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VPH > Everything > Flashcards

Everything Flashcards

1
Q

Who can serve an improvement notice for farm animal welfare concerns?

A

APHA

Local Authority

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2
Q

What can people be fined up to for illegal actions under the AWA 2006?

A

£20000

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3
Q

What are the potential consequences of not acting on a welfare improvement notice?

A

unlimited fines

6 months in prison

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4
Q

What amount of iron must calves legally have in their blood?

A

4.5 mmol/litre

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5
Q

What stocking density should chickens not exceed unless the premises is registered with local APHA?

A

<33kg/m2

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6
Q

If lambs are <4 weeks old and are at a market, how long must they stay at the market for?

A

4 hours

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7
Q

Why does the export of UK animals or POAO to the EU require veterinary certification?

A

because the UK is considered a third country

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8
Q

Are HACCP principles required at the level of the farm?

A

No

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9
Q

How long must farm medicine records be kept?

A

5 years

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10
Q

What is the thermal comfort zone for broilers?

A

8-30 degrees

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11
Q

what percentage of poultry deaths during transport is due to cold spots in the lorry?

A

70%

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12
Q

How many seconds does it take for chickens to calm down after being shackled?

A

12 seconds

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13
Q

What voltages induce cardiac arrest in chickens?

A

50-500Hz

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14
Q

How long must rhythmic breathing in birds be suppressed for for it to be an effective stun?

A

8 seconds

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15
Q

Which blood vessels are cut when killing poultry?

A

both carotid arteries

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16
Q

What is the temperature used for scalding chicken carcasses?

A

51-65 degrees centigrade

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17
Q

What temperature do chicken carcasses need to be chilled to after slaughter?

A

4 degrees

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18
Q

Who is responsible for food traceability?

A

FBOs

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19
Q

What four food treatments do not kill Trichinella spiralis?

A

curing
drying
smoking
fermenting

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20
Q

What treatment of meat kills pig Trichinella species?

A

freezing

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21
Q

Over what age should the heart of cattle be incised to check for Cysticercus bovis?

A

6 weeks

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22
Q

What are three food borne zoonoses from the environment?

A

Bacillus spp
Clostridia spp
Listeria spp

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23
Q

What temperature does food need to be cooked to to destroy Toxoplasma?

A

67 degrees C

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24
Q

If someone gets injured at work who does the employer need to notify?

A

Health and Safety Executive

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25
Q

Under what scheme is it possible to claim disability benefits if a person acquires a listed disease?

A

industrial injuries scheme

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26
Q

Do Game Handling Establishments have to be approved?

A

yes

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27
Q

What do wild boar have to be tested for at GHEs?

A

trichinella

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28
Q

Are most emerging infectious disease events zoonotic?

A

yes

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29
Q

What is usutuvirus transmitted by?

A

mosquitoes

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30
Q

Is the usutuvirus zoonotic?

A

yes

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31
Q

What two animals does the RHDV virus affect?

A

rabbits

hares

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32
Q

Is tularaemia present in the UK?

A

no

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33
Q

How is African Swine fever transmitted from wild boar to domestic pigs?

A

soft bodied ticks

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34
Q

Does African Swine fever survive in frozen meat products?

A

yes

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35
Q

Under what act are zoonotic diseases listed?

A

Animal Health Act 1981

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36
Q

Cattle over what age must be tested for BSE?

A

40 months

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37
Q

What can be used in abattoirs to prevent the establishment of campylobacter on the surface of chickens?

A

rapid surface chilling

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38
Q

Which government department is responsible for making policy and enforcing legislation about water?

A

DEFRA

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39
Q

Who audits waste water discharged by businesses?

A

Trade Effluent Inspectors

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40
Q

Who controls water which is discharged after waste water is treated?

A

Environmental Agency

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41
Q

How many cases of Legionella pneumophila are there in humans per year in the UK?

A

400-500

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42
Q

What is a disease outbreak caused by dam building?

A

schistosomiasis

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43
Q

What is a disease outbreak caused by an irrigation project in Sri Lanka?

A

Japanese encephalitis

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44
Q

Under what regulation is the sampling of animal derived food for microbiological testing required?

A

H1

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45
Q

What is the term for the measure of the bacteria in a sample that can survive on the surface of carcasses, can be harvested and grow in the presence of air?

A

Aerobic Colony Count

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46
Q

Whats the allowable number of Salmonella colonies allowed in a tested area of a carcass?

A

0

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47
Q

How many sites on animal carcasses need to be tested for microbiological testing in abattoirs?

A

4

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48
Q

How much lower is the acceptable threshold for microbiological testing for wet-dry swabbing compared with excision sampling?

A

20%

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49
Q

How many weeks of data must be charted for microbiological testing in abattoirs?

A

13 weeks

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50
Q

How long do microbiological testing results in abattoirs need to be kept for?

A

18 months

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51
Q

Does firearms or captive bolt stunning cause more post-stun kicking?

A

captive bolt

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52
Q

Can pithing be used on animals for human consumption?

A

no

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53
Q

What is the minimum current needed to stun pigs?

A

1.3 Amps

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54
Q

What is the only method which can be used to stick pigs?

A

thoracic method

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55
Q

What concentration does CO2 need to be to be used for controlled atmospheric stunning in pigs?

A

70%

56
Q

What is a sign of successful unconsciousness in a pig after controlled atmospheric stunning?

A

paddling of feet

57
Q

What is the legislation created by the UK to interpret Regulation (EC) 1099/2009?

A

Welfare of Animals at the Time of Killing

58
Q

Which article of (EC) 1099/2009 regulation lays down the requirements for fish?

A

article 3

59
Q

A slaughter house which kills more than how many units requires an Animal Welfare Officer?

A

1000 units/year

60
Q

Pigs over what age must have their carcass split?

A

5 weeks

61
Q

Cattle over what age must have their carcass split?

A

8 months

62
Q

What Article of Regulations (EC) 627/2019 states when fresh meat is not fit for human consumption?

A

Article 45

63
Q

What are 8 specific hazards laid down by (EC) 627/2019?

A 
TSE
Cysticercosis
Salmonella
Campylobacter
Tuberculosis 
Brucellosis
Trichinosis
Glanders
64
Q

Which two people are responsible for PMI of non-poultry?

A

MHI

OVs

65
Q

Who is responsible for AMI of non-poultry?

A

OVs

66
Q

What organ in sheep must be routinely incised at PMI?

A

liver

67
Q

What two parts of young animals should be inspected at PMI?

A

joints

umbilical region

68
Q

Do small scale poultry slaughterhouses processing under 10000 birds/year need to be registered or approved?

A

registered

69
Q

What is the usual outcome of poultry carcasses where pericarditis is seen?

A

rejection of the carcass

70
Q

Who is responsible for placing ID marks on poultry?

A

FBOs

71
Q

Do OVs check all the poultry carcasses which have been rejected or only a sample?

A

only a sample

72
Q

What pH does meat drop from and too in 24 hours?

A

7 to 5.5

73
Q

Do stressed animals undergo rigor mortis quickly or slowly?

A

quickly

74
Q

Can poultry be called fresh having been frozen?

A

no

75
Q

What temperature does raw red meat have to be stored at?

A

<7 degrees C (or equal to)

76
Q

What temperature does offal have to be stored at?

A

<3 degrees C (or equal to)

77
Q

How many bacteria are needed to produce malodour on meat?

A

10^7 cfu/g

78
Q

How many bacteria are needed to produce slime on meat?

A

10^8 cfu/g

79
Q

Does stressing animals increase or decrease the amount of lactic acid produced?

A

decrease (meaning the pH is higher)

80
Q

What are 3 ways of preserving meat with antimicrobials?

A

adding nisin
adding nitrates/nitries
smoking

81
Q

Does AHDB have much to do with poultry?

A

no

82
Q

What does the EUROP scale measure about a sheep carcass?

A

how rounded it is

83
Q

What is the acceptable level of skatole in pigs?

A

0.2ug/g

84
Q

Is it a requirement to test for boar taint?

A

No

85
Q

What is the term for dropping the pH of meat below 6 when the temperature is above 35 degrees C?

A

hot shortening

86
Q

What is the term for the pH being about 6 when the temperature of the meat is below 12 degrees C?

A

cold shortening

87
Q

What is the threshold for raw milk plate count?

A

<100,000 per ml

88
Q

What is the threshold for Somatic Cell Count for raw milk?

