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Behavioral Neuroscience Exam Dos > Everything > Flashcards

Everything Flashcards

1
Q

What were Charles Darwin’s four main observations in the Galapagos Islands

A

Variation
Inheritance
Superfecundity
Selection

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2
Q

Which one of Darwin’s observations states that not all creatures of a species are identical

A

Variation

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3
Q

Which one of Darwin’s observations states that some features of a species are passed down from generation to generation

A

Inheritance

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4
Q

Which one of Darwin’s observations states that the absence of limiting factors will lead a species to continue to reproduce

A

Superfecundity

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5
Q

Which one of Darwin’s observations states that not all members of a species will reach the stage of reproduction. Those who die before this stage will not have the ability to pass on their genetics

A

Selection

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6
Q

Which two individuals first described the theory of natural selection

A

Charles Darwin
Alfred Wallace

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7
Q

Which Darwin theory states that members of species choose mates based on heritable traits that facilitate reproductive success

A

Sexual selection

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8
Q

An offspring’s inherited alleles

A

Genotype

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9
Q

Observable expression of a genotype

A

Phenotype

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10
Q

In Mendelian Genetics, alleles can be _________ or _________

A

dominant; recessive

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11
Q

Which set of principles propose that each parent has:
two alleles
passes one of these alleles onto offspring
each allele can either be dominant or recessive
the possibility of passing on the allele to offspring is random

A

Mendelian Genetics

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12
Q

What objects did Gregory Mendel use to study heritability

A

Pea plants

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13
Q

In Mendel’s study which pea plant had two recessive alleles

A

Wrinkled pea plant

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14
Q

In Mendel’s study, which pea plant had two dominant alleles

A

Smooth pea plant

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15
Q

What tool did Mendel use to discover all possible allele combinations

A

Punnett Square

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16
Q

Do dominant alleles repress recessive alleles

A

No

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17
Q

What do nucleotide pairs cause when they do not match

A

Mutations

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18
Q

What kind of mutation occurs when there are changes in the nucleotide sequence of a gene

A

Point mutations

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19
Q

What kind of mutation do mutagens sometimes cause

A

Point mutations

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20
Q

What kind of mutation sometimes occurs when there are spontaneous errors of replication in DNA

A

Point mutations

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21
Q

Are mutations sometimes random and accidental (e.g., UV rays)

A

Yes

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22
Q

Mutations may ______ or ______ an individual’s ability to survive

A

help; harm

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23
Q

What does evolution favor

A

Reproducibility

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24
Q

Evolution is NOT ________

A

Intentional

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25
Q

What does natural selection reward positive mutations with

A

Reproducibility

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26
Q

How does natural selection get rid of mutations

A

By weeding out the genome

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27
Q

What kind of selection favors a shift in characteristic within a population

A

Directional selection

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28
Q

During the industrial revolution in England, trees became darker from soot. Lighter moths were originally the dominant phenotype; however, darker moths blended in better. Darker moths became the dominant phenotype. What kind of selection is this an example of

A

Directional selection

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29
Q

During the industrial revolution in England, trees became darker from soot. Lighter moths were originally the dominant phenotype; however, darker moths blended in better. Darker moths became the dominant phenotype. When the trees were no longer darker, the white moth population was restored. What kind of selection is this an example of

A

Stabilizing selection

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30
Q

Reduces variation of a characteristic within a population

A

Stabilizing selection

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31
Q

What kind of selection favors divergence of a characteristic within a population

A

Disruptive selection

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32
Q

What kind of evolution has geological and ecological features that may guide the evolution of different species toward the same traits

A

Convergent evolution

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33
Q

Regarding convergent evolution, what term is used to describe species with the same structure but with minute variations (specialization)

A

Homology

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34
Q

Regarding convergent evolution, what term is used to describe species with evolution based on common evolutionary ancestry

A

Homology

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35
Q

Regarding convergent evolution, what term is used to describe species with evolution towards a future

