Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology Honors 1 EOC > EVERY TOPIC > Flashcards

EVERY TOPIC Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

An increase or decrease in pH or temperature can cause an enzyme to ____________.

A

Denature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which type of organic compound gives the most calories of energy per gram

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction by lowering the amount of _____________energy to start the reaction

A

activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Enzymes are always changed in the reaction and cannot be used again

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Enzymes are specific and can only bond with or act on one particular substrate

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - glucose, fructose, strach

A

carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - nucleotide

A

nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - triglyceride

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - meat, fish, eggs

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - Adenine

A

nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - polysaccharide

A

carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - enzymes

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - phospholipid

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - protein

A

used as building blocks for the body, NOT energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - lipid

A

insulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - nucleic acids

A

used to identify the characteristics of an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - carbohydrates

A

quick main source of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Match the description to its organic compound - short term energy

A

carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Match the description to its organic compound - store genetic material

A

nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Match the description to its organic compound - builds muscle and helps with movement

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Match the description to its organic compound - long term energy

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - hormones like insulin

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - waxes, oils, butter

A

lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - pasta, bread, rice

A

carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Match the example to its organic compound - DNA, RNA

A

nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An organic compound will always have what 3 elements?

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

substrate

A

the reactant that the enzyme binds or attaches to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

activation energy

A

the amount of energy needed to start a reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

catalyst

A

a molecule that speeds up a reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

active site

A

the place where the enzyme and substrate join

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Match the organic compound with its correct monomer - nucleic acid

A

Nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Match the organic compound with its correct monomer - lipid

A

Fatty Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Match the organic compound with its correct monomer - carbohydrate

A

Monosaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Match the organic compound with its correct monomer - protein

A

Amino Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The model of a substrate to an enzyme is called a lock and key model

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - blueprint of an organism

A

nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - ends in -ose

A

carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - speeds up chemical reactions

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Match the description to the organic compound - builds cell membranes and provides waterproof coverings

A

lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following are parts of mitosis?

A

anaphase
metaphase
telophase
prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following is an argument that supports the use of embryonic stem cells?

A

they can be used to cure diseases such as Parkinson’s and Alzheimers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Daughter cells that are formed by mitosis have _______________chromosomes as the parent cell

A

the same number of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Apoptosis is

A

the destruction of a cell that has/contains an error programmed cell death
a process in which a cell should destroy itself if an error is found and cannot be fixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Place the phases of mitosis in order, starting with what happens immediately after interphase

A

prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A malignant tumor can be described as

A

a mass of abnormal cells that can spread from where it originated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Organisms use the process of mitosis for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

A

differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A benign tumor can be described as

A

a mass of abnormal cells that does not move beyond its original location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Stem cells can become any type of cell in the body?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cancer cells are your own cells dividing uncontrollably

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why are checkpoints important throughout the cell cycle?

A

they make sure that the cell has no mistakes as it divides, so that any daughter cells formed are functional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the stage of the cell cycle when the cytoplasm of a cell actually splits and two daughter cells are formed

A

cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replicate itself?

A

Interphase - Synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Put the phases of the cell cycle in the correct order, starting with the phase that happens immediately after a new cell is formed.

A

G1
S
G2
M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Mitosis produces daughter cells that are _______ to their parents, which means that they have the exact same ________. These daughter cells are __________, or body cells. Unlike mitosis, meiosis forms daughter cells that have __________ the DNA of their parent cell. These cells made during meiosis are called _________.

A

identical
DNA
somatic
half
gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following is not true about stem cells?

A

only embryonic stem cells can differentiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Differentiation can be described as

A

the process by which stem cells develop a specific purpose and become a specialized cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Match the phase of mitosis with the appropriate description - Anaphase

A

Sister chromatids are pulled apart from each other and migrate to opposite poles / ends of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Match the phase of mitosis with the appropriate description - Telophase

A

Chromatids are at opposite ends of the cell and a new nucleus begins to form around each set of chromatids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Match the phase of mitosis with the appropriate description - Metaphase

A

Sister chromatids are pulled to the equator and line up in the middle of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Match the phase of mitosis with the appropriate description - Prophase

A

Sister chromatids first become visible and the nuclear membrane begins to break down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cancer is the result of

A

cells that divide uncontrollably

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Bacteria is an example of what type(s) of cell(s)?