A

<400,000 per ml

89
Q

What temperature should milk be stored at?

A

<6 degrees C

90
Q

Who does the Official Controls for cheese production?

A

local authorities

91
Q

What does the thermisation process involve?

A

heating between 57-68 degrees C for 15 seconds

92
Q

Is milk heated when producing soft cheese?

A

not often

93
Q

When temperature should yogurt be stored at?

A

<5 degrees C

94
Q

From what species did the SARS virus pandemic in the early 2000 originate?

A

palm civets

95
Q

How many cases of Hepatitis E are seen in the UK per year?

A

800-1200

96
Q

What species of animal is the reservoir host for small pox?

A

squirrels

97
Q

What animals caused the outbreak of smallpox in America in 2003?

A

Gambian giant rats

98
Q

What is the usual incubation period for rabies in humans?

A

20-60 days

99
Q

What do horses with rabies usually present with?

A

choke

100
Q

What route of infection of Salmonella is more common in stressed chickens?

A

airborne

101
Q

What pH does an egg become in the first 24 hours of laying?

A

pH 9

102
Q

What is the vaccination against Salmonella?

A

Salenvac

103
Q

What order requires Salmonella monitoring in breeding and parent poultry flocks?

A

Poultry Order 2007

104
Q

If eggs are positive for Salmonella what grade do they become?

A

Grade B

105
Q

What does the pasteurisation of eggs involve?

A

heating to 64.4 degrees C for 2.5 minutes

106
Q

If an egg is cracked but the membrane is intake what grade are they?

A

Grade C

107
Q

Who enforces legislation around the production of eggs?

A

Egg Marketing Inspectors

108
Q

Who do Egg Marketing Inspectors work for?

A

APHA

109
Q

What is most gelatine made from?

A

pig skin

110
Q

How long can sausage casings be stored for?

A

4 years

111
Q

Do OVs have to certify sausage casings?

A

yes

112
Q

What leaves are poisonous to sheep?

A

pieris leaves

113
Q

What group deals with a disease outbreak investigation?

A

Incident Management Team

114
Q

Infection which what strain of Avian Influenza requires the strict approach to human cases?

A

H5N8

115
Q

Do vets acting as Authorised Enforcement Officers act under UK or EU law?

A

UK

116
Q

What is the primary way of controlling scombrotoxin poisoning?

A

rapid cooling

117
Q

What are 4 diseases humans can get due to bacteria in fish?

A

Scobrotoxin poisoning
listeriosis
Botulism
Streptococcus agalactia

118
Q

What type of clostridia is associated with fish?

A

Type E Clostridia Botulinum

119
Q

What are the two main viruses in bivalves which cause disease in humans?

A

hepatitis A

norovirus

120
Q

Are there regulatory standards for virus levels in bivalves?

A

no

121
Q

What EU directive controls sewage pollution?

A

Water Framework Directive (EC) 60/2000

122
Q

How long are bivalves in the purification tank for usually?

A

48 hrs

123
Q

What temperature of water favours the growth of Vibrio parahaemolyticus in sea food?

A

15 degrees C

124
Q

What can be done to decrease the risk of Vibrio parahaemolyticus in sea food?

A

increasing refrigeration time

125
Q

What does Vibrio vulnificus cause in humans?

A

primary septicaemia

126
Q

What are three ways of reducing Vibrio vulnificus in sea food?

A

pasteurisation
ultra-high pressure
freezing

127
Q

Veterinary medicines under what schedule do not need a marketing authorisation?

A

Schedule 6

128
Q

What is the minimum withdrawal period of veterinary medicines in chicken eggs and milk?

A

7 days

129
Q

What is the minimum withdrawal period of veterinary medicines in meat?

A

28 days

130
Q

How long is the prescription for controlled drugs in schedule 1-4 valid for?

A

28 days

131
Q

For which controlled drugs schedules are repeat prescriptions permitted?

A

4 and 5

132
Q

What causes American foulbrood in bees?

A

Paenibacillus larvae

133
Q

What causes European foulbrood in bees?

A

Melissococcus plutonius

134
Q

For how long does honey need to be stored after bee colonies have been treated for European foulbrood with antibiotics?

A

6 months

135
Q

Does honey need health certificates?

A

yes

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