A

Analogy

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36
Q

Regarding convergent evolution, what term is used to describe species with evolution of a feature in distantly related species towards the same function

A

Homoplasy

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37
Q

The Linnaeus system of classification contains how many classifications

A

8

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38
Q

In the Linnaeus system of classification, a group of species that resemble each other is known as a

A

Genus

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39
Q

In the Linnaeus system of classification, a group of individuals that can breed with one another and produce offspring is known as a

A

Species

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40
Q

Is basic brain structure different in mammals and other vertebrates

A

No. Basic brain structure is the same for all mammals and other vertebrates

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41
Q

Regarding basic brain structure, what has been subject to evolutionary modifications

A

Relative sizes
Proportions
Locations

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42
Q

As evolutionary distance _______, similarities _______

A

Increase; decrease

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43
Q

Brain differences are usually ________

A

Quantitative (A matter of size)

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44
Q

Which one has the more complex central nervous system and peripheral nervous system

Vertebrates or nonvertebrates

A

Vertebrates

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45
Q

Bilateral brain symmetry and spinal cord structures
Segmentation of spinal cord
Hierarchical control
Separation of central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
Functional specialization

These are all common to what kind of systems

A

All vertebrae nervous systems

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46
Q

3D Representation of cranial cavity

A

Endocasts

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47
Q

What can be used to compare/contrast modern-day species with extinct species

A

Endocasts

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48
Q

Which one bares a closer resemblance to ancestral species than other living species

A

Living species

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49
Q

Regarding simultaneous evolution, what have many species evolved with

A

Larger brains

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50
Q

Regarding simultaneous evolution, what part of the brain became smaller

A

Medulla

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51
Q

Regarding simultaneous evolution, what part of the brain maintained its relative size

A

Cerebellum

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52
Q

To allow a baby’s head to through the birth canal, cortical development happens when

A

After birth

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53
Q

Regarding simultaneous evolution, which part of the brain became proportionally large

A

Cortex

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54
Q

Relative to the size of the whole brain, what often predicts an animal’s specialized abilities

A

Size of CERTAIN brain regions

(e.g., Rats having larger olfactory region compared to humans)

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55
Q

What is the outer covering of the cerebral hemisphere that consists of cell bodies and dendritic branches

A

Six-layer cortex

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56
Q

What kind of correlation is there between brain and body weight

A

Strong positive correlation

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57
Q

What are two things are differences in brains among vertebrates based on

A

Relative size
Elaboration

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58
Q

Measure of brain size relative to body size/body weight

A

Encephalization factor

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59
Q

What happened to hominin brains during recent evolution

A

Hominin brain enlarged rapidly

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60
Q

What ability led to a reduction in jaw size and teeth size since their large sizes were no longer necessary

A

Ability to use tools

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61
Q

Regarding homo genus, what made and used tools but had small brains

A

Australopithecines

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62
Q

Homo erectus evolved with ______ brains and ______ faces

A

larger; smaller

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63
Q

Homo erectus were able to do four key things because of their larger brains

A

Make elaborate tools
Use fire
Hunt
Expand travel their travel over 3 continents

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64
Q

When homo sapiens arrived 300,000 years ago, what had happened to the homo erectus brain

A

It had reached modern levels

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65
Q

Long gestation time (Time spent in the womb)
Difficult birthing experience
High metabolic demand (More sodium-potassium pumps require more metabolic activity)
Complex genes (More mutation possibilities)

These are all ________ of large brains

A

Ramifications

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66
Q

What is an ovum that has been fertilized by a sperm cell

A

Zygote

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67
Q

What is a female gamete called

A

Ovum

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68
Q

What is a male gamete called

A

Sperm cell

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69
Q

During rapid cell division, what does the embryo develop into

A

Gastrula

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70
Q

What are the 3 distinct layers of the gastrula

A

Endoderm
Mesoderm
Ectoderm

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71
Q

Which layer (endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm) of the gastrula forms the skin and nervous system