A

prokaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In order for a virus to reproduce it must invade a cell that becomes the ________ for the virus

A

host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A virus is a type of cell and is considered living.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Animal cells, plant cells, and fungal cells are examples of what type of cell?

A

eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A cell that does not have a nucleus and usually forms unicellular organisms represents what type of cell?

A

prokaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

DNA is found in a double helix in what type of cell?

A

eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What organelles are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A

cell membrane
cytoplasm
ribosome
genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

More complex, larger in size, and usually forms multicellular organisms would best describe what type of cell?

A

eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Select all that apply. Which organelles are found in prokaryotic cells?

A

nucleoid
cell membrane
genetic material
cytoplasm
ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Bacteria cell

A

Prokaryotic cell that is usually round and simple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Animal cell

A

Eukaryotic cell that is round and contains lysosomes and centrioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Plant cell

A

Eukaryotic cell that is boxy and contains chloroplast and cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Fungal cell

A

Eukaryotic cell that contains a cell wall and multiple nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following are found in eukaryotic cells only?

A

vesicle
cytoskeleton
golgi body
vacuoles
mitochondria
endoplasmic reticulum
nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Vacuole

A

Stores substances inside the cell (water, nutrients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Ribosome

A

Makes proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Vesicle

A

The pouch that moves materials around the cell (sac)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Cell Wall

A

Provides shape and support for plant cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Cell Membrane

A

Controls what can enter or leave the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Nucleus

A

Control center of the cell that directs all of the cells activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cytoplasm

A

Fluid, jelly like substance that holds the organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Mitochondria

A

Breaks down glucose to give the cell energy (ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Chloroplast

A

A structure in plants that captures energy from the sun and converts it into glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Golgi Body

A

Packages and ships the proteins to be exported from the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Microtubules

A

Forms the cytoskeleton of the cell and enables organelles to move in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Endoplasmic Reticulum

A

The highway used to transport materials throughout the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The “active” part of active transport means that it uses____________.

A

Energy in the form of ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Use the following information to answer the question. A cell contains 10% salt and a solution contains 30% salt. Which description correctly describes osmosis in this situation.

A

there will be a net flow of water leaving the cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The cell membrane lets some molecules in and keeps others out. Which term does NOT accurately describe this property?

A

hemipermeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Hypotonic

A

A cell is in a solution that has less solutes (salts and sugars) than the cell has on the inside

water will enter the cell causing it to swell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Isotonic

A

A cell is in a solution that has the same amount of solutes (salts and sugars) as the inside of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Hypertonic

A

A cell is in a solution that has more solutes (salts and sugar) than the cell has on the inside

water will leave cell causing it to shrink

94
Q

Homeostasis refers to the need for an organism to maintain constant or stable internal conditions.

A

true

95
Q

Water moves through osmosis by going from _________areas to _________areas

A

hypotonic, hypertonic

96
Q

What would be a reasonable definition for diffusion?

A

molecules moving from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration

97
Q

Osmosis is the diffusion of

A

water

98
Q

light independent reaction

A

uses carbon dioxide to produce glucose

99
Q

light dependent reaction

A

uses sunlight and water to produce oxygen

100
Q

Why don’t plants rely on animals or humans for the energy that they need.

A

plants can do both: make their own food and break it down for energy

101
Q

Alcoholic fermentation breaks down pyruvic acid to produce ethyl alcohol and what other product?

A

carbon dioxide

102
Q

In aerobic respiration, 1 molecule of glucose is converted to a net gain total of approximately _____ATP.

A

36

103
Q

Which organisms below go through anaerobic lactic acid fermentation?

A

golden retriever
people

104
Q

Every living organism goes through glycolysis.

A

true

105
Q

Select the overall products of photosynthesis.

A

glucose
oxygen

106
Q

Select the overall reactants for photosynthesis (there are 3).

A

water
sunlight energy
carbon dioxide

107
Q

Anaerobic

A

without oxygen

108
Q

Aerobic

A

with oxygen

109
Q

How does an ATP molecule become an ADP molecule? (ATP —> ADP)

A

a phosphate group is taken off

110
Q

Select the overall reactants of cellular respiration.

