EVALS AND TERM EXAMS (2020) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following describes digestion?

A. Hydrolize chemical bonds
B. Uptakes micronutrients by enterocytes

A

A. Hydrolize chemical bonds

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2
Q

What digests carbohydrates

A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Protease

A

A. Amylase

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3
Q

What is the role of chylomicrons in lipid digestion?

A. Its hydrophobic tail allows … to interact with the lipid environment of the enterocyte
B. It allows … to travel through the lacteals
C. It breaks down large globules to small lobules

A

B. It allows … to travel through the lacteals

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4
Q

Not a role of saliva?

A. Lubrication
B. Denaturation
C. Digestion
D. Ease on swallowing

A

B. Denaturation

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5
Q

Most enzyme … in high temperature

A

Denaturation

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6
Q

Diacylglycerols are broken down into monoacylglycerol and free fatty acids by hydrolysis of what ester bonds?

A. SN1 and SN2 ester bonds
B. SN2 and SN3 ester bonds
C. SN1 and SN3 ester bonds
D. SN3 ester bond only

A

C. SN1 and SN3 ester bonds

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7
Q

Which is not part of catalytic triad of lingual lipase?

A. Asparagine
B. Histidine
C. Serine
D. Aspartate

A

A. Asparagine

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8
Q

Enzyme increase?

A. By altering the …
B. Bind to substrates
C. Increasing molecular collision frequency

A

NO ANSWER

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9
Q

Absorbed in the duodenum

A

Fe(Iron)

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10
Q

Segregation of metabolic pathways ensuring metabolic efficiency is made possible by:

A. Michaelis Menten Kinetic Theory
B. Collision Theory
C. Equilibrium Constant
D. Compartmentation

A

D. Compartmentation

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11
Q

Transfer groups between atoms within a molecule

A

Mutase

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12
Q

Michaelis menten, high concentration

A

Zero Order

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13
Q

Region of substrate attachment

A

Active Site

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14
Q

Which of the following is true about pepsin?

A. Secreted by gastric parietal cells
B. Secreted as proenzymes
C. Denaturation of protein

A

C. Denaturation of protein

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15
Q

Transport molecule from an area of higher to lower concentration with the use of transport of protein is called?

A. Carrier mediated diffusion/Facilitated diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Secondary active transport
D. Passive diffusion

A

A. Carrier mediated diffusion/Facilitated diffusion

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16
Q

Alcohol absorption

A. Active transport
B. Secondary active transport
C. Passive diffusion
D. Osmosis

A

C. Passive diffusion

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17
Q

What is the mechanism behind the action of Lingual Lipase?

A. Hydrolysis of SN1 ester bonds
B. Hydrolysis of SN2 ester bonds
C. Hydrolysis of SN3 ester bonds
D. Hydrolysis of SN4 ester bonds

A

C. Hydrolysis of SN3 ester bonds

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18
Q

What is necessary prior go lipid digestion?

A. Unfolding of the lipid globules into long triglycerides
B. Breaking down of large lipid globules into several small lipid globules
C.
D. Activation of lipases to hydrolyze lipid globules into FFA

A

B. Breaking down of large lipid globules into several small lipid globules

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19
Q

Hydrolysis by lingual lipase yields what?

A

Diacylglycerol (DAG) and free fatty acids

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20
Q

Absorption of water

A

Osmosis

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21
Q

Which of the following statements are true?

A

Enzymes are truly selective catalysis

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22
Q

What will determine the rate of chemical reaction will proceed?

A. Speed
B. Magnitude
C. Equilibrium Constant
D. Speed and Magnitude

A

B. Magnitude

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23
Q

If free energy is lower than substrate (negative)

A

Left to Right

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24
Q

In michaelis menten kinetic theory, if the substrate concentration is higher than the enzyme concentration what would happen?

A

Something about saturated and enzymes tas excess ang substrate…

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25
Q

Enzyme differ with other inorganic substances because they

A

Not consumed in the reaction

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26
Q

What is necessary prior to lipid digestion

A

Break down of large lipid globules into several small lipid globules

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27
Q

Small Km

A

Lower concentration of the substrate is needed to half-saturate the enzyme

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28
Q

Lactase deficiency lacks ability to break down into:

A

Glucose + Galactose

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29
Q

Which of the following describes iron absorption?

A. An oxidizing agent is needed to increase iron absorption such as vitamin C
B. In iron deficiency, more hepcidin is synthesized to increase iron absorption
C. Absorption of iron is limited due to the formation of iron free radicals
D. Primary site of iron absorption is jejunum

A

C. Absorption of iron is limited due to the formation of iron free radicals

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30
Q

Overall digestion of protein starts in what organ?

A

Stomach

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31
Q

Salivary amylase not active in the stomach because

A. Inactivated by pepsin
B. Inactivated by acid

A

B. Inactivated by acid

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32
Q

What does salivary amylase hydrolyse?

A. a-1,4 of amylose
B. a-1,4 of amylopectin
C. b-1,4 of amylose
D. b-1,4 of amylopectin

A

A. a-1,4 of amylose

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33
Q

How does amylase “digest” starch?

A. Hydrolyzing amylose ???
B. Hydrolyzing amylopectin
C. Breaking ester bond of Alpha(1-4)
D. Breaking ester bond of Alpha(1-6)

A

A. Hydrolyzing amylose ???

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34
Q

2 factors always measured when dealing with enzymes

A

Km and Vmax

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35
Q

Effects of competitive inhibitor on the kinetics of enzyme reaction except:

A. Increase concentration of substrate reverses the inhibition
B. The inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme other than the catalytic site
C. Km is increased
D. Kcat no change

A

B. The inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme other than the catalytic site

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36
Q

Hydolyzes peptide bonds FROM THE ENDS of peptides

A. Carboxypeptidase
B. Elastase
C. Chymotrypsin
D. Pepsin

A

A. Carboxypeptidase

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37
Q

True of Go, except:

A. Independent of the mechanism of reaction
B. Provide information only about direction and equilibrium
C. Provide no information concerning the reaction rate
D. Provide information about direction, equilibrium and reaction rates

A

D. Provide information about direction, equilibrium and reaction rates

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38
Q

What does the effect of pH on an enzyme catalyzed reaction reflect?

A. Denaturation of the enzyme
B. Ionization of the product
C. Esterification of the enzyme
D. Dephosphorylation of the product

A

B. Ionization of the product

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39
Q

Co-transport/Secondary active transport

A

Movement of one molecule down its concentration gradient (higher to lower) to power movement of another from lower to higher

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40
Q

Acid enters the duodenum:

A

Secretin is released

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41
Q

Inferred from the presence of amino acids in the same position in the family group

A. Reserve residues
B. Conserved residues
C. Conservative residues
D. Preserved residues

A

B. Conserved residues

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42
Q

State at which molecules may equal with probability to go ahead to products or go back to reactants:

A

Transition state

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43
Q

Anything that increases the frequency of collision will increase the rate of reaction:

A

Kinetic theory

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44
Q

Substrate is proportional to product:

A

Mixed order

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45
Q

Distinct enzyme reaction that catalyze same reaction arise through gene duplication:

A. Lysozyme
B. Residue
C. Homologous
D. Isoenzyme

A

D. Isoenzyme

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46
Q

Determines how far the reaction will go

A

Magnitude of free energy

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47
Q

Salivary amylase does not contribute yo the digestion of carbohydrates on the stomach because _____ inhibits salivary amylase

A. Pepsin
B. Peristalsis
C. High pH
D. Chief Cells

A

D. Chief Cells (production of HCl inactivates salivary amylase)

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48
Q

Mechanical digestion in small intestine

A. Chyme is propelled caudally to mix with digestive enzymes
B. Segmented longitudinal muscles contract and relax
C. Circular muscles contract and relax
D. Segmentation … slowing overall process

A

A. Chyme is propelled caudally to mix with digestive enzymes (Peristalsis)

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49
Q

MAG and FFA hydrolyzed by

A

SN1 and SN3

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50
Q

If Go is negative

A

Reaction is left to right

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51
Q

Digestion includes

A

Hydrolysis of chemical bonds

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52
Q

Distinct enzyme forms that catalyze the same reaction arise through gene duplication

A. Lysozymes
B. Residue
C. Homologous
D. Isozyme

A

D. Isozyme

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53
Q

Small Km

A. Low concentration of substrate is need to half saturate the enzyme
B. Low affinity of enzyme to substrate
C. High affinity of enzyme to product
D. High concentration of substrate is needed to half saturate an enzyme

A

A. Low concentration of substrate is need to half saturate the enzyme

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54
Q

Catalytic triad except

A

Asparagine

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55
Q

Lactose

A

1 Glucose + 1 Galactose

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56
Q

In michaelis menten, at high concentrations of substrates, the velocity of the reaction is