A

Ectoderm

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72
Q

What are the subdivisions of the brain

A

Forebrain
Midbrain
Hindbrain

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73
Q

Cerebral hemispheres
Thalamus
Hypothalamus

What subdivision of the brain do these areas occupy

A

Forebrain

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74
Q

Tectum
Tegmentum

Which subdivision of the brain do these areas occupy

A

Midbrain

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75
Q

Brainstem
Cerebellum
Pons
Medulla

Which subdivision of the brain do these areas occupy

A

Hindbrain

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76
Q

Nature is decided by one’s _______

A

Genotype

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77
Q

What does nurture exert its influence over

A

Phenotypes

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78
Q

Are genotypes changeable

A

No

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79
Q

Monozygotic twins have _______ genotypes but can have _______ phenotypes

A

identical; different

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80
Q

How do cells communicate to coordinate differentiation

(e.g., whether a stem cell will become a neuron or a skin cell)

A

Cell-to-cell interactions

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81
Q

Any environmental influences that can disrupt cell-to-cell interactions resulting in neurodivergent development

A

Teratogens

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82
Q

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome affects what percentage of children born to alcoholic mothers

A

40%

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83
Q

In severe cases of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, what area of the brain does not develop

A

Corpus callosum

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84
Q

What is the most common problem with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

A

Mental retardation

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85
Q

The severity of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome is _______ related to the amount of alcohol consumed by the birth mother

A

directly

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86
Q

Aversion to social interaction
Underdeveloped communication skills
Repetitive behaviors/fixated interests

These are the 3 main deficits of which disorder

A

Autism spectrum disorder

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87
Q

Difficulty speaking
Difficulty understanding nonverbal cues
Repeating words or phrases often

These are all signs of which autism spectrum disorder deficit (aversion to social interaction, underdeveloped communication skills, repetitive behaviors/fixated interests)

A

Underdeveloped communication skills

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88
Q

When do symptoms of autism spectrum disorder first appear

A

In the first 2 years of life

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89
Q

Is autism considered a spectrum disorder

A

Yes

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90
Q

ASD Level 1
ASD Level 2
ASD Level 3

These are the severity levels for which disorder

A

Autism spectrum disorder

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91
Q

Regarding autism spectrum disorder, which severity level requires the most support

A

ASD Level 3

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92
Q

What is the ratio for boys having autism spectrum disorder

A

1 in 38 boys

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93
Q

What is the ratio for girls having autism spectrum disorder

A

1 in 152 girls

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94
Q

Which disorder has a strong case of heritability

A

Autism Spectrum Disorder

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95
Q

What is the heritability estimate range for dizygotic twins having autism spectrum disorder

A

5-10%

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96
Q

What is the heritability estimate range for monozygotic twins having autism spectrum disorder

A

60-90%

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97
Q

Phenylketonuria is a _______ hereditary disorder

A

recessive

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98
Q

Phenylketonuria affects how many births

A

1 in 10,000 births

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99
Q

How many individuals have one recessive allele for pheylketonuria

A

1 in 100 individuals

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100
Q

Phenylketonuria leads to a defective enzyme that ordinarily metabolizes _______

A

Phenylalanine

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101
Q

What are the main dangers of phenylalanine buildup

A

Toxic
Eventual intellectual disability

102
Q

What are the 6 stages of neuronal development

A

Neurogenesis
Cell migration
Differentiation
Synaptogenesis
Neuronal cell death
Synapse rearrangement

103
Q

What happens during neurogenesis

A

New neurons are created from undifferentiated cells via mitosis. Remaining undifferentiated cells migrate to the marginal zone where some cells become nerve cells. Others return to the ventricular zone for further mitosis

104
Q

During neurogenesis, undifferentiated cells form a layer of cells lining the cerebral ventricles known as the ______

A

Ventricular zone

105
Q

What happens during cell migration

A

Cells that leave the ventricular zone travel to their final destination

106
Q

During cell migration, what type of cells act as scaffolding for cells to climb and migrate

A

Radial glial cells

107
Q

What type of molecules guide migrating neurons and axons through cell-to-cell interactions

A

Cell Adhesion Molecules (CAMs)

108
Q

What happens during differentiation

A

Undifferentiated cells become specialized for function (differentiated) depending on their local environment. Neighboring neurons can release proteins to direct cell specialization.