A

glucose
oxygen

111
Q

kreb’s cycle

A

uses pyruvic acid and oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and 2 ATP

112
Q

glycolysis

A

glucose is split to produce pyruvic acid and and a net gain of 2 ATP

113
Q

electron transport chain

A

use electron carriers and oxygen to produce water and 32 ATP

114
Q

Place the steps of aerobic respiration in order starting from the cytoplasm

A

glycolysis
kreb’s cycle
electron transport chain

115
Q

What builds up an ATP?

A

3 circle phosphates, ribose sugar connecting the adenine base

116
Q

Which of the following do your muscle cells produce when they are in an environment with little to no oxygen?

A

Lactic Acid

117
Q

Which of the following occurs when ATP becomes ADP?

A

energy is released

118
Q

Match the process with where it occurs in the cell - Aerobic Cellular Respiration

A

Mitochondria

119
Q

Match the process with where it occurs in the cell - Photosynthesis

A

Chloroplast

120
Q

Match the process with where it occurs in the cell - Anaerobic Cellular Respiration

A

Cytoplasm

121
Q

Which organisms below go through anaerobic alcoholic fermentation or are used during the process of alcoholic fermentation?

A

yeast
corn
grapes
staphylococcus aureus (bacteria)

122
Q

Select the overall products of cellular respiration.

A

carbon dioxide
ATP
water

123
Q

What is the DNA complement of GAGCTA? Use capital letters and no spaces.

A

CTCGAT

124
Q

Chromosome

A

made up of genes

125
Q

Nucleotides

A

the building blocks of DNA

126
Q

DNA

A

organic molecule that contains the instructions for all living things

127
Q

Gene

A

a section of a DNA molecule that contains the instructions for a specific protein

128
Q

Match the process to what it produces - DNA Replication

A

DNA

129
Q

Match the process to what it produces -Translation

A

protein

130
Q

Match the process to what it produces - Transcription

A

RNA

131
Q

The genetic code in DNA depends on the order of_______.

A

nucleotides

132
Q

Which of the following is / are associated with DNA?

A

Deoxyribose sugar
thymine
double stranded

133
Q

What is the end result of transcription?

A

RNA

134
Q

What type of RNA is involved in translation?

A

tRNA
mRNA
rRNA

135
Q

In terms of DNA, a mutation is

A

a mistake in the DNA that can cause a protein to be made incorrectly, which may lead to various problems

136
Q

which of the following is part of a nucleotide?

A

nitrogen base
deoxyribose
phosphate
ribose

137
Q

What is the RNA complement of CTGCAT? Use capital letters and no spaces.

A

GACGUA

138
Q

tRNA

A

carries the amino acid

139
Q

rRNA

A

the location where the proteins are made

140
Q

mRNA

A

the message using A, U, C, and G

141
Q

what would the complimentary mRNA of this DNA strand be? Use capital letters and one space between each letter. T A C C C G A C C A T T (use caps and put one space in between each letter)

A

A U G G G C U G G U A A

142
Q

A cell needs 3 types of RNA. Match the RNA to what would happen if it was missing - tRNA

A

Ribosomes would not have the amino acids they need to synthesize proteins

143
Q

A cell needs 3 types of RNA. Match the RNA to what would happen if it was missing - mRNA

A

Genes’ instructions would not be able to leave the nucleus, so ribosomes would not have a blueprint they need to synthesis proteins

144
Q

A cell needs 3 types of RNA. Match the RNA to what would happen if it was missing - rRNA

A

Ribosomes would be missing a part and would not be able to synthesize proteins

145
Q

Each tRNA attaches to a specific ______

A

amino acid

146
Q

A. T, G, C, and U are all examples of…

A

nitrogen bases

147
Q

tRNA contains a three nucleotide part called a

A

anticodon

148
Q

Replication

A

the creation of 2 sets of DNA for cell division. Unwinding and adding in new nucleotides

149
Q

Translation

A

uses the mRNA code to create a protein in the ribosomes found in the cytoplasm

150
Q

Transcription

A

using DNA as a template to create an mRNA code, which occurs in the nucleus

151
Q

tRNA attach to ____ and transfer them to the ribosomes

A

amino acids

152
Q

which of the following bases is not found in RNA

A

T

153
Q

How many codons are in this RNA sequence AUGGCCACAUAA?

