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AC B737 > Everything > Flashcards

Everything Flashcards

1
Q

LVL CHG is prohibited below what altitude?

A

1000’ AGL

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2
Q

If VNAV is not being used, what is the preferred vertical mode?

A

LVL CHG for 1000’ or more of altitude; V/S for less than 1000’.

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3
Q

What is the single engine inoperative cruise speed?

A

290 KIAS

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4
Q

A takeoff alternate must be within…

A

343 nm (60 min)

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5
Q

For fins 501-517, what is maximum ETOPS?

A

1146 nm (180 min)

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6
Q

For fins 518-540, what is max ETOPS?

A

478 nm (75 min) *Benign area of operations

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7
Q

What is the maximum t/o and landing tailwind component?

A

15 kts

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8
Q

Max operating altitude?

A

41,000’

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9
Q

Max t/o and land altitude?

A

8400’

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10
Q

For crosswinds great than 43 kts, limit thrust on ground to…

A

Taxi thrust

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11
Q

For winds greater than 58 kts on the ground, limit thrust to…

A

Idle.

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12
Q

Max t/o weight?

A

82, 190 kg

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13
Q

Max landing weight?

A

69, 308 kg

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14
Q

When does the fuel crossfeed valve need to be checked?

A

Before ETOPS flights does not include 75 min ETOPS

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15
Q

With window heat inoperative, what is speed limited to below 10,000’?

A

250 kts.

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16
Q

Broadband system must be off…

A

During deicing, taxiing under a sky bridge, or while in a hangar.

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17
Q

Can HF radios be used while refuelling?

A

No.

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18
Q

What are the altimeter tolerances for RVSM on the ground and in the air?

A

At and below 5000’: 50’
Above 5000’: 60’
To field elevation: 75’

In the air: 200’

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19
Q

Max cabin differential pressure?

A

9.1 psi.

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20
Q

With one or both engine bleed switches ON, can the packs be operated in HIGH for taxi, t/o, approach or landing?

A

No. Except when required by a FIRE procedure.

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21
Q

Are autobrakes allowed when anti skid is inop?

A

No.

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22
Q

What trim is prohibited when the AP is engaged?

A

Aileron.

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23
Q

When can the AP be engaged after t/o?

A

400’

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24
Q

Unless doing a dual channel AUTOLAND approach, the AP must be disconnected by…

A

50’

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25
Q

What are the maximum wind speeds for AUTOLAND operations?

A

HW: 25 kts
XW: 15 kts
TW: 10 kts

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26
Q

Maximum glide slope angles for AUTOLAND are…

A

2.5-3.25 degrees

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27
Q

What flaps are required for an AUTOLAND?

A

30 or 40 with both engines
30 with one engine

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28
Q

On the ground, limit one generator ops to a max of…

A

75 KVA

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29
Q

What is the maximum altitude with flaps extended?

A

20,000’.

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30
Q

Is holding with flaps extended in icing conditions allowed?

A

No.

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31
Q

Speedbrakes should not be used…

A

Below 1000’ or with flaps 40.

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32
Q

When using the alternate flaps, allow ___sec in between using the switch multiple times, and ___min for cooling after a full extend/retract cycle.

A

15, 5

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33
Q

What is the maximum fuel tank temperature?

A

49C

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34
Q

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature prior to t/o and in flight?

A

-43C or 3C above fuel freeze temp

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35
Q

What is the max fuel imbalance on the 737?

A

453 kg

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36
Q

If the center tank contains more than 453 kg, the main tanks must be…

A

Full.

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37
Q

Usable fuel in main tanks?

A

3,869 kg

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38
Q

Usable fuel in center tank?

A

12,990 kg

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39
Q

Total usable fuel?

A

20,728 kg

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40
Q

When temp corrected altitudes are manually entered, ___ must be selected for display.

A

VSD (Vertical Situational Display)

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41
Q

Inhibit the overrun alert when…

A

Landing OAT is below -40C or greater than 50C, or over max landing weight.

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42
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed and electrical?

A

10,000’

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43
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed?

A

17,000’

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44
Q

What is the maximum altitude for APU electrics?