(e.g., students who are undeclared majors in college, decide to become music majors)

109
Q

How are Sonic the Hedgehog proteins examples of differentiation

A

Sonic the Hedgehog proteins are released by the notochord to signal cells to become motor neurons

110
Q

During differentiation, lost or damaged cells can be replaced by what process

A

Regulation (Cells are removed and replaced with healthy ones)

111
Q

What happens during synaptogenesis

A

New synapses are created, growth cones adhere to axons and dendrites, filopodia extend from growth cones to adhere to CAMs, and axons are guided by chemicals released by target cells

112
Q

Regarding synaptogenesis, what are chemical signals that attract certain growth cones

A

Chemoattractants

113
Q

Regarding synaptogenesis, what are chemical signals that repel growth cones

A

Chemorepellents

114
Q

Humans are born with most of the ______ they’ll ever have

A

Neurons

115
Q

In what region of the brain does adult neurogenesis occur

A

Hippocampus

116
Q

How can adult neurogenesis be boosted

A

By exercising

117
Q

What can harm adult neurogenesis

A

Stress

118
Q

What happens during neuronal cell death

A

Excess neurons die off via apoptosis

119
Q

Regarding neuronal cell death, what process is known as programmed cell death

A

Apoptosis

120
Q

What are the steps for apoptosis

A

1) CA2+ influx causes mitochondria to release the Diablo protein
2) Diablo protein binds to apoptosis inhibitors (IAPs)
3) Without IAPs, caspases can now disable the cell

121
Q

How is apoptosis regulated

A

Through cell-to-cell interactions

122
Q

What happens during synaptic pruning

A

Synapses formed during early development are retracted or reorganized

123
Q

What does the net loss of synapses in late childhood/adolescence cause

A

Thinning of grey matter in the cortex

124
Q

During synapse rearrangement, what direction does thinning happen

A

Thinning will happen from caudal to rostral direction

125
Q

During synaptic rearrangement, which region of the brain matures last

A

Prefrontal cortex

126
Q

What syndrome occurs when the body cannot perform normal elimination of synapses after birth

A

Fragile X syndrome

127
Q

What does Fragile X lead to

A

Mental impairment

128
Q

In Fragile X syndrome, what is excessively repeated

A

Trinucleotide sequences

129
Q

Which sex is Fragile X more common in

A

Males

130
Q

With Fragile X syndrome, why are defects in X chromosomes more likely to impact males

A

There is no additional X chromosome to compensate

131
Q

Long face
Large ears
Prominent jaw
Autism
ADHD
Prader-Willi syndrome

These are all characteristics of what syndrome

A

Fragile X syndrome

132
Q

What is necessary in early life for normal development

A

Proper stimulation

133
Q

Lack of _____ cannot be made up later in life

A

Stimulation

134
Q

What happened to kittens that were used in the binocular deprivation experiment

A

Their eyes were sewn shut. The developed blindness over time

135
Q

What is eventually caused by lack of light received by both eyes

A

Binocular deprivation

136
Q

What happens after binocular deprivation occurs

A

Loss of dendritic spines
Reduction in visual cortex synapses

137
Q

What is the study of factors that affect gene expression

A

Epigenetics

138
Q

What is the biochemical process of adding methyl groups to DNA molecules to usually repress transcription

A

Methylation

139
Q

Low maternal licking and grooming leads to high stress hormones levels and high anxiety