A

4

154
Q

Match the process to where it occurs - Translation

A

Cytoplasm

155
Q

Match the process to where it occurs - Transcription

A

Nucleus

156
Q

Which seems to be the most accurate description of RNA?

A

A copy of a gene that can leave the nucleus

157
Q

Where does DNA replication occur?

A

nucleus

158
Q

Is the following strand a strand of DNA or RNA? How do you know? AUGGAU

A

RNA because only RNA has U’s

159
Q

Which of the following is a segment of DNA that codes for a certain protein?

A

gene

160
Q

Place the steps of DNA replication in order from beginning to end.

A

The DNA helix untwists
Enzymes separate the 2 DNA stand
The new nucleotides are added by enzymes
2 identical DNA molecules are produced

161
Q

A black bull and a white cow are crossed. Half of the offspring are black and half are black and white spotted. What type of dominance controls hair color in the cows?

A

codominace

162
Q

sex-linked traits

A

traits whose genes are located on the sex chromosomes (hemophilia)

163
Q

incomplete dominance

A

neither trait is completely dominant over the other (red, pink, white)

164
Q

law of dominance

A

when a dominant allele is present, it is expressed

165
Q

multiple alleles

A

having more than 2 alleles for a trait (blood type)

166
Q

codominance

A

both alleles are expressed in the phenotype (black, black and white, white)

167
Q

polygenic traits

A

traits that have many genes that code for a trait (based on amount of dominate alleles present)(eye color)

168
Q

Hemophilia

A

Inability of blood to clot

169
Q

Huntington’s

A

Late fife mental deterioration

170
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A

Excessive mucous production

171
Q

Color Blindness

A

Inability to distinguish certain colors

172
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia

A

Misshaped red blood cells

173
Q

Albinism

A

Lack of skin and hair pigment

174
Q

Kleinfelter’s Syndrome

A

Males with an extra X chromosome that results in a hormone imbalance

175
Q

Turner’s Syndrome

A

Females with only one X chromosome that results in infertility

176
Q

Tay Sachs

A

Build up of fat in the brain

177
Q

Down Syndrome

A

Having an extra 21st pair of chromosomes that causes varying degrees of mental retardation

178
Q

Female genotype

A

XX

179
Q

Male genotype

A

XY

180
Q

nondisjunction

A

a mistake in division that causes an abnormal number of chromosomes in each cell

181
Q

mutagen

A

a substance that can cause mutations

182
Q

mutation

A

a change in an organisms DNA

183
Q

gene mutation

A

a mutation that affects a single gene

184
Q

chromosomal mutation

A

a mutation that affects multiple genes or an entire chromosome

185
Q

The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, which of these most likely increases?

A

genetic variation

186
Q

How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different?

A

asexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but sexual reproduction produces offspring with traits

187
Q

Which type of reproduction leads to increased genetic variation on a population?

A

sexual reproduction

188
Q

A large population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide. A few of the cockroaches survived and produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray. What can best be inferred from this example?

A

individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce

189
Q

Some organisms are able to reproduce asexually through mitosis, while cells of organisms that reproduce sexually, will undergo meiosis to produce gametes. Which process do you predict would be most beneficial to a species during a drastic change in environmental conditions?

A

Meiosis; it results in more genetic variation, which would help ensure the species will survive

190
Q

The differences in the bird beaks Darwin observed are most likely a result of

A

available food sources

191
Q

Over time, the climate of an island became drier, which resulted in changes to the populations of various island finch species. Finch populations with a certain beak shape thrived, while those not having that beak shape decreased. Which of the following describes a necessary condition for these changes in the finch populations to occur.

A

limited food resources

192
Q

Mutations within a DNA sequence are

A

natural processes that produce genetic diversity

193
Q

Which process produces the most variation within a species?

A

sexual reproduction

194
Q

Which of the following best illustrates natural selection?