A

Zero order kinetics

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57
Q

Alcohol

A

Passive diffusion

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58
Q

Sigmoid graph

A

Cooperative binding

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59
Q

*** FIGURE

of oxygenase

A

Heme to biliverdin

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60
Q

Transition state

A

The state from which molecules may with equal probability go ahead to products or back to reactants

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61
Q

Absorbed in the duodenum

A

Iron

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62
Q

Water absorption

A

Osmosis

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63
Q

Exopeptidase that hydrolyze peptide bonds from the ends of peptides

A

Carboxypeptides

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64
Q

Effect of noncompetitive inhibition except

A. Cannot be overcome by increasing the concentration of substrate
B. Increase Vmax
C. Km is unchanged
D.

A

B. Increase Vmax

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65
Q

Transport of molecules from high to low concentrations with the help of transport proteins

A

Carrier mediated diffusion

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66
Q

Exit of glucose to the bloodstream

A

GLUT2 facilitated diffusion

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67
Q

Gibbs free energy except

A. Independent of the mechanism of reaction
B. Provide information only about the direction and equilibrium state of the reaction
C. Provides no information regarding the rate of reaction
D. Provide information only about the direction, equilibrium and rate of reaction

A

D. Provide information only about the direction, equilibrium and rate of reaction

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68
Q

Enzyme on rate of reaction

A

Decreases activation energy

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69
Q

Polyssacharide digestion

A

Hydrolysis of alpha (1,4) glycosydic bond

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70
Q

Secondary active transport

A

Movement of one molecule down the concentration gradient to power movement of another from low to high

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71
Q

2 factors

A

Km and Vmax

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72
Q

Bile

A

Emulsify lipid

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73
Q

Provides measurement for enzyme affinity to substrate

A

Km

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74
Q

Anything that increases the frequency or energy of collision of substrates

A

Kinetic

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75
Q

What determines how far the reaction goes

A

Magnitude

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76
Q

Segregation of metabolic pathways ensuring metabolic efficiency

A

Compartmentation

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77
Q

Salivary amylase

A

Hydrolyse amylose

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78
Q

Where start ang protein digestion

A

Stomach

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79
Q

Why mag stop ang digestion ng carbohydrates sa stomach

A

Due to secretion of parietal cells

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80
Q

Digestion in the stomach

A

Peristaltic mixing and churning are examples of mechanical digestion

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81
Q

Function of chylomicrons

A

For lipid transport directly out of the cell to lacteal

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82
Q

What happens when acid from the stomach enters the duodenum

A

Secretin is released

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83
Q

The byproduct of lipid digestion by lipase

A

Diacylglycerol and free fatty acid

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84
Q

Enzyme responsible of digestion of carbohydrates

A

Amylase

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85
Q

Effect of pH on enzyme

A

Ionization

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86
Q

Diffusion of water

A

Osmosis

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87
Q

Transfer groups between atoms with a molecule

A

Mutases

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88
Q

Absorption of alcohol

A

Passive diffusion

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89
Q

Not part of catalytic triad

A

Asparagine

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90
Q

Absorption of iron

A

Duodenum

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91
Q

Not a role of saliva

A

Denaturation

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92
Q

Molecule to product and backward to substrate

A

Equilibrium

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93
Q

Where does protein digestion starts?

A

Stomach

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94
Q

What will happen when acid from the stomach enters duodenum?

A

Release of pepsinogen

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95
Q

True of G except:

A. Independent of the mechanisms of reaction
B. Provide info only about the direction and equilibrium state of the reaction
C. Provides no information regarding the rate of reaction
D. Provide information only about the direction, equilibrium and state of reaction

A

D. Provide information only about the direction, equilibrium and state of reaction

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96
Q

*** NOMENCLATURE

Heme Oxygenase

A

Oxygenase

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97
Q

How are the polysaccharides digested?

A. Hydrolysis of a1,4 glycosidic bonds
B. Hydrolysis of a1,6 glycosidic bonds
C. Hydrolysis of b1,4 glycosidic bonds
D. Hydrolysis of b1,6 glycosidic bonds

A

A. Hydrolysis of a1,4 glycosidic bonds

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98
Q

Composition of lactose

A

1 Glucose + 1 Galactose

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99
Q

Which of the following is true regarding digestion in the stomach?

A. Carbohydrate digestion continues in the stomach
B. No absorption of any compounds occur in the gastric mucosa
C. Peristaltic mixing and churning are forms of mechanical digestion
D. The high gastric pH is needed for protein and lipid digestion

A

C. Peristaltic mixing and churning are forms of mechanical digestion

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100
Q

How far the reaction will go?

A. Magnitude of the energy
B. Quantity of free energy
C. Strength of energy

A

A. Magnitude of the energy

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101
Q

Diacylglycerols digested into monoacylglycerols and FFA by hydrolysis of

A

SN1 and SN3 ester bonds

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102
Q

True about competitive inhibition except:

A

Binds to the site other than the catalytic site

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103
Q

Digestion of carbohydrates

A

Amylase

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104
Q

All are true of irreversible inhibitors except

A

They form dissociable dynamic complex with enzyme

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105
Q

Lipid hydrolysis products

A

DAG and FFA

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106
Q

Secondary active transport

A

Higher to lower to power movement of another lower to higher

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107
Q

Negative free energy

A

Left to right

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108
Q

Low Km

A

Low concentration of the substrate needs to half saturate the enzyme

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109
Q

Action of salivary amylase

A. Hydrolyzes amylose
B. Hydrolyzes amylopectin
C. Esterifies a1,4 of starch and glycogen
D. Digest b1,4 of cellulose

A

A. Hydrolyzes amylose

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110
Q

Exit of nutrients from the cell

A

GLUT2

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111
Q

Hydrolyze at the end of the a.a.

A. Peptidase
B. Elastase
C. Trypsin
D. Carboxypeptidase

A

D. Carboxypeptidase

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112
Q

When acidic contents of the stomach enters the duodenum

A. CCK is secreted in the Si
B. Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in the SI
C. Bicarbonate is secreted into the SI
D. Secretin is secreted into the SI

A

D. Secretin is secreted into the SI

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113
Q

Michaelis menten theory

A

When [S] exceeds [E], when all enzymes are bound, there is an excess of substrates

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114
Q

Substrate concentration is high

A

0 order

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115
Q

Which of the following is true about pepsin

A. Secreted by parietal cells
B. Secreted as proenzymes
C. Denatures proteins prior to digestion
D. Works in a basic environment

A

B. Secreted as proenzymes

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116
Q

Energy required to bring all molecule to the transition state

A

Free energy of activation

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117
Q

Affinity of the enzyme to the substrate

A

Km

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118
Q

Difference of enzyme and inorganic catalyst

A

Not altered

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119
Q

Distinct enzyme forms that catalyze the same reaction and arise through gene duplication

A. Lysozymes
B. Reside
C. Homologous
D. Isozyme

A

D. Isozyme

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120
Q

Inferred from the presence of specific amino acids in the same position in each family member

A

Conserved residues

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121
Q

2 factors in dealing enzymes

A

Km and Vmax

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122
Q

Which is true for iron absorption

A

Absorption is regulated in order to reduce the generation of free radicals

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123
Q

Sigmoid graph

A

Cooperative binding

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124
Q

Effect of noncompetitive inhibition except:

A

Increase Vmax

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125
Q

Transport of molecules from high to low concentration with the help of transport proteins

A

Carrier mediated diffusion

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126
Q

Enzyme on rate of reaction

A

Decrease activation energy

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127
Q

Proportionality is changing

A

Mixed order

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128
Q

Primary response, does not cross placenta?

A

IgM

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129
Q

Secondary response, can cross placenta?

A

IgG

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130
Q

Found in secretions

A

IgA

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131
Q

Allergic reactions

A

IgE

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132
Q

B Lymphocyte

A

IgD

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133
Q

Half-life of Hb-Hp complex

A

90 mins

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134
Q

Enzyme in milk that protect against E.coli and bacteria

A

Milk lysozyme

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135
Q

Rich in antibody

A

Colostrum

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136
Q

% of water in breastmilk

A

87%

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137
Q

Storage of human milk except

A. 25C to 27C for 4 hrs
B. 15C to 25C for 8 hrs
C. Ref na 2 doors
D. Deep freeze for 9 mos

A

D. Deep freeze for 9 mos

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138
Q

Exhibit polymorphism except

A

Ferritin

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139
Q

Enhances Ca absorption

A

Lactose

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140
Q

Physiologic jaundice except

A

Most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

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141
Q

Which of the ff is true

A

The iron of the unoxygenated myoglobin lies outside the plane of the heme ring

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142
Q

Conjugation of bile is catalyzed by

A

UDP-glucoronyl transferase

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143
Q

Has large capacity that even under the pathologic conditions, transport does not appear to be rate limiting for metabolism of bilirubiin

A

Facilitated transport system

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144
Q

Reciprocal coupling of proton and O2 binding

A

Bohr effect

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145
Q

5th coordinating carbon of myoglobin is linked to

A

Proximal His F8

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146
Q

Fetal Hb

A

A2y2

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147
Q

Condition where alpha and beta globin chains are absent and decrease in number

A

Thalassemia

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148
Q

Largest repository of heme

A

RBC

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149
Q

Sign of good attachment except

A. More areola visible above baby's mouth
B. Baby's mouth wide open
C. Lower lip turned outwards
D. Chin close to the breast
E. Baby's position should lie flat
A

E. Baby’s position should lie flat

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150
Q

Thick milk antibodies

A

Colostrum

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151
Q

Breast milk affect milk production

A. True
B. False
C. Neither
D. True with increased fluid

A

B. False

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152
Q

The transfer of iron across the apical membrane of the enterocyte is accomplished via

A. DMT1
B. TfR1
C. TFr2

A

A. DMT1

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153
Q

Ferric is reduced to the ferrous form by a

A. Ferrireductase
B. Ferrioxidase

A

A. Ferrireductase

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154
Q

Bilirubin found in bile ductules

A. Bilirubin monoglucoronides
B. Bilirubin diglucoronides
C. UDP-glucoronic acid

A

B. Bilirubin diglucoronides

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155
Q

Genetic defect of this protein can lead to emphysema

A. A2-macroglobulins
B. A1-antitrypsin

A

B. A1-antitrypsin

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156
Q

WHO advises breastmilk feeding except

A. After an hour of giving birth
B. Within an hour after giving birth
C. Up to 2 years of age
D. During the 1st 6 months

A

A. After an hour of giving birth

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157
Q

Minerals found in the mature milk

A

Na, K, Ca, Fe, Zn, O

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158
Q

Has ferroxidase activity

A

Haphaestin

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159
Q

Binds to extracorpuscular Hb

A

Haptoglobin

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160
Q

All of the following are true of O2 dissociation curve of myoglobin except:

A

During strenuous exercise, release O2 when PO2 of muscles decrease to 20 mmHg (should be 5 mmHg)

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161
Q

Tyrosine to his F8

A

Hgb M

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162
Q

True of heme except

A

One ferrous ion is attached to the center of a linear tetrapyrrole (should be cyclic tetrapyrrole)

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163
Q

Hemoglobin

A

A carrier of both O2 and CO2

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164
Q

Why is it that carbon monoxide does not completely displace O2 from the heme iron

A

The apoproteins of myoglobin and hemoglobin provide a hindered environment

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165
Q

The reciprocal binding of proton and oxygen

A

Bohr effect

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166
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

In unoxygenated myoglobin, the iron lies outside the plane of heme ring

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167
Q

Methemoglobinemia

A

Iron in ferric rather than ferrous

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168
Q

A low PO2 in peripheral tissues promote the synthesis of

A

2,3 BPG

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169
Q

True of P50 except:

A

PO2 that half saturates a myoglobin (should be hemoglobin)

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170
Q

True of porphyrin except:

A

Forms complexes with metal ions bound to carbon atom of the pyrolle ring (nitrogen dapat)

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171
Q

The iron-free porphyrin portion of heme is degraded mainly in the

A

Liver

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172
Q

Fifth coordination position of the iron is linked to a ring nitrogen of proximal histidine

A

His F8

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173
Q

Has large capacity that even under pathologic condition, the transport does not appear to be rate limiting for metabolism of bilirubin

A

Facilitated transport system

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174
Q

Compound excreted in feces

A

Stercobilin

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175
Q

The bilirubin found in the bile ductules

A

Bilirubin diglucoronide

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176
Q

Conjugation of bilirubin

A

UDP glucoronyl transferase

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177
Q

Feme oxygenase is found at

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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178
Q

After album-bilirubin complex dissociates, Albumin:

A

Remains in the plasma

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179
Q

Colorless substance in bilirubin metabolism

A

Urobilinogen

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180
Q

Cutaneous porphyria, except:

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

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181
Q

Porphyrin is

A

Hydrophobic

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182
Q

Carbon monoxide is the direct measure of

A

Heme oxygenase

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183
Q

Important for secondary response; fixes complement, enhancing bacterial killing

A

IgG

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184
Q

Physiological jaundice, except:

A

Conjugated bilirubin (unconjugated dapat)

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185
Q

Hormone secreted from anterior pituitary gland for production of breast milk

A

Prolactin

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186
Q

Stimulates milk production

A

Prolactin

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187
Q

A thick milky substance rich in antibodies

A

Colostrum

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188
Q

Does the size of the breast affect milk production?

A

No

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189
Q

Signs of good positioning of breastfeeding, except:

A

Baby’s body is flat against the mother (dili ko sure sa sentence basta dili dapat flat)

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190
Q

Two major proteins in breast milk

A

60% whey 40% casein

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191
Q

Percentage of water in human milk

A

87%

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192
Q

WHO recommends that… except:

A

Breastfeeding should be initiated after 1 hour after birth

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193
Q

Average composition of breastmilk in humans

A

Water 87%
Lactose 7.2%
Fat 4%
Protein 1%

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194
Q

Principal sugar in human milk which enhances calcium absorption

A

Lactose

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195
Q

Minerals in mature human milk

A

Na, K, P, Ca, Fe, Zn

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196
Q

Enzyme in human milk that protects the infant against E. Coli & Salmonella

A

Milk lysozyme

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197
Q

Human milk protein with bacteriostatic properties, required for iron transport and absorption

A

Lactoferrin

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198
Q

Most abundant immunoglobulin in human milk secretions

A

IgA

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199
Q

Which of the following are the guidelines of milk storage, except:

A

Deep freezer 9 mos.

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200
Q

Concentration of total protein in human plasma

A

7-7.5 g/dL

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201
Q

Osmotic pressure of arterioles

A

40 mmHg

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202
Q

In protoporphyria, what enzyme is defective

A

Ferrochelatase

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203
Q

What plasma glycoprotein is involved in binding extracorpuscular Hgb:

A

Haptoglobin

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204
Q

What is an important element in the human body because it is found in many of the hemoproteins?

A

Iron

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205
Q

Enzyme that catalyzes ferric to ferrous

A

Ferrireductase

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206
Q

Milk let down

A

Oxytocin

207
Q

Haptoglobin-hemoglobin complex half life

A

90 mins

208
Q

Has ferroxidase activity

A

Haphaestin

209
Q

A deficiency in this protein will result in the acceleration of emphysema

A

A1-antiproteinase

210
Q

What immunoglobulin is found at secretions:

A

IgA

211
Q

Transfer of iron from apical surface of enterocytes into their interiors

A

DMT1

212
Q

What immunoglobulin is responsible for allergic reaction:

A

IgE

213
Q

Primary response to antigen, fixes complement, does not cross placenta

A

IgM

214
Q

Immunoglobulin in B-cells that binds to antigen:

A

IgD

215
Q

Hbf

A

2 alpha 2 gamma

216
Q

True of heme except

A

Consist of 2 molecules of pyrrole ring linked by a-methylene bridges

217
Q

Maintain level of heme except

A

Formation of globin side chains

218
Q

O2 binds to hemoglobin tetramer more readily if other O2 molecules are already bound

A

Cooperative binding

219
Q

True of porphyrins except:

A

Forms complexes with metal ions bound to carbon atom of the pyrolle ring

220
Q

Osmotic pressure of arterioles

A

40 mmHg

221
Q

Defective enzyme in protoporphyria

A

Ferrochelatase

222
Q

Decrease in hemolytic anemia

A

Haptoglobin

223
Q

Important element in the human body that is found in hemoproteins?

A

Iron

224
Q

Tyrosine to his F8

A

Hgb M

225
Q

Enzyme that catalyzes ferric to ferrous

A

Ferrireductase

226
Q

Milk let down

A

Oxytocin

227
Q

The iron-free porphyrin portion of heme is degraded mainly in the

A

Liver

228
Q

Haptoglobin-hemoglobin complex half life

A

90 mins

229
Q

Hemoglobin

A

A carrier of both O2 and CO2

230
Q

Has ferroxidase activity

A

Haphaestin

231
Q

A deficiency in this protein will result in the acceleration of emphysema

A

A1-antiproteinase

232
Q

All of the following are true of O2 dissociation curve of myoglobin except:

A

During strenuous exercise, release O2 when PO2 of muscles decrease to 20 mmHg

233
Q

What immunoglobulin is found at secretions:

A

IgA

234
Q

Transfer of iron from apical surface of enterocytes into their interiors

A

DMT1

235
Q

Immunoglobulin for allergy response

A

IgE

236
Q

Primary response to antigen, fixes complement, does not cross placenta

A

IgM

237
Q

Antigen receptor on the surface of B cell

A

IgD

238
Q

Fetal hemoglobin

A

2 alpha 2 gamma

239
Q

True of heme except

A

Consist of 2 molecules of pyrrole ring linked by a-methylene bridges

240
Q

Maintain level of heme except

A

Formation of globin side chains

241
Q

Fifth coordination position of the iron is linked to a ring nitrogen of proximal histidine

A

His F8

242
Q

O2 binds to hemoglobin tetramer more readily if other O2 molecules are already bound

A

Cooperative binding

243
Q

The reciprocal binding of protein and oxygen

A

Bohr effect

244
Q

After albumin-bilirubin complex dissociates, albumin:

A

Remains in the plasma

245
Q

CO does not completely displace O2 from the heme iron

A

The apoproteins of myoglobin and hemoglobin provide a hindered environment

246
Q

Milk storage, except:

A

Deep freezer 9 mos.

247
Q

Conjugation of bilirubin

A

UDP glucoronyl transferase

248
Q

Colorless substance in bilirubin metabolism

A

Urobilinogen

249
Q

Most abundant immunoglobulin in human milk secretions

A

IgA

250
Q

Heme oxygenase is found in

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

251
Q

Human milk protein with bacteriostatic properties, required for iron transport and absorption

A

Lactoferrin

252
Q

Concentration of total protein in human plasma

A

7-7.5 g/dL

253
Q

Cutaneous porphyria, except

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

254
Q

Porphyrin is

A

Hydrophobic

255
Q

Hormone secreted from anterior pituitary gland for production of breast milk

A

Prolactin

256
Q

Stimulates milk production

A

Prolactin

257
Q

A thick milky substance rich in antibodies

A

Colostrum

258
Q

Signs of good positioning of breastfeeding, except:

A

Baby’s body is flat against the mother

259
Q

Methemoglobinemia

A

Iron in ferric instead of ferrous

260
Q

Proteins in breast milk

A

60% whey 40% casein

261
Q

Percentage of water in human milk

A

87%

262
Q

A low PO2 in peripheral tissues promotes the synthesis of

A

2,3 BPG

263
Q

Has large capacity that even under pathologic condition, the transport does not appear to be rate limiting for metabolism of bilirubin

A

Facilitated transport system

264
Q

Does the size of the breast affect milk production?

A

No

265
Q

True of P50 except:

A

PO2 that half saturates a myoglobin

266
Q

Enhances bacterial killing. Main antibody in secondary response opsonizes bacteria. Fixes complement.

A

IgG

267
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

In unoxygenated myoglobin, the iron lies outside the plane of heme ring

268
Q

Carbon monoxide is the direct measure of

A

Heme oxygenase

269
Q

WHO recommends that … except:

A

Breastfeeding should be initiated after 1 hour after birth

270
Q

Conjugation of bile is catalyzed by

A

UDP-glucoronyl transferase

271
Q

Average composition of breastmilk in humans

A

Water 87%
Lactose 7.2%
Fat 4%
Protein 1 %

272
Q

Compound excreted in feces

A

Stercobilin

273
Q

Principal sugar in human milk which enhances calcium absorption

A

Lactose

274
Q

Minerals in mature human milk

A

Na, K, P, Ca, Fe, Zn

275
Q

Enzyme jn human milk that protects the infant against E. Coli & Salmonella?

A

Milk lysozyme

276
Q

Physiologic jaundice except

A

Most common form of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

277
Q

O2 binding site … except bond between 1st O2 and Fe2+ is parallel the plane of heme rinh

A

Perpendicular

278
Q

True except

A

Release of O2 from myoglobin na at 20 mmHg tissue

279
Q

Condition wherein alpha or beta globin chains are absent or decreased in number

A

Thalassemia

280
Q

Most of the enzymes are inactivated by heat through what mechanism

A

Denaturation

281
Q

These are two constants that is used when enzyme is characterized

A

Km and Vmax

282
Q

Provides measurement for enzyme affinity to substrate

A

Km

283
Q

Effects of competitive inhibitor on the kinetics of enzyme reaction, except:

A

The inhibitor binds to the site of the enzyme other than the catalytic site

284
Q

Effects of non competitive inhibitor on the kinetics of enzyme reaction except

A

Increases Vmax

285
Q

Methemoglobinemia

A

Ferric (Fe3+) instead of Ferrous (Fe2+) state

286
Q

Carbon monoxide (CO) is the direct measure of:

A. Heme oxidase
B. Heme oxygenase
C. Biliverdin reductase
D. Biliverdin oxidase

A

B. Heme oxygenase

287
Q

Hemoglobinopathy wherein His F8 is replaced with Tyrosine

A

HgM

288
Q

Enzyme defective in protoporphyria

A. Porphobilinogen deaminase
B. ALA synthase
C. ALA dehydratase
D. Ferrochelatase

A

D. Ferrochelatase

289
Q

Total protein concentration in plasma

A

7.0-7.5

290
Q

Cutaneous porphyria except

A. Porphyria cutanea tarda
B. Variegate porphyria
C. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
D. Acute intermittent porphyria

A

D. Acute intermittent porphyria

291
Q

Released in anterior pituitary gland that induces production of milk in breast

A

Prolactin

292
Q

5th coordinating carbon of myoglobin is linked to:

A. Proximal His F8
B. Proximal His E7
C. Distal His F8
D. Distal His E7

A

A. Proximal His F8

293
Q

Fetal hemoglobin

A

a2y2

294
Q

Found in secretions

A

IgA

295
Q

Secondary response, fixes complements

A

IgG

296
Q

Primary response, complement activation

A

IgM

297
Q

Attached to surface of B-cell

A

IgD

298
Q

Mast cell or allergic reactions

A

IgE

299
Q

Condition wherein alpha or beta globin chains are absent or decreased in number

A

Thalassemia

300
Q

Largest repository of heme

A

RBC

301
Q

Reciprocal coupling of proton and O2 binding

A

Bohr effect

302
Q

Low PO2 in peripheral tissues causes synthesis of

A

2,3 - BPG

303
Q

Colored compound found in feces

A

Stercobilin

304
Q

Blue-green color

A

Biliverdin

305
Q

What happens to albumin when removed in bilirubin

A

Remains in plasma

306
Q

Location of heme oxygenase

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

307
Q

Exhibit polymorphism except?

A. Haptoglobin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Ferritin
D. Transferrin

A

C. Ferritin

308
Q

Has large capacity that even under pathologic conditions, transport does not appear to be rate-limiting for metabolism of bilirubin

A

Facilitated transport system

309
Q

Hydrostatic pressure of arterioles

A. 40 mmHg
B. 39 mmHg
C. 38 mmHg
D. 37 mmHg

A

D. 37 mmHg

310
Q

Protein that is copper-containing and has a ferroxidase activity

A

Ceruloplasmin

311
Q

The iron-free porphyrin portion of heme os degraded mainly in the

A

Liver

312
Q

False about myoglobin

A

Release only small fraction of its bound O2 at the PO2 values in active muscles (20 mmHg)

313
Q

True about porphyrins except?

A

Form complexes with metal ions bound to carbon atoms of pyrrole rings

  • dapat N atoms
314
Q

Milk let-down reflex

A

Oxytocin

315
Q

Thick, rich, yellowish milk roch in antibodies

A

Colostrum

316
Q

Half-life pf haptoglobin-hemoglobin complex

A

90 minutes

317
Q

Porphyrin ring

A

Hydrophobic

318
Q

Deficiency in this protein may have a role in certain cases of emphysema

A

a1 antiproteinase

319
Q

True of heme, except?

A

Linked linear tetrapyrolle ring

  • dapat cyclic tetrapyrolle rings through methyne or methenyl bridges
320
Q

Conjugation of bilirubin is catalyzed bu

A

UDP-glucoronyl transferase

321
Q

Plasma protein that binds extracorpuscular hemoglobin

A

Haptoglobin

322
Q

Sings of good positioning, except:

A. Baby flat against mother
B. More areola visible above baby’s mouth
C. Chin close to breast
D. Lower lip turned outward

A

A. Baby flat against mother

323
Q

Colorless

A

Urobilinogen

324
Q

Percentage of water in breastmilk?

A

87%

325
Q

Composition of milk

A

Whey - 60%; Casein - 40%

326
Q

Protects infant from E. Coli and salmonella

A

Lysozyme

327
Q

Transfer of iron from apical surface of enterocytes into their interior

A

Divalent Metal Transporter (DMT1)

328
Q

True of physiologic jaundice, except:

A. Transient
B. Most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
C. Results from an accelerated hemolysis around the time of birth
D. Onset: after 24 hours

A

B. Most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

  • dapat unconjugated
329
Q

Bacteriostatic that enhances absorption of iron

A

Lactoferrin

330
Q

Enzyme that converts ferric to ferrous

A

Duodenal cytochrome B (Dcytb) or brush border membrane bound ferrireductase

331
Q

Does size of breast affect milk production?

A

False

332
Q

Breast milk storage, except?

A. 25-37C - 4 hrs
B. 15-25C - 8 hrs
C. 2 door freeze-20C - 3 months
D. Deep freezer - 9 months

A

D. Deep freezer - 9 months

333
Q

Permits hemoglobin to maximize quantity of O2 loaded at PO2 of the lungs

A

Cooperative O2 binding

334
Q

WHO recommends the ff. except

A. Breastfeeding within an hour after birth
B. Rooming in
C. Breastfeeding an hour after birth

A

C. Breastfeeding an hour after birth

335
Q

Composition of breast milk

A

87% - Water
7.2% - Lactose
4% - Fat
1% - Protein

336
Q

Characteristics of myoglobin dissociation curve

A

Hyperbolic

337
Q

Secretory Ig in human milk

A

IgA

338
Q

True of porphyrins except?

A

Forms complexes with metal ions bound to carbon atom of pyrole rings

339
Q

The ff are true of Michaelis-Menten theory except?

A. The substrate concentra?on that produces the Vi one-half of Vmax is designated as the Michaelis-Menten constant
B. Km is (roughly) an inverse measure of the affinity of substrate to enzyme concentra?on
C. The lower the Km, the lower the affinity for substrate
D. The lower the Km, the lower the concentra?on needed to achieve a given rate

A

C. The lower the Km, the lower the affinity for substrate

340
Q

Responsible for lipid digeston?

A

Lipase

341
Q

About milk: that has antibacterial, ant-tumor and can absorb calcium and zinc?

A

Alpha lactalbumin

342
Q

Provides a more precise way to determine Km and Vmax

A

Double double lineweaver chuchu

343
Q

Additon of Glucuronic acid to bilirubin is called?

A

Conjugation

344
Q

Asa man daw ang hydrophilic beee??

A. Alanine
B. Asparagine
C. Leucine
D. Methionine

A

B. Asparagine

345
Q

What is true to selenocysteine?

A. Different to other amino acid because of the D amino side
B. It’s trna uga codon?? Hence Complete signal something..
C. Ktng may post transla?on membrane
D. Cysteine analogue

A

B. It’s trna uga codon?? Hence Complete signal something..

346
Q

State at which molecules may equal with probability to go ahead to products or go back to reactants:

A

transiton state

347
Q

What is the pl of lysine?

A. 4.3
B. 5 something
C. 7.4
D. 10

A

C. 7.4

348
Q
  1. What predominantes in acidic medium?
  2. Zwitterion
  3. Pl of lysiene
  4. Fully protonted form
  5. At what pka does equichuchu concentraton does fully protonted molecule and electrically neutral molecule occur?
A

Leucine answers to questions:
a-carbon is C5
PI is 10
Found inside cell (because hydrophobic)

349
Q

Coloured compound found in feces:

A

Stercobilin

350
Q

5th coordinating carbon of myoglobin is linked to:

A

proximal his f8

351
Q

Increase frequency and collisions -

A

kinetic theory

352
Q

Which amino acid is responsible for the absorbance of light by proteins?

A

Tryptophan

353
Q

how many ubiquitin blahhh blah for degradation

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

D. 4

354
Q

Where is iron absorbed?

A

Duodenum

355
Q

true of peptide bonds

a. negative charge in acidic medium
b. net loss of one positive charge and gain of one negative charge
c. rotation of peptides would break the bond
d. none of the above

A

c. rotation of peptides would break the bond

356
Q

Mechanism of AA absorption on luminal side of enterocytes

A

Cotransport ata

357
Q

T/F ileum can absorb of free vitamin

A

TRUE

358
Q

How many percent of free ileum absorbed by terminal ileum

A

1%

359
Q

Where does the transport of macromolecules along nucleus and cytoplasm occur?

A. Nucleus exportins
B. Nucleus localization signal
C. Nucleus pore complex
D. Nucleus export signal

A

C. Nucleus pore complex

360
Q

At physiologic pH, ionizable weak acids exist as

A. COOH 
B. COO- 
C. NH3+ 
D. A&B 
E. A&C
A

NO ANSWER

361
Q

Bidirectional Transport thru NPC

A

RAN

362
Q

Aher Interaction of unfolded protein to HSP 70 with mitochondrial TOM 20/22, they are transferred to what channel

A

TOM40

363
Q

Cytosolic Chaperone to prevent misfolding

A

HSP70

364
Q

True about chaperones

A

Many are heat shock proteins

365
Q

Misfolded protein after ER

A

Proteosome

366
Q

Promotes rapid reshuffling of disulfide bonds until the correct set is achieved

A

PDI (Protein Disulfide Isomerase)

367
Q

____ ubiquitin molecules must be attached to commit target molecule to degradation in proteasome

A

4

368
Q

Organelle for metabolism of FA, AA, LIPIDS, PURINES etc

A

peroxisome

369
Q

Measure of enzyme affinity to substrate

A

Km

370
Q

Not a characteristic of protein digestion in the stomach.

A

B. Pepsinogen is activated by pepsin which lead to more pepsin production.

371
Q

High substrate concentration

A

Zero order

372
Q

at high temperatures, enzymes are inactivated because

A

they are proteins and therefore denature

373
Q

hormone secreted by posterior pituitary gland to induce uterine involution

A

Oxytocin

374
Q

B surface

A

IgD

375
Q

2nd major class of chaperons -

A

chaperonins

376
Q

Color … feces-

A

stercobilin

377
Q

Colorless -

A

urobilinogen

378
Q

Ferric -

A

methemoglobinemia

379
Q

Milk composition -

A

60% whey casein 40%

380
Q

Lipid degradation -

A

lipase

381
Q

IgM

A

primary reaction

382
Q

IgE

A

Allergic

383
Q

IgA

A

Secretion

384
Q

IgG

A

cross placenta, secondary reaction

385
Q

Lactoferrin

A

Iron

386
Q

Lysozyme

A

E.coli

387
Q

Sn3

A

ester bonds

388
Q

Lipid

A

breaking down of large lipid

389
Q

Rate of chem reaction

A

magnitude

390
Q

Enzymes

A

not consumed

391
Q

Reciprocal

A

Bohr

392
Q

Chyme enters SI activates:

A

CCK

393
Q

Let down milk

A

oxytocin

394
Q

what determines how far a rxn will proceed?

A

magnitude of free energy

395
Q

Effect of pH:

A

Ionization

396
Q

Site where B12 is absorbed.

A

ileum

397
Q

Sigmoid plot of substrate concentration vs. reaction velocity

A. Competitive inhibition
B. Michaeles menten kinetics
C. Cooperative binding
D. Mb binding to O2

A

C. Cooperative binding

398
Q

Immunoglobulin that can be a dimer or monomer?

A

IgA

399
Q

Describes secondary active transport:

A

uses transport of one substrate from high to low to transport another substrate from low to high (basta kana na thought haha)

400
Q

Disease: replaced by glutamate?

A

Hb S valine - gluta

401
Q

Albumin removed:

A

remains in the plasma

402
Q

Heme oxygenase location:

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

403
Q

Transfers iron to where it is needed

A

Transferrin

404
Q

Exit of glucose to the blood stream:

A

Glut2;facilitated diffusion

405
Q

Effect of enzyme:

A

Decreases the activation energy

406
Q

Transfer of iron from apical surface:

A

DMT1

407
Q

Maintain level of heme except:

A

Formation of globin side chains

408
Q

Low pO2 in peripheral tissues. Synthesis of:

A

2,3BPG

409
Q

Hormone released by pituitary gland responsible for uterine something

A. Prolactin
B. Prolactin releasing hormone
C. Oxytocin
D. Oxytocin releasing hormone

A

C. Oxytocin

410
Q

With antibacterial and anti-tumor activity

A

a-lactalbumin

411
Q

The 5th coordination of the iron in myoglobin is linked to the pyrrole ring on its

A

A. Proximal end of histidine His F8

412
Q

O2 binds more readily if there are O2 molecules already bound

A

Cooperative binding

413
Q

Not absorbed in the liver-

A

Gamma globulin

414
Q

Select the correct amino acid substrate and specialized product match.