High maternal licking and grooming leads to low stress hormone levels and low anxiety

What is this an example of

A

Methylation

140
Q

What syndrome is caused by a mutation that disables the MeCP2 gene and disrupts brain/body development

A

Rett syndrome

141
Q

What determines the severity of Rett syndrome in an individual

A

Health of the microglia

142
Q

Replacing damaged _______ has shown improvements in mice impacted with Rett syndrome

A

Microglia

143
Q

Shrinkage of what brain region is correlated with memory impairment during aging

A

Hippoccampus

144
Q

What brain region acts as a transfer station for memory

A

Hippocampus (STM => LTM)

145
Q

Are long term memories stored in the hippocampus

A

No

146
Q

The ability to form new memories ______; however, existing long term memories remain _______

A

declines; intact

147
Q

What form of dementia may appear in middle age but is more apparent in elderly individuals

A

Alzheimer’s disease

148
Q

Senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are the two biological markers for what disease

A

Alzheimer’s disease

149
Q

Which biological marker for Alzheimer’s is formed by Beta-amyloid accumulation and impairs synaptic function

A

Senile plaques

150
Q

Which biological marker for Alzheimer’s is caused by abnormal clusters of neurofilaments and the Tau protein

A

Neurofibrillary tangles

151
Q

With Alzheimer’s disease, what is correlated with the number of neurofibrillary tangles

A

Degree of cognitive impairment

152
Q

What does neurotoxicity of cholinergic proteins in the basal forebrain halt

A

Acetylcholine production

153
Q

What does halting acetylcholine production lead to

A

Alzheimer’s disease

154
Q

Simple, unvarying, and instinctive responses to sensory stimuli

A

Reflexes

155
Q

Complex set of commands to muscles that is established before a behavior starts

A

Motor plan

156
Q

Are motor plans predetermined

A

Yes

157
Q

What do closed-loop control mechanisms maximize

A

Accuracy

158
Q

In closed-loop control mechanisms, what happens to information attained from the subject being controlled

A

The information flows back to the device controlling it

159
Q

What are the 3 components involved in closed-loop control mechanisms

A

Error detectors
Controllers
Transducers

160
Q

In closed-loop control mechanisms, what component (error detector, controller, transducer) acts as a perceptual system that identifies deviation from the motor plan

A

Error detector

161
Q

In closed-loop control mechanisms, what component (error detector, controller, transducer) works with muscles that correct the detected discrepancies

A

Controller

162
Q

In closed-loop control mechanisms, what component (error detector, controller, transducer) acts as a sensory system that provides sensory data input to the error detector

A

Transducer

163
Q

An example of a closed-loop control mechanism is threading a needle. The position of fingers holding the thread is the control signal. Match the next steps with their corresponding component

1) Perceiving the discrepancy between the position of the thread and the position of the needle
2) Controlling the thread and holding the needle with the muscles in your finger
3) Looking at the positions of the thread and needle (Visual system [hint: sensory system])

A

Error detector
Controller
Transducer

164
Q

In closed-loop control mechanisms, how long does stimulus-response adjustment take

A

At least 1/5th of a second

165
Q

The ability to enable precise controls
The ability to allow for execution of new movements

These are advantages of what control mechanism

A

Closed-loop control mechanism

166
Q

Slow
Cognitively demanding

These are disadvantages of what control mechanism

A

Closed-loop control mechanism

167
Q

What do open-loop control mechanisms maximize

A

Speed

168
Q

Fast
Little to no cognitive demand

These are advantages of what control mechanism

A

Open-loop control mechanism

169
Q

If motor program contains error, they errors will still be executed in their movement
Overcoming errors requires extensive practice
Novel situations cannot be adapted to

These are disadvantages of what control mechanism

A

Open-loop control mechanism

170
Q

Which control mechanism is required for ballistic movements

A

Open-loop control mechanism

171
Q

Which body part controls skeletal muscles

A

Spinal cord

172
Q

Which brain regions are responsible for modulating activities of control systems

A

Cerebellum and basal ganglia

173
Q

Which joints allow movements in all angular motions

A

Ellipsoid joints

174
Q

Which joints allow movements on all three planes

A

Ball and socket joints

175
Q

Which joints allow movements on a single plane

A

Hinge joints

176
Q

What connects bones to skeletal muscles

A

Tendons

177
Q

What are muscles that oppose each other called

A

Antagonistic muscles

178
Q

Principle muscles (prime mover) involved in a movement are called ________

(e.g., when lifting a dumbell, the bicep acts as this kind of muscle)

A

Agonist muscles

179
Q

What muscles provide support to agonist muscles

A

Synergistic muscles

180
Q

Where do motor neurons originate from

A

Motor neurons originate from muscle fibers on the spine synapse

181
Q

What forms the neuromuscular junction

A

Motor neurons

182
Q

Muscle fibers contain which two common overlapping filaments

A

Thick filaments
Thin filaments

183
Q

What are thick muscle fiber filaments made of

A

Myosin

184
Q

What are thin muscle fiber filaments made of

A

Actin

185
Q

During muscle contractions, heads of ______ filaments bind to ______ and ______ inward to shorten ______ length

A

myosin; actin; muscle

186
Q

What are two types of muscle fibers

A

Slow-twitch muscle fibers
Fast fatigue-resistant muscle fibers

187
Q

Regarding slow-twitch fibers, how long does it take to reach maximal contraction

A

100-200ms

188
Q

Regarding fast-twitch fibers, how long does it take to reach maximal contraction

A

50-80ms

189
Q

Which fast-twitch fibers contract rapidly, fatigue quickly, and are useful for dangerous situations

A

Type 2B

190
Q

What do motor neurons and all muscle fibers innervated by them form

A

Motor units

191
Q

What ratio expresses the number of muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron

A

Innervation ratio

192
Q

Motor neurons branch off to many terminals called ______

A

Collaterals

193
Q

In the neuromuscular junction, action potentials cause the release of what chemical

A

Acetylcholine

194
Q

What toxin blocks acetylcholine receptors

A

Bungarotoxin

195
Q

What autoimmune disorder causes the body to develop acetylcholine receptors

A

Myesthenia gravis

196
Q

What is an individual’s sense of body position and muscle use alled

A

Proprioception

197
Q

What is the process for a stretch reflex

A

1) Weight added
2) Muscle becomes stretched
3) Muscle spindle afferents become excited
4) Spindle afferents excite motor neurons
5) One muscle is stimulated to oppose the muscle stretch
6) An antagonistic muscle is inhibited to relax

198
Q

Do central pattern generators classify as reflexes

A

No because they do not require sensory input

199
Q

What type of CPG does walking involve

A

Half-center oscillation type CPG

200
Q

What does polio do to motor neurons of the spinal cord

A

Destroys them

201
Q

What nerves provide motor commands for muscles above the spinal cord

A

Cranial nerves

202
Q

Where does input to basal ganglia originate

A

Cortices; Usually the prefrontal cortex

203
Q

What disease is caused by the loss of dopaminergic cells of the substantia nigra

A

Parkinson’s disease

204
Q

Regarding Parkinson’s disease, the loss of disinhibition leads to excessive activation of the _______

A

Thalamus

205
Q

What are species-specific behaviors that signify a willingness and motivation to reproduce

A

Preceptive behaviors

206
Q

Chemical signals that communicate between animals of the same species

A

Pheremones

207
Q

Which organ has specialized receptors

A

Vomeronasal organ

208
Q

What is involved in eating, sexual, and aggressive behaviors

A

Ventromedial hypothalamus

209
Q

What is secreted by fat cells that signals current long-term energy stores

A

Leptin

210
Q

Too much solute in the extracellular compartment

A

Osmotic thirst

211
Q

Low fluid waters in the extracellular compartment due to obligatory losses

A

Hypovolemic thirst

212
Q

Without salt, what would the osmotic pressure of water do to cells

A

Osmotic pressure would drive into cells and cause them to rupture

213
Q

What is the principal sugar used for energy called

A

Glucose

214
Q

Complex carbohydrate made of glucose and stored short term in the liver and muscles

A

Glycogen

215
Q

Increased secretion of angiotensin II triggers the release of what two chemicals

A

Aldosterone and vassopressin

216
Q

When kidneys release renin into the bloodstream, it increases secretion of what chemical

A

Angiotensin II

217
Q

What is the conversion of glucose to glycogen called

A

Glycogenesis

218
Q

The body can use what two things as energy stores

A

Glucose
Fatty acids

219
Q

The brain can only use one thing for energy stores

A

Glucose

220
Q

What can the brain use glucose without

A

Insulin

221
Q

The body cannot use glucose without _______

A

Insulin

222
Q

What occurs if food deprivation is prolonged

A

Glucogenesis

223
Q

What process converts fats and proteins into glucose and ketones

A

Glucogenesis

224
Q

What is the process of heat production, maintenance of membrane potentials, and all other basic life-sustaining processes called

A

Basal metabolism

225
Q

What percentage of energy in food is lost during digestion to excretion or indigestable materials

A

33%

226
Q

What percentage of energy in food is used for basal metabolism

A

55%

227
Q

at percentage of energy in food is used for the behavioral process

A

12%

228
Q

What are the two regions that possibly control hunger and satiety

A

Ventromedial hypothalamus
Lateral hypothalamus

229
Q

What two sets of neurons does the arcuate appetite system rely on

A

POMC neurons
NPY neurons

230
Q

What system acts as the brain’s reward system

A

Limbic system

231
Q

Dopamine-mediated reward system in what brain region facilitates the pleasurable effects of eating

A

Nucleus accumbens

232
Q

Vassopressin secretion sent to the kidneys will reduce the amount of what lost through obligatory loss

A

Salt

233
Q

Detection of low blood pressure triggers the heart to stop secreting what peptide

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide

234
Q

What is the number of solute particles per volume of solvent called

A

Osmolality

235
Q

What are mammals with normal osmolality called

A

Isotonic

236
Q

What is the normal mammalian salt concentration in the extracellular compartment

A

0.9%

237
Q

What are solutions with osmolality greater than 0.9% called

A

Hypotonic

238
Q

What are solutions with osmolality less than 0.9% called

A

Hypertonic

239
Q

What are the channels in the membrane that move liquid into and out of the membrane called

A

Aquaporins

240
Q

The best set zone for an organism depends on the current physiological demands

A

Allostasis

241
Q

What is a chronic deviation from the set zone called

A

Allostatic load

242
Q

Unnecessary loss of necessary needs

A

Obligatory losses

243
Q

Relatively stable, balanced internal environment optimized for cellular activities

A

Homeostasis

244
Q

What blocks estrogen from entering the brain

A

A-fetoprotein

245
Q

Conversion of androgens into estrogens in the brain by aromatase leads to the masculinization of the brain

A

Aromatization hypothesis

246
Q

Circulation of _____ leads to increases in male sexual behaviors

A

Testosterone

247
Q

Female sexual behaviors increase as ______ approaches

A

Ovulation

248
Q

Which system consists of the basal ganglia

A

Extrapyramidal system

249
Q

What two pathways does the basal ganglia contain

A

Direct pathway
Indirect pathway

250
Q

Regarding basal ganglia pathways, which pathway (direct, indirect) initiates and maintains movement

A

Direct pathway

251
Q

Regarding basal ganglia pathways, which pathway (direct, indirect) terminates and suppresses movement

A

Indirect pathway

252
Q

Where does the cortex send excitatory glutamatergic inputs

A

Striatum

Behavioral Neuroscience Exam Dos (1 decks)

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