Ventromedial hypothalamus
Lateral hypothalamus
229
What two sets of neurons does the arcuate appetite system rely on
POMC neurons
NPY neurons
230
What system acts as the brain's reward system
Limbic system
231
Dopamine-mediated reward system in what brain region facilitates the pleasurable effects of eating
Nucleus accumbens
232
Vassopressin secretion sent to the kidneys will reduce the amount of what lost through obligatory loss
Salt
233
Detection of low blood pressure triggers the heart to stop secreting what peptide
Atrial natriuretic peptide
234
What is the number of solute particles per volume of solvent called
Osmolality
235
What are mammals with normal osmolality called
Isotonic
236
What is the normal mammalian salt concentration in the extracellular compartment
0.9%
237
What are solutions with osmolality greater than 0.9% called
Hypotonic
238
What are solutions with osmolality less than 0.9% called
Hypertonic
239
What are the channels in the membrane that move liquid into and out of the membrane called
Aquaporins
240
The best set zone for an organism depends on the current physiological demands
Allostasis
241
What is a chronic deviation from the set zone called
Allostatic load
242
Unnecessary loss of necessary needs
Obligatory losses
243
Relatively stable, balanced internal environment optimized for cellular activities
Homeostasis
244
What blocks estrogen from entering the brain
A-fetoprotein
245
Conversion of androgens into estrogens in the brain by aromatase leads to the masculinization of the brain
Aromatization hypothesis
246
Circulation of _____ leads to increases in male sexual behaviors
Testosterone
247
Female sexual behaviors increase as ______ approaches
Ovulation
248
Which system consists of the basal ganglia
Extrapyramidal system
249
What two pathways does the basal ganglia contain
Direct pathway
Indirect pathway
250
Regarding basal ganglia pathways, which pathway (direct, indirect) initiates and maintains movement
Direct pathway
251
Regarding basal ganglia pathways, which pathway (direct, indirect) terminates and suppresses movement
Indirect pathway
252
Where does the cortex send excitatory glutamatergic inputs
Striatum