A. Cysteine – sphingosine
B. Tyrosine – GABA
C. Tryptophan – melatonin
D. Serine Taurine

A

C. Tryptophan – melatonin

415
Q

What amino acid is the precursor of the inhibitory neurotransmitter y-aminobutyrate?

A. Glycine
B. Tyrosine
C. Tryptophan
D. Glutamine

A

D. Glutamine

416
Q

This compound, a potent vasoconstrictor and stimulator of smooth muscle contraction, comes from the non-protein conversion of tryptophan.

A. 5-hydroxytryptophan
B. Serotonin
C. Melatonin
D. Epinephrine

A

B. Serotonin

417
Q

Which compound is the major non-protein fate of methionine and is the principal source of methyl groups for physiologic reactions?

A. Histamine
B. S-adenosylmethionine
C. Spermine
D. Serotonin

A

B. S-adenosylmethionine

418
Q

Which amino acid participates in the biosynthesis of co-enzyme A?

A. Arginine
B. Cysteine
C. Glycine
D. Histidine

A

B. Cysteine

419
Q

TRUE about branched-chain a-keto acid dehydrogenase complex:

A. It catalyzes the multi-step catabolism of 3 nutritionally non-essential amino acids
B. Biochemical defect involving it can produce musky odor urine.
C. Genetic mutations that encode for its components may lead to elevated plasma and urinary levels of leucine, isoleucine, and valine.
D. AOTA

A

C. Genetic mutations that encode for its components may lead to elevated plasma and urinary levels of leucine, isoleucine, and valine.

420
Q

Alkaptonuria is a metabolic enzymes defect that arises from defective enzyme used in catabolism of which amino acid?

A. Tyrosine
B. Phenylalanine
C. Lysine
D. Tryptophan

A

D. Tryptophan

421
Q

TRUE about the glycine cleavage system:

A. It splits glycine to NH3, H2O and CH4.
B. Methylene tetrahydrofolate is formed.
C. It consists of 4 protein enzymes.
D. NOTA

A

B. Methylene tetrahydrofolate is formed.

422
Q

Excretion of Figlu following administration of what amino acid can be sued to detect folic acid deficiency?

A. Proline
B. Histidine
C. Glycine
D. Alanine

A

B. Histidine

423
Q

The catabolism of glutamine and glutamate parallels that of asparagine and aspartate. Which statement correctly describes the involved reactions?

A. Glutamate and aspartate use different enzymes for transamination.
B. Deamidation of asparagine requires the same enzymes as deamidation of glutamine
C. Transamination of aspartate gives rise to a- ketoglutarate.
D. During transamination, aspartate… (MAY MISSING PART DITO HEHE)

A

C. Transamination of aspartate gives rise to a- ketoglutarate.

424
Q

Alpha-amino groups of which amino acid do not participate in transamination?

A. Glycine
B. Alanine
C. Lysine
D. Leucine

A

C. Lysine

425
Q

What is TRUE regarding the rate-limiting enzyme of urea cycle?

A. It is found in the cytoplasm
B. It requires 4 mol of ATP
C. N-acetylglutamate inhibits the enzymes
D. Starvation increases its allosteric activator

A

D. Starvation increases its allosteric activator

426
Q

In the urea cycle this amino acid provides the second nitrogen urea.

A. Ornithine
B. Aspartate
C. Arginine
D. Citrulline

A

B. Aspartate

427
Q

Amino acid oxidases remove nitrogen as ammonia. Which of the following reactions produces ammonia from amino acids?

A. Transamination of glutamate
B. Oxidative deamination catalyzed by amino acid
oxidase
C. Deamination of glutamine 
D. AOTA
A

D. AOTA

428
Q

Transamination reactions which interconvert pairs of a-amino acids and a-keto acids…

A. Initiates protein degradation
B. Occurs in all amino acids
C. Only occurs in a-amino groups
D. Are freely reversible, thus can also function in
amino acid biosynthesis
A

D. Are freely reversible, thus can also function in

amino acid biosynthesis

429
Q

What structure illustrated in the cover of Harper’s Biochemistry 30th edition represent the complex arranged as stacked rings, forming a hollowing, tube-like chamber that contains immobilized enzymes used to degrade proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids?

A. Lysosome
B. Proteosome
C. Ubiquitin
D. Citrulline

A

B. Proteosome

430
Q

The mechanisms by which cells degrade proteins for turnover and recycling involve lysosomes and proteasomes. Which of a correct statement?

A. Both mechanisms utilize ATP
B. Protein degradation through proteasome system occurs in the cytoplasm
C. Lysosomes require ubiquitin to initiate protein degradation
D. NOTA

A

B. Protein degradation through proteasome system occurs in the cytoplasm

431
Q

Chaperone proteins bind short sequences of hydrophobic amino acids that emerge while a new polypeptide is synthesized. Which disease arises from absence of these chaperone proteins?

A. Alzheimer’s Disease
B. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy
C. Beta Thalassemia
D. Menke’s disease

A

C. Beta Thalassemia

432
Q

Which of the following is a homotetrameric proteins?

A. B4
B. a2B2
C. aB2y
D. a2

A

D. a2

433
Q

This refers to a section in the protein structure that is sufficient to perform a chemical or physical task.

A. Loops
B. Motif
C. Domain
D. Quaternary Structure

A

C. Domain

434
Q

TRUE statement regarding alpha helices

A. Its stability arises from hydrogen bonds formed between carbonyl O and the H atom attached to Ca of the 4th residue down the polypeptide chain.
B. Glycine can only be stably accommodated within the first turn of the alpha helix.
C. Proline and glycine produce bends within the alpha helices.
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

435
Q

This refers to a structure wherein each carbonyl O is hydrogen bonded to the amide hydrogen of a peptide bone 4 residues away along the same chain

A. Alpha helix
B. Beta sheet
C. Loop
D. Motif

A

A. Alpha helix

436
Q

Which bond forms the psi angle?

A. Co-aN
B. Ca-aN
C. Co-Ca
D. Peptide bond

A

C. Co-Ca

437
Q

What covalent bond restricts free rotation of atoms in the secondary structure?

A. Bond between alpha carbon and carbonyl atom
B. Bond between carbonyl carbon and alpha nitrogen
C. Bond between alpha carbon and alpha nitrogen
D. Bond forming the phi angle

A

B. Bond between carbonyl carbon and alpha nitrogen

438
Q

Which statement correctly describes the orders of protein structure?

A. The primary structure is held together by strong H-bonds.
B. The secondary structure is formed by folding of short amino acid segments into repeating patterns.
C. The tertiary structure refers to the arrangement of different polypeptide chains to form a functional protein.
D. The quaternary structure assembles to form a protein section that is (sorry kulang…di ko na move up ang screen)

A

C. The tertiary structure refers to the arrangement of different polypeptide chains to form a functional protein.

439
Q

Which of the following is the correct precursor-amino acid product match?

A. Pyruvate – Glutamate
B. 3-phosphoglycerate – Leucine
C. Alpha ketoglutarate – Glycine
D. Oxaloacetate – Aspartate

A

D. Oxaloacetate – Aspartate

440
Q

Which essential amino acid is required for cysteine synthesis?

A. Cysthionine
B. Homoserine
C. Methionine
D. Serine

A

C. Methionine

441
Q

TRUE about hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline.

A. They are the most abundant amino acids in collagen
B. Dietary hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline can be directly incorporated during protein synthesis
C. Hydroxylation of lysine and proline occurs after these amino acids have been incorporated into peptides
D. Disorders in hydroxylation reaction results in scurvy

A

D. Disorders in hydroxylation reaction results in scurvy

442
Q

Glutamate is a nutritionally non- essential amino acid. Which statement best describes glutamate?

A. The precursor for its synthesis comes from the citric acid cycle.
B. The enzyme that catalyzes its synthesis is located in the cytoplasm
C. Formation of glutamate increase concentration of ammonium ion.
D. The reaction requires biotin as a cofactor.

A

A. The precursor for its synthesis comes from the citric acid cycle.

443
Q

There is survival advantage in being dependent on an external supply of some nutrients. Which of the following statements accurately describes nutritionally essential vs non-essential amino acids?

A. Phenylalanine and Tryptophan require fewer enzymes for synthesis compared to Alanine and Proline.
B. Glutamine must be present in the human diet.
C. Humans cannot synthesize Threonine.
D. Prokaryotes lost the ability to synthesize
Cysteine and Serine.

A

C. Humans cannot synthesize Threonine.

444
Q

Coding information can be changed at the mRNA level by

A. Proofreading
B. Processing
C. Cycling
D. Editing

A

D. Editing

445
Q

The processes of DNA and RNA synthesis are similar in that they involve

A. The general steps on initiation, elongation, and termination with 3’ to 5’ polarity
B. Large, multicomponent termination complexes
C. Adherence to the Watson-Crick base-pairing rules
D. There is highly active, efficient proofreading functions

A

C. Adherence to the Watson-Crick base-pairing rules

446
Q

The sigma subunit helps the core enzymes recognize and binds to the specific deoxynucleotide sequence of the promoter region to form the

A. Promoter unit
B. Transcription unit
C. Pre-initiation complex
D. Initiation complex

A

C. Pre-initiation complex

447
Q

The region of the DNA that includes the signals for transcription initiation, elongation and termination is called

A. Complementary unit
B. Promoter unit
C. Transcription unit
D. Pre-initiation complex unit

A

B. Promoter unit

448
Q
The enzyme responsible for the polymerization of ribonucleotides into a sequence complementary to the template strand of the gene is

A. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase 
D. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
A

B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

449
Q
The function that identifies copying errors and correcting them is called

A. Chain elongation 
B. Processivity
C. Proofreading
D. Termination
A

C. Proofreading

450
Q
The expression of the number if nucleotides added to the nascent chain before the polymerase disengages from the template is called

A. Chain elongation
B. Processivity
C. Proofreading 
D. Termination
A

B. Processivity

451
Q
The enzymes involved in the processive unwinding of DNA are

A. DNA polymerase
B. Helicases
C. Topoisomerases 
D. DNA primases
A

B. Helicases

452
Q
In the steps involved in DNA replication in eukaryotes, the 1st step is identification of the origins of replication followed by

A. Formation of the replication fork
B. Synthesis of RNA primer
C. Unwinding of dsDNA to provide a ssDNA
template
D. Formation of replication bubbles
A

C. Unwinding of dsDNA to provide a ssDNA

template

453
Q

At the origin or replication

A. There is an association of sequence-specific dsDNA-biding proteins with a series of direct repeat DNA sequences
B. There are encoded O proteins to 4 adjacent sites.
C. Specific replication happens occurring only from a single-stranded RNA
D. Mechanism exist to target the site of initiation thus replication

A

A. There is an association of sequence-specific dsDNA-biding proteins with a series of direct repeat DNA sequences

454
Q

The strands of a given molecules of DNA separate at the melting temperature which is influenced by

A. Base composition of mRNA and complementary base pairing
B. Strength of the hydrogen bonds and complementary base pairing
C. Number of hydrogen bonds and base composition
D. Base composition and salt concentration of the solution

A

D. Base composition and salt concentration of the solution

455
Q
What consists of 7 nucleotides and it recognizes the 3-letter codon in the mRNA?

A. Triplet codon
B. Nonsense codon 
C. Anticodon
D. Terminal codon
A

C. Anticodon

456
Q
Exons are spliced together to form

A. Ribosomal RNA
B. Messenger RNA
C. Transfer RNA 
D. Nuclear RNA
A

B. Messenger RNA

457
Q

The extent of DNA packaging in metaphase chromosomes are as follows

A. Metaphase chromosome – naked double helical DNA – condensed loops – non-condensed loops – chromatin fibril – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril
B. Metaphase chromosome – non-condensed loops – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril – chromatin fibril – naked double helical DNA
C. Metaphase chromosome – condensed loops – chromatin fibril – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril – naked double helical DNA
D. Metaphase chromosome – non-condensed loops – condensed loops – chromatin fibril – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril – naked double helical DNA

A

C. Metaphase chromosome – condensed loops – chromatin fibril – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril – naked double helical DNA

458
Q
RNA is a polymer of purine and pyrimidine ribonucleotides linked together by

A. Hydrogen bonds
B. 3’-5’ phosphodiester bonds
C. Van de Waals forces 
D. Hydrophobic forces
A

B. 3’-5’ phosphodiester bonds

459
Q
The parent nucleotide from which both AMP and GMP are formed is

A. Glucose-6-phosphate
B. Ribose-5-phosphate
C. Ribosyl-5-phosphate
D. Inosine Monophosphate
A

D. Inosine Monophosphate

460
Q
What is the 1st true pyrimidine nucleotide formed?

A. UMP
B. CMP 
C. GMP 
D. AMP
A

A. UMP

461
Q
What enzymes catalyzes the committed step in pyrimidine biosynthesis?

A. Thymidilate synthase
B. Dihydroorotase
C. Aspartate transcarbamoylase
D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II
A

C. Aspartate transcarbamoylase

462
Q

What is the 1st enzymes uniquely committed to purine biosynthesis?

A. Formyltransferase
B. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase
C. PRPP synthase
D. Adenylsuccinase

A

B. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase

463
Q

5-phosphoribosyl 1- pyrophosphate

A. Is formed from ribose-5-phosphate + AMP
B. Has no role in the biosynthesis of pyrimidine
coenzymes
C. Has no role in the biosynthesis of nucleotide
enzymes
D. Is the 1st intermediate formed in the de novo
pathway for purine biosynthesis

A

D. Is the 1st intermediate formed in the de novo

pathway for purine biosynthesis

464
Q

Cancer is caused by:

a. overproduction of p53
b. inactivation of RAS gene
c. loss of immunity to the cells
d. uncontrolled mitosis

A

d. uncontrolled mitosis

465
Q

Which of the following is NOT a property of cancer cells?

a. proliferate rapidly
b. display diminished growth control
c. decreased telomerase activity
d. evade apoptosis

A

c. decreased telomerase activity

466
Q

A 60 year old woman came to your clinic due to liver disease. Results of complete laboratory workup show hepatocellular carcinoma. The patient had a history of needle prick injury in the past while working as a nurse. Which of the following viruses was probably an ethiology for cancer development in this patient.

a. Epstein-Barr Virus
b. Hepatitis B
c. HPV
d. Human Herpes Virus

A

b. Hepatitis B

467
Q

This mechanism activates oncogenes by splitting off a piece of a chromosome and joins it with another:

a. promoter insertion
b. enhancer insertion
c. chromosome translocation
d. chromosomal point mutation

A

c. chromosome translocation

468
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for converting procarcinogen to ultimate carcinogen?

a. Cytochrome P450
b. Inflammasomes
c. Hydrolases
d. Caspasses

A

a. Cytochrome P450

469
Q

The specificity of a clinical test:

a. refers to the percentage of positive results that are true positives
b. refers to the percentage of negative results that are true negatives
c. refers to the ability of a test to identify patients with the disease
d. refers to the ability of a test to identify patients without the disease

A

d. refers to the ability of a test to identify patients without the disease

470
Q

A diagnostic test for a certain disease has 92% sensitivity and 94% specificity. This would imply that:

a. the test would detect 92% of patients with the disease but 8% of them go undetected
b. the test would detect 92% of the patients without the disease but 8% of them go undetected
c. the test would detect 94% of patients with the disease but 6% would go undetected
d. the test would detect 94% of the patients without the disease and 6% of the patients with the disease.

A

a. the test would detect 92% of patients with the disease but 8% of them go undetected

471
Q

The quality of an analytical method that refers to the closeness of two or more measurements to each other:

a. Accuracy
b. Precision
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity

A

b. Precision

472
Q

Which of the following serum marker best reflects renal function?

a. BUN
b. Creatinine
c. Protein
d. Ketone bodies

A

b. Creatinine

473
Q

Which of the following probability of a test answers the question “how likely is it that my patient has the disease given that the test result is positive?”

a. Sensitivity
b. Specificity
c. Positive predictive value
d. Negative predictive value

A

a. Sensitivity

474
Q

It is defined statistically as the average number of years remaining at a given age

a. longevity
b. life span
c. life expectancy
d. life cycle

A

c. life expectancy

475
Q

Which of the following processes is NOT a known contributor to aging and death?

a. DNA damage
b. telomere elongation
c. errors in gene expression
d. imbalanced metabolism

A

b. telomere elongation

476
Q

The following are effects of UV radiation to the skin, EXCEPT:

a. single or double bond breaks in the DNA
b. generation of ROS
c. protein crosslinking
d. increases the skin’s intrinsic repair capacity

A

d. increases the skin’s intrinsic repair capacity

477
Q

What happens when telomere length is critically shortened?

a. cells undergo irreversible arrest of cell proliferation
b. they show altered function
c. causes cross linking of proteins
d. the cell evades apoptosis

A

d. the cell evades apoptosis

478
Q

Which of the following is incorrect about the free radicals and mitochondrial theory of aging?

a. aging is due to accumulation of oxidative damages to tissues and organs caused by free radicals
b. mitochondrial is the major source of Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) in the………..
c. Mitochondrial respiratory capacity declines with aging
d. mitochondrial genome has a highly functional surveillance and repair mechanism that help to maintain integrity of nuclear DNA

A

d. mitochondrial genome has a highly functional surveillance and repair mechanism that help to maintain integrity of nuclear DNA

479
Q

Which of the following is a determinant of target cell response?

a. Dissociation of inactive or suboptimally active forms of the hormone into the fully active form
b. proximity of the target cell to the hormone source
c. rate of clearance from plasma by other tissues or by digestion, metabolism or excretion
d. up or down regulation of the receptor consequent for the hormone response

A

d. up or down regulation of the receptor consequent for the hormone response

480
Q

The enzyme that catalyzes the hydroxylation reaction that produces the intermediate which is an active Na retaining mineralocorticoid

a. 11-Beta hydroxylase
b. 18-dehydrogenase
c. 21-hydroxylase
d. 3-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

A

c. 21-hydroxylase

481
Q

True about glucocorticoid synthesis

a. involves 3 hydroxylases in the fasciculata and reticularis acting on C21, C17, C11 sequentially
b. first 2 hydroxylation reactions are slow, third one is rapid
c. 17-a hydroxylase is a mitochondrial enzyme acting on progesterone, more commonly pregnenolone
d. 11-deoxycortisol: hydroxylated at C11 to form cortisol by the enzyme 11-beta hydroxylase

A

d. 11-deoxycortisol: hydroxylated at C11 to form cortisol by the enzyme 11-beta hydroxylase

482
Q

The PTH-receptor interaction initiates a typical cascade

a. activation of adenylyl cyclase towards increased intracellular cAMP resulting to an increased intracellular calcium
b. dephosphorylation of intracellular proteins by kinases resulting to an activation of genes and enzymes
c. activation of adenylyl cyclase towards an increased intracellular cAMP resulting to a decreased intracellular calcium
d. phosphorylation of intracellular proteins by kinases towards an inactivation of genes and enzymes

A

a. activation of adenylyl cyclase towards increased intracellular cAMP resulting to an increased intracellular calcium

483
Q

True about beta-endorphin

a. rapidly acetylated in the anterior pituitary lobe
b. active in pituitary
c. acetylated form is 100x less active than the unmodified form
d. trimmed at the amino terminal to form alpha and gamma-endorphin

A

c. acetylated form is 100x less active than the unmodified form

484
Q

Used by Dopamine beta hydroxylase as electron donor

a. copper
b. ascorbate
c. pyridoxal phosphate
d. fumarate

A

b. ascorbate

485
Q

True about the concentration of Iodide

a. Mostly done through the diffusion process
b. Energy-dependent process linked to the ATPase
dependent Na+-K++pump
c. Thyroidal I-transporter is controlled by TRH

A

a. Mostly done through the diffusion process

486
Q

True about insulin synthesis

a. the enzymatic removal of the leader peptide (pre) segment occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum
b. proinsulin is synthesized in the golgi apparatus
c. proinsulin undergoes proteolysis and packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum

A

a. the enzymatic removal of the leader peptide (pre) segment occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum

487
Q

This results in the variation in one or both alleles of a gene on an autosome or sex chromosome or in a mitochondrial gene

a. chromosomal disorders
b. mitochondrial disorders
c. single gene disorders
d. multifactorial disorders

A

c. single gene disorders

488
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a. where the genetic disorder manifests early, the competing risks are large
b. when the onset of disease is late, it is often difficult to say which is the final cause of death
c. where the genetic disorder manifests early, the survivorship curve negatively skewed
d. when the onset of disease is late, the survivorship curve positively skewed.

A

b. when the onset of disease is late, it is often difficult to say which is the final cause of death

489
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU) manifests

a. precursor toxicity
b. product deficit
c. combined product deficit and precursor
excess
d. increased metabolites due to product excess

A

c. combined product deficit and precursor

excess

490
Q

The more distant the genes are from each other in the same chromosome, the greater is the chance of recombination occuring

a. true
b. false

A

a. true

491
Q

A method of isolating genes where no functional information about the gene product is available and isolation is based solely on its chromosomal position

a. positional candidate approach
b. positional cloning
c. functional approach
d. candidate gene approach

A

b. positional cloning

492
Q

True of Open-type pathways of processes

a. no substrate competition
b. two or more pathways run in parallel
c. provides a fail-safe device should any of the pathway or substrate fail
d. branches do not rejoin and pool their products

A

d. branches do not rejoin and pool their products

493
Q

If usual development is difficult to reconcile with a linear code of instruction, so too is maldevelopment

a. galton-fischer theory
b. angular homeostasis
c. epistasis
d. life history

A

b. angular homeostasis

494
Q

An important defense mechanism against toxic compounds

a. GSH
b. GGT
c. PAPS
d. Acetly transferase

A

a. GSH

495
Q

Cytochrome P450 will exhibit polymorphism especially in the metabolism of

a. CYP2D2 and debrisoquin
b. CYP2A6 and nicotine
c. CYP2A1 and sparteine
d. CYP2E1 and ethanol

A

b. CYP2A6 and nicotine

496
Q

Characteristic of isoforms of cytochrome P450

a. 50% of common drugs humans ingest are metabolized by isoforms
b. the major cytochromes are membranes of the CYP4, CYP5, CYP6 families
c. a and b correct
d. a and b incorrect

A

a. 50% of common drugs humans ingest are metabolized by isoforms

497
Q

Acetly CoA is involved in

a. methylation of isoniazid
b. reaction catalyzed by enzymes in the liver
c. also known as inactive acetate
d. is a tripeptide

A

b. reaction catalyzed by enzymes in the liver

498
Q

Which of the following undergoes sulfation reaction?

a. phenols and anline
b. glycoprotein and glycolipids
c. steroids and benzoic acid
d. alcohols and meprobamate

A

b. glycoprotein and glycolipids

499
Q

in the genetic code, how many codons encode amino acids?

a. 61 codons
b. 62 codons
c. 63 codons
d. 6 codons

A

a. 61 codons

500
Q

Given a specific codon, only a single amino acid is indicated, therefore the genetic code is

a. non-overlapping
b. unambiguous
c. degenerative
d. universal

A

b. unambiguous

501
Q

Since there is no affinity of nucleic acids for specific functional groups of amino acids, this recognition must be carried out by an enzyme capable of recognizing

a. a specific tRNA
b. a specific amino acid
c. both specific tRNA and specific amino acid
d. specific codon-anticodon reading

A

a. a specific tRNA

502
Q

The template for correct addition of individual amino acids is the

a. mRNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
d. miRNA

A

a. mRNA

503
Q

What associated with the mRNA that ensures correct access of activated tRNAs and containing the necessary enzymatic activities to catalyze peptide bond formation?

a. tRNA
b. activated tRNA
c. ribosome
d. codon

A

c. ribosome

504
Q

Any step of the gene’s expression may be modulated. this statement is

a. true
b. false
c. not always applicable
d. an understatement

A

a. true

505
Q

The following are the stages where gene expression is regulated, EXCEPT

a. chromatin domains
b. transcription
c. post-transcriptional modification
d. DNA transport

A

d. DNA transport

506
Q

What do you call the process by which nonsense sequences or intervening sequences are removed from pre-mRNA to produce a functional mRNA

a. editing
b. splicing
c. proofreading
d. translatin

A

b. splicing

507
Q

what binds to non-coding sequences on the DNA strand that are close to or overlapping promoter region thus impeding RNA polymerase’s progress along the strand

a. specific factors
b. repressors
c. enhancers
d. general transcription factors

A

b. repressors

508
Q

What are the sites on the DNA helix that are bound to by activators in order to loop DNA bringing a specific promotor to the initiation complex?

a. specificity factors
b. repressors
c. enhancers
d. general transcription factors

A

c. enhancers

509
Q

when the inducing signal for gene expression is removed, the amount if gene expression diminishes to its basal response. this type of response is the

a. TYPE A
b. TYPE B
c. TYPE C
d. TYPE D

A

a. TYPE A

510
Q

a variation of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis based on repetitive sequences that is highly polymorphic

a. DNA sequencing
b. DNA fingerprinting
c. gene therapy
d. polymerase chain reaction

A

b. DNA fingerprinting

511
Q

true of clone/cloning except

a. cells with an identical genotype
b. transfer or recombinant DNA into the host cell
c. allows the production of large numbers of identical DNA molecules
d. large population of bacteria that arise from a common ancestor

A

b. transfer or recombinant DNA into the host cell

512
Q

Types of vectors include the following except

a. plasmid
b. bacteriophage
c. palindrome
d. yeast artificial chromosome

A

c. palindrome

513
Q

used for identifying parentage

a. western blot
b. northern blot
c. DNA sequencing
d. RFLP

A

d. RFLP