A

41,000’

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45
Q

APU bleed valve must be closed when…

A

GND AIR connected and ISOL VLV OPEN

Engine 1 bleed valve OPEN

ISOL VLV and engine 2 bleed valves OPEN

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46
Q

Can the APU bleed valve be open during start?

A

Yes, but limit power to IDLE.

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47
Q

What are the starter limits for the APU?

A

15 min cooling required after 3 consecutive aborted starts.

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48
Q

How long must the APU be run before using it as a bleed source?

A

2 min.

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49
Q

ATM reduced thrust t/o is prohibited when…

A

Anti skid inop.

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50
Q

Minimum oil temp for engine start?

A

-40C.

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51
Q

Engine ignition must be CONT for ___, and FLT for ___.

A

Moderate to heavy rain, hail, sleet

Severe turbulence

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52
Q

Minimum oil pressure?

A

17.4 psid

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53
Q

What are the oil temperature limits?

A

140C for continuous operations, 155C for 15 min.

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54
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature for t/o?

A

31C

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55
Q

Can you initiate a go around after reverse thrust has been selected?

A

No.

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56
Q

What is turbulence penetration speed?

A

0.76 M or 280 KIAS

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57
Q

Is a damp runway considered to be wet?

A

Yes.

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58
Q

Takeoff with contamination exceeding____ is prohibited.

A

4” dry snow
1/2” slush, wet snow or standing water

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59
Q

Takeoff is prohibited when rwy is contaminated with…

A

Wet ice
Water over ice
Slush over ice
Snow over ice
Water over compact snow

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60
Q

When is an associated checklist not required with a recalled MASTER CAUTION?

A

If the associated light extinguishes after a MASTER CAUTION reset (ie. a redundant system has failed)

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61
Q

Which actions require verbal confirmation?

A

Thrust levers
Engine start levers
All fire switches
Generator drive disconnects
IRS mode selector
Flight control switches

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62
Q

When actioning the drill for a dual engine failure, do the start levers need to be confirmed before actioning?

A

No.

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63
Q

Landing distance is normally less than takeoff distance for…

A

Flaps 30 or 40 at all gross weights.

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64
Q

During flap extension for an overweight landing, speed can be reduced as much as ___ kts below normal manoeuvre speeds.

A

20.

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65
Q

Can you use AUTOLAND if overweight?

A

Yea, though it is not recommend. Ideally, disengage the AP prior to the flare and land manually.

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66
Q

If thrust is advanced after landing and reversers have not been selected…

A

Speedbrakes will retract and autobrakes will disarm.

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67
Q

What flap setting is used for a go around from a flaps 15 approach?

A

Flaps 1.

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68
Q

Autopilot reverts to single in a go around after a dual channel approach at what altitude? What must you be prepared for?

A

400’. Rudder inputs.

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69
Q

Does an AOA Disagree alert show in the HUD? PFD?

A

Only the PFD.

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70
Q

If the flare cue is not displayed by ___ feet, crew should revert to landing without it.

A

65.

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71
Q

What is the maximum wind additive with VREF ICE?

A

5 kts.

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72
Q

What is the default C of G?

A

FWD.

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73
Q

ALT 1 C of G is selected if ____ is required; ALT 2 if ____.

A

18%, 23%.

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74
Q

What is the procedure for setting landing elevation if airport is above 6000’?

A

Set 6000’ prior to t/o and actual field elevation at initial descent.

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75
Q

What mode engages if a new altitude is selected during ALT ACQ?

A

V/S, and the existing V/S is maintained.

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76
Q

Can you refuel with an engine running?

A

Yes, but there shall be no passengers or cabin crew on board.

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77
Q

What is the approximate fuelling rate?

A

1136 l/min

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78
Q

Takeoff with Cold Soaked Fuel Frost is allowable on the upper and lower wings provided…

A

Ambient air temp is at or above +4C
No visible moisture or precipitation
Tank fuel temp at or above -16C
No critical surface contamination

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79
Q

How would you accomplish a fast realignment of the IRSs?

A

Mode selectors to ALIGN
Enter position on CDU
Mode selectors to NAV
(Align lights should go out within 30s)

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80
Q

Step climb evaluations in the FMS do not consider…

A

Buffet margin limits.

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81
Q

During engine starts at cold temperatures, oil pressure may…

A

Go above normal range and OIL FILTER BYPASS light May come on. It may take several minutes for the pressure to return to normal range.

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82
Q

If oil pressure remains above the normal range after ___ has stabilized, shut down the engine.

A

Oil temperature.

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83
Q

Is single engine taxi approved in icing conditions?

A

Yes, but not recommended.

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84
Q

If when selecting ENGINE ANTI ICE ON, the COWL ANTI ICE lights do not extinguish, do the following…

A

Verify APU BLEED OFF
Verify ISOL VLV AUTO
Check area behind a/c is clear
Increase thrust slightly (max 30% N1)

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85
Q

Normally the IDGs stabilize within ___ min, but can take up to ___ min in cold weather.

A

1, 5.

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86
Q

If deicing/anti icing, what is omitted in the after start checklist?

A

Flaps.

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87
Q

When are engine run ups required?

A

Engine anti ice required and OAT is 3C or below.

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88
Q

How do you accomplish an engine run up?

A

Check area behind a/c is clear
Increase thrust to minimum 50% N1 momentarily
Repeat as required at intervals no greater than 60 min.

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89
Q

When is a run up required as part of the take off procedure? How is this accomplished?

A

When engine anti ice required for taxi or t/o and OAT is 3C or below.
Must be within 5min of, or during t/o: minimum 50% N1 for 5 sec- confirm stable engine operation, then advance to t/o thrust.

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90
Q

In moderate to severe icing, how is fan ice shed?

A

One engine at a time:
ENGINE START switch FLT
A/T disengage
Thrust increase to minimum 80% N1 for 1s, then reduce
Wait 15 sec- if Eng vib <4, repeats every 15 min; if >4 do the engine high vibration non normal C/L
A/T engage

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91
Q

Use of wing anti ice above ___ may cause bleed trip off and possible loss of cabin pressure.

A

FL350.

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92
Q

After landing in prolonged icing conditions, do not retract the flaps to less than…

A

15 until they can be inspected.

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93
Q

When will the APU auto shut down?

A

Low oil pressure
Fault light
Overspeed
Fire warning
Battery off

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94
Q

CONFIG light for center tank come on when…

A

More than 726 kg in center and pumps OFF

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95
Q

What is the 737 wingspan?

A

117’ 10”

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96
Q

What is the minimum rwy width for a 180 turn?

A

80’.

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97
Q

If extra cooling is required on the ground with engines running…

A

Eng BLEEDS OFF
ISOL VLV OPEN
APU BLEED ON
PACKS HIGH
Temp selectors AUTO COOL

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98
Q

If moderate to heavy rain, hail or sleet is encountered…

A

ENGINE START switches CONT
A/T disengage
Thrust lever adjust slowly to higher setting
IAS use slower speed
Consider starting the APU

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99
Q

For flight in severe turbulence…

A

Yaw damper ON
A/T disengage
AP CWS
ENGINE START switches FLT
Thrust set as required

100
Q

What flap setting should be used for suspected windshear on landing?

A

30.

101
Q

Is FFOTD based on UTC or local time?

A

Local.

102
Q

Can you reset a tripped breaker on the ground?

A

Only with maintenance approval.

103
Q

When does the MEL apply?

A

Prior to dispatch (thrust set for t/o).

104
Q

How will FMC entries be verbally executed?

A

‘READY TO EXECUTE’
‘EXECUTE’

105
Q

After a DTO is executed, if the a/c is not already in LNAV, the PM will call…

A

‘LNAV AVAILABLE’

106
Q

Can you use the auto throttle during engine out operations?

A

No.

107
Q

When should the HUD be used?

A

For all phases of flight except during taxi at pilot discretion.

108
Q

Runway distance remaining on the HUD counts down in ___ foot intervals.

A

500.

109
Q

The requirement to tune and identify navaids can be satisfied by…

A

Confirming correct alpha identifier on the PDF or by listening to the ident.

110
Q

Normally during t/o, which pilot monitors WX radar? Terrain?

A

PF. PM.

111
Q

What are the limitations for extended overwater flights?

A

501-517: none- ETOPS limits apply

518-540: must remain within 400nm of suitable landing site

112
Q

How much reserve fuel is loaded for a 737?

A

700-1000 kg (based on min to max landing weight)

113
Q

How much is NAIFR SAP fuel for a second approach on the 737?

A

300-500 kg (at min to max landing weight)

114
Q

When is SUPP fuel added on the 737?

A

If planned EFOB is less than 1500 kg, SUPP is added to bring EFOB up to 1500.

115
Q

What is the 737 APU fuel burn on the ground?

A

107 kg/hr

116
Q

What is the 737 fuel burn in flight?

A

36 kg/min
2160 kg/hr

117
Q

How often must a service check be done? When is one required before flight?

A

Every 48hrs.
Before ETOPS flights (not including 75 min ETOPS), if t/o alternate is >60 min, all overseas flights to/from Canada

118
Q

Is a service check required for an overseas flight in the case of a diversion for a non-technical reason?

A

No, provided 48hrs has not elapsed and the crew does a walk around.

119
Q

How is the cross feed selector tested for ETOPS flights?

A

Selector OPEN- VALVE OPEN light bright then dim
Selector CLOSE- VALVE OPEN light bright then out

120
Q

Are APU starts/shutdowns permitted during refuelling?

A

Yes, as long as the APU hasn’t failed to start or an auto shutdown hasn’t occurred.

121
Q

When will the flight recorder OFF light extinguish?

A

Anytime electrical power is available and either engine is operating.

122
Q

The stall warning test requires AC transfer busses are powered for up to ___ min.

A

4.

123
Q

When are the crew required to do a walk around?

A

If the service check was more than 2hrs ago, or ice or snow adhering to a/c, or damage or malfunction is suspected.

124
Q

When should the HUD combiner be lowered?

A

At least 5 min before the HUD pre-flight.

125
Q

A fuel load error equal to or greater than ___ kg must be reported to load.

A

300.

126
Q

What are the passenger count tolerances?

A

+/- 3 per zone
+/- 6 total

127
Q

What are the weight allowances for t/o WAT?

A

+0/-2000 kg

128
Q

Which fuel pumps should be selected ON for APU use?

A

1 AFT or FWD AC fuel pump or,

L CTR AC fuel pump if able

129
Q

Which engine should be started for a single engine taxi out?

A

1

130
Q

How long before t/o must the #2 engine be started?

A

Enough time to allow for a 3 min engine warm up.

131
Q

When taxiing, turning which way requires more thrust?

A

To the left.

132
Q

Prior to disconnecting EXT PWR, how should you confirm the APU is powering the AC buses?

A

Verify APU GENERATOR OFF BUS light out
Verify SOURCE OFF lights out

133
Q

Brake pressure must be checked for 1500 psi except…

A

During the before start checklist- after turning on the system B electric hydraulic pump, verify 2800 psi.
And after taxi in when brakes set.

134
Q

What is the normal duty cycle for the engine starter?

A

Each start attempt limited to 3 min of starter usage, minimum of 10 sec between starts.

135
Q

What are the limits for extended engine motoring?

A

Starter limited to 5 min, with 5 min between first two motorings, and 10 min subsequently.

136
Q

If there is a fluid leak from the engine drain, what is the start up procedure?

A

Run the engine at idle for 5 min, if the leak stops, no maintenance action required.
If leak continues, shut down and restart the engine and idle for 5 min- if still leaking, need maintenance.

137
Q

For the FFOTD at airport above 2000’ MSL, if temperature is below 5C, consider placing ignition to…

A

BOTH before starting the engines.

138
Q

When should you do the aborted engine start checklist?

A

N1 or N2 does not increase after EGT rise (hung start)
No oil pressure with engine at stable idle
No EGT rise by 15 sec after engine start lever (no light off)
EGT nears or exceeds start limit (hot start)

139
Q

What is the minimum N2 to introduce fuel to a starting engine?

A

20%, if normal 25% not possible.

140
Q

What is considered max motoring?

A

N2 acceleration less than 1% in 5 sec.

141
Q

When is starter cutout? If the starter does not cut out, what should you do?

A

63% N2.
Move the ENGINE START switch to AUTO manually.

142
Q

After both engines are started the ENG TFR switch is selected to…

A

The inboard display of the PM.

143
Q

If the ramp crew can’t see your thumbs up at night, how can you release the ground crew?

A

Turn the dome light off and back on.

144
Q

Break away power should be limited to ___ when taxiing.

A

40% N1.

145
Q

What is normal taxi speed?

A

20 kts- straight line up to 30, for turns use 10 kts

146
Q

The t/o trust target on reference N1 must match the t/o perf within…

A

+/- 0.2% (if more, verify FMC programming)

If greater than +/- 1%, discrepancy must be resolved prior to t/o

147
Q

When does LNAV activate after t/o when armed?

A

50’ RA.

148
Q

When does VNAV active after t/o when armed?

A

400’ RA.

149
Q

Which lights are selected by the captain to acknowledge t/o clearance?

A

R/L landing lights and taxi light.

150
Q

Target N1 should be set by ___ kts on t/o.

A

60.

151
Q

A rolling t/o is advised if winds are…

A

Above 20 kts XW, 10 kts TW.

152
Q

THR HLD mode of the A/T engages at what speed on t/o?

A

84 kts.

153
Q

What is the initial pitch attitude for t/o?

A

15 degrees.

154
Q

Light forward pressure on the control column should be maintained on t/o until what speed?

A

80 kts. Then relax to neutral.

155
Q

What protection is included with the Takeoff Rotation Cue?

A

Tailstrike and stall pitch rates.

156
Q

How would you set full N1 on t/o?

A

A/T OFF
THRUST LEVERS ADVANCE

157
Q

At what altitude will the A/T move thrust levers to full GA thrust? What happens below this altitude.

A

800’ RA.
Only sets reference bugs for N1- must manually set thrust.

158
Q

What rotation rate should be used to avoid a tailstrike?

A

2-2.5 degrees/sec

159
Q

What t/o flaps give the least tail clearance?

A

1 and 5.

160
Q

If pitch angle approaches ___ degrees on t/o, the PM shall call out ___.

A

10
PITCH PITCH

161
Q

A more aft CG increases lift available and…

A

Decreases VR and V2
Reduces field length for t/o

162
Q

Can you use ATM or derated thrust on a contaminated runway?

A

Only derated.

163
Q

Above 80 kts, what situations warrant a rejected t/o?

A

Fire
Engine failure
Predictive WS warning
A/C is unsafe/unable to fly

164
Q

If the A/T is not disconnected before ___ kts on a rejected t/o, what happens the the thrust?

A
  1. They will advance to t/o thrust when released.
165
Q

What speed are the auto brakes armed at?

A

90 kts.

166
Q

On t/o MCP will target ___, the optimum climb speed with flaps.

A

V2 + 20 kts.

167
Q

Bank angle is limited to ___ degrees below 400’.

A

8.

168
Q

What mode does the A/T change to above 800’?

A

From THR HLD to ARM.

169
Q

LNAV becomes active at 50’ if…

A

Active leg is within 3 nm and 5 degrees of the rwy heading.

170
Q

VNAV commands a speed ___ kts below flap placard speed and is based on ___.

A

5
Flap handle position

171
Q

What are the default modes if no other is selected before engaging the AP?

A

LVL CHG
MCP SPD
HDG SEL

172
Q

If FMC data is unavailable, Econ climb above 10 000’ is…

A

280 KIAS/ 0.78M

173
Q

Maximum rate of climb can be approximated by…

A

Flaps UP + 50 kts until 0.78M

174
Q

Maximum angle climb is approximately equal to…

A

Flaps UP maneuver speed.

175
Q

What mode must you be in to take advantage of FMC bank limiting at high altitudes?

A

LNAV.

176
Q

For maximum range cruise, what cost index shall be used?

A

0.

177
Q

In a proper trim condition, there may be a slight forward slip and…

A

Slight slip/skid indication.

178
Q

Fuel savings of climbing higher is usually justified if cruise time at the higher altitude will be at least ___ min.

A

20.

179
Q

If fuel temperature is a concern, how can TAT be raised?

A

Climb/descend into warmer air
Deviate to warmer air
Increase Mach

180
Q

An increase in Mach of 0.1 results in a TAT increase of…

A

0.5-0.7C

181
Q

An inflight APU start test requires…

A

It be done within 1 hr of TOD
Up to 3 start attempts allowed
Must be run for 5 min
Record result in logbook

182
Q

How much fuel is added if an APU inflight start test is required?

A

60 kg.

183
Q

The normal operational landing distance includes a fudge factor of…

A

1.15.

184
Q

What are the normal flap settings for landing?

A

30 or 40.

185
Q

What autobrake settings are ideal for brake life?

A

2 and 3.

186
Q

If MAX MANUAL braking is required for landing, should autobrake still be selected?

A

Yes, to MAX.

187
Q

Normal ECON descent is…

A

0.78M/ 280 KIAS

188
Q

The digital runway remaining value will be inaccurate when…

A

There is a displaced threshold at the far end of the rwy.

189
Q

Distance required for a 1000’ descent is approximately…

A

3 nm.

190
Q

VMAV SPD in descent uses ___ to control airspeed, while thrust is___.

A

Pitch
IDLE

191
Q

VNAV PTH cares more about…

A

Path than speed.

192
Q

If an earlier than normal speed reduction is required, use of flaps___ with gear up is acceptable.

A

10.

193
Q

Maximum approach speed should not exceed…

A

VREF + 15 kts (wind additives) or
5 kts below flap placard speed

194
Q

How should an ILS be intercepted from above?

A

Ensure APP selected (G/S armed)
Set MCP to 1000’ AFE
Select V/S 1000-1500 fpm

*flaps should be 5 or 10

195
Q

A go around should be executed if the CA and FO altimeters disagree by ___’ at FAF crossing.

A

100.

196
Q

When can APP mode be selected on approach?

A

ILS/GLS tuned and idented
On intercept heading
Pointers on correct sides
Inside 18 nm (ILS), 23 nm (GLS)
VNAV no longer required for restrictions
Clearance received

197
Q

When can the second AP be selected for a dual channel approach?

A

After arming APP mode.

198
Q

Is AUTOLAND approved for GLS approaches?

A

No.

199
Q

What altitude should the FLARE and ROLLOUT cues arm at?

A

1500’ RA.

200
Q

If a system failure occurs below alert height on a dual channel AUTOLAND approach, should the pilot intervene?

A

Only if it’s evident intervention is required. Below 200’ and safe rollout and landing can be made with any probable failure.

201
Q

Can an RNP AR APCH be hand flown?

A

No.

202
Q

RNP AR APCH is prohibited if the approach chart contains…

A

NA in the Cat D minimums row.

203
Q

MCP speed window should be opened on approach…

A

Any time prior to selection of flaps 15.

204
Q

If VNAV is engaged for an approach, when can the MA altitude be set?

A

When 300’ below MA altitude.

205
Q

Who can fly a PRM approach?

A

Only the Captain.

206
Q

What heading should be preselected during a PRM approach?

A

30 degrees away from the parallel runway.

207
Q

If a TCAS RA occurs during a PRM breakout, should you follow it?

A

Vertically, yes. Comply with ATC headings.

208
Q

When would you leave the AP engaged for a go around?

A

If following a dual channel AP approach. Otherwise, pressing TO/GA switch will disengage AP.

209
Q

When does the AP revert to single channel after a dual channel approach and go around?

A

400’.

210
Q

During a dual channel approach, the AP trims the nose___ below ___ ‘ RA.

A

Up
400

211
Q

When does the pre-autonomous flare cue appear?

A

Approximately 105’ AGL.

212
Q

When the flare command is active, the flare cue…

A

Changes from dashed lines to solid.

213
Q

The FD guidance cue is removed from view at approximately ___’.

A

70’ AGL.

214
Q

Flare should be initiated around ___’ by pitching up____ degrees.

A

20’
2-3 degrees

215
Q

Touchdown should be planned at what speed?

A

VREF (A/T engaged)
VREF + gusts (disengaged)

216
Q

Ok should call out: ‘BANK BANK’, ‘PITCH PITCH’ or ‘TAILSTRIKE’ when…

A

Bank angle approaches 8 degrees
Pitch approaches 8 degrees
TAILSTRIKE warning in HUD

217
Q

A TAILSTRIKE occurs when pitch exceeds…

A

10.8 degrees.

218
Q

A wingtip will contact the ground if bank exceeds…

A

9 degrees.

219
Q

Speedbrakes increase braking effectiveness initially as much as…

A

60%.

220
Q

Autobrakes can be released by…

A

Stowing the speedbrake
Manual braking
Selecting autobrake selector OFF

221
Q

When should reversers be stowed after landing?

A

Between 60 kts and taxi speed.

222
Q

If an engine surges during reverse thrust operations, what should you do?

A

Quickly select reverse idle on both engines.

223
Q

How long should engines be allowed to cool down before shutdown?

A

3 min.

224
Q

Which engine is preferable to be used for a single engine taxi in?

A

1.

225
Q

What is the hot brake threshold energy?

A

29.9 million foot pounds.

226
Q

When can the anti collision light be turned off after engine shutdown?

A

N1 below 10%.

227
Q

Which fuel pumps shall not be on if the flight deck is unattended?

A

Center tank pumps.

228
Q

The termination checklist is required if…

A

The flight deck will be left unattended for more than 10 min.

229
Q

When should the battery be selected off in the termination checklist?

A

5 min after APU GEN OFF BUS light goes out.
If a/c to be left unattended without the APU running.

230
Q

When should you use WET for ACARS WAT?

A

Damp rwy
Trace contaminant
Frost

231
Q

If the cabin pressurization panel fails on the ground (or indications blank), what should you do?

A

Do not take off.

232
Q

If the flight data recorder OFF light flashes along with 2 master cautions during engine start, what action is required?

A

None.

233
Q

If bleed pressure oscillates ~10 psi with engine anti ice ON, are there any adverse effects?

A

No.

234
Q

If the L/R VALVE lights illuminate with wing anti ice ON, when is the non-normal checklist required?

A

Above FL230: wait 20 sec- if lights don’t go out, do the checklist
Below FL230: right away

235
Q

If the COWL VALVE lights illuminate with engine anti ice ON, when is the non normal checklist required?

A

Above FL230: right away
Below FL230: wait 20 sec- if lights still on, do checklist

236
Q

If the START VALVE OPEN alert blinks momentarily during starter cutout, is the non normal checklist required?

A

No, unless it illuminates steady after 10 sec.

237
Q

Hydraulic reservoir quantity drops of up to 40% in flight are…

A

Normal. Gear retraction, thermal contraction and LE flap extension can all remove up to 20%.

238
Q

What is the maximum thrust reduction for takeoff below certified rating?

A

25%.

239
Q

How do you confirm user waypoints in the FMS?

A

INIT REF
INDEX
NAV DATA
SUMMARY

240
Q

When checking the route, what are the track/distance tolerances between waypoints?

A

+/- 3 degrees magnetic heading
+/- 2 nm

241
Q

Wind uplink only loads winds for waypoints that are…

A

Named. No winds are loaded for lat/longs.

242
Q

What is the max crosswind for t/o? Landing?

A

34 kts. 40 kts.

243
Q

What happens to the IDGs if you inadvertently takeoff with the APU powering electrics?

A

The engine generators automatically come on line.

244
Q

If engine oil quantity is low in flight, what should you do?

A

Nothing unless a limit is exceeded. Info only.

245
Q

If you absolutely have to reset a CB in flight, how long should you wait to do so?

A

2 min

246
Q

When should the wind additive not exceed 5 kts?

A

Landing w/ AT ON (AUTOLAND)
VREF ICE = VREF 15+10

247
Q

You should not follow a DESCEND RA below what altitude?

A

1000’

AC B737 (1 decks)

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