A

an organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully

195
Q

A large group of brown mice live in a coastal area. One day, a flood creates a river, separating the mice into two separate groups. Hundreds of years later, the mice on on side of the river are mostly dark brown while mice on the other side of the river are mostly light brown. This scenario best demonstrates which pattern of evolution?

A

Divergent Evolution

196
Q

Which of the following can be determined by observing developing embryos?

A

certain organisms share common ancestry

197
Q

What is the best explanation for the continual changes in the classification system of organisms?

A

technological advances allowed scientists to better compare organisms

198
Q

Analogous Structure

A

Similar in function but evolve separately (bat wings and fly wings)

199
Q

Anatomy

A

The study of bone, muscle structure, and other features that show evolution of organisms

200
Q

DNA Evidence

A

Biochemical evidence that shows amino acid similarities and differences

201
Q

Evolution

A

Change over time

202
Q

Vestigial Structure

A

A structure that once had a use but no longer has a use to the organism (hind limb in whale, appendix in humans)

203
Q

Paleontology

A

the study of fossils

204
Q

Speciation

A

A population splits and each group evolves separately, eventually becoming 2 separate groups

205
Q

Embryology

A

Branch of science that studies fetal development

206
Q

Phylogenetic Tree

A

Diagram modeling the relationships between organisms

207
Q

Homologous Structures

A

Similar ins structure and evolved from a common ancestor (whale flipper and human arm)

208
Q

A symbiotic relationship means

A

one or both parties benefit

209
Q

Which of the following most likely would be a part of the first community on a newly formed volcanic island?

A

lichens

210
Q

A farmer stips cultivating a large tract of farmland and abandons it. The natural changes taking place soon afterwards, such as the growth of wild grasses and weeds, can be considered

A

secondary succession because there is already soil present

211
Q

By what process is CO2 removed from the atmosphere?

A

photosynthesis

212
Q

If human civilization had never started burning fossil fuels, would there be a greenhouse effect?

A

Yes, the greenhouse effect is caused by naturally occurring gases

213
Q

A population of foxes live in the woods. Their population is reaching the carrying capacity of the ecosystem. What type of limiting factor affects large populations?

A

density dependent

214
Q

An ecosystem has a stable population of white tailed deer. What is the most likely outcome if a new species of deer that competed for the same resources were introduced?

A

the producer population would decrease

215
Q

A small farming community in Texas covers 14 square kilometers. There are 420 individuals who live within the town limits. What is the population density of individuals in this community?

A

30

216
Q

A species of Great Blue Heron feeds on small fish in a freshwater ecosystem. What would be the most direct result of a sudden decrease in the Great Blue Heron population

A

the fish population would increase

217
Q

As industry continues to grow and new construction takes place, what will happen to the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere over time?

A

increase

218
Q

Which of the following is most likely a climax community?

A

forest land that has just been cleared out

219
Q

Man-of-war fish cluster around the venomous tentacles of jellyfish to escape larger predators. The presence of the man-of-war fish does not harm or benefit the jellyfish. This type of relationship is

A

commensalism

220
Q

Commensalism

A

a relationship where one organism benefits but the other is not affected

221
Q

Abiotic Factor

A

a non-living thing in the environment (wind, sunlight, water)

222
Q

Carbon Cycle

A

the movement of carbon through the ecosystem

223
Q

Mutualism

A

a relationship between organisms in which they both benefit from the relationship

224
Q

Primary Succession

A

when rock is converted into sediment over a long period of time to create an ecosystem

225
Q

Invasive Species

A

an organism that is not native to an ecosystem and does not have any native predators (usually bad for the ecosystem)

226
Q

Density Independent Factor

A

factors that affect the population regardless of the population size (natural disaster, temperature change)

227
Q

Biotic Factor

A

a living thing in the environment (tree, bird, bacteria)

228
Q

Greenhouse Effect

A

a layer of gases surround the Earth that allows life t occur on Earth

229
Q

Ecology

A

the study of relationships between organisms

230
Q

Parasitism

A

a relationship in which one organism benefits (parasite) and the other is harmed (host)

231
Q

Secondary Succession

A

when an ecosystem is destroyed by a natural disaster but the soil remains in tact

232
Q

Density Dependent Factor

A

factors that affect large populations (crowding, competition, predation, disease)

Biology Honors 1 EOC (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions