EVALS AND TERM EXAMS (2020) Flashcards by Joseph Emerson Dayot

Which of the following describes digestion?

A. Hydrolize chemical bonds
B. Uptakes micronutrients by enterocytes

A. Hydrolize chemical bonds

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What digests carbohydrates

A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Protease

A. Amylase

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What is the role of chylomicrons in lipid digestion?

A. Its hydrophobic tail allows … to interact with the lipid environment of the enterocyte
B. It allows … to travel through the lacteals
C. It breaks down large globules to small lobules

B. It allows … to travel through the lacteals

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Not a role of saliva?

A. Lubrication
B. Denaturation
C. Digestion
D. Ease on swallowing

B. Denaturation

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Most enzyme … in high temperature

Denaturation

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Diacylglycerols are broken down into monoacylglycerol and free fatty acids by hydrolysis of what ester bonds?

A. SN1 and SN2 ester bonds
B. SN2 and SN3 ester bonds
C. SN1 and SN3 ester bonds
D. SN3 ester bond only

C. SN1 and SN3 ester bonds

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Which is not part of catalytic triad of lingual lipase?

A. Asparagine
B. Histidine
C. Serine
D. Aspartate

A. Asparagine

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Enzyme increase?

A. By altering the …
B. Bind to substrates
C. Increasing molecular collision frequency

NO ANSWER

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Absorbed in the duodenum

Fe(Iron)

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Segregation of metabolic pathways ensuring metabolic efficiency is made possible by:

A. Michaelis Menten Kinetic Theory
B. Collision Theory
C. Equilibrium Constant
D. Compartmentation

D. Compartmentation

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Transfer groups between atoms within a molecule

Mutase

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Michaelis menten, high concentration

Zero Order

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Region of substrate attachment

Active Site

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Which of the following is true about pepsin?

A. Secreted by gastric parietal cells
B. Secreted as proenzymes
C. Denaturation of protein

C. Denaturation of protein

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Transport molecule from an area of higher to lower concentration with the use of transport of protein is called?

A. Carrier mediated diffusion/Facilitated diffusion
B. Active transport
C. Secondary active transport
D. Passive diffusion

A. Carrier mediated diffusion/Facilitated diffusion

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Alcohol absorption

A. Active transport
B. Secondary active transport
C. Passive diffusion
D. Osmosis

C. Passive diffusion

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What is the mechanism behind the action of Lingual Lipase?

A. Hydrolysis of SN1 ester bonds
B. Hydrolysis of SN2 ester bonds
C. Hydrolysis of SN3 ester bonds
D. Hydrolysis of SN4 ester bonds

C. Hydrolysis of SN3 ester bonds

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What is necessary prior go lipid digestion?

A. Unfolding of the lipid globules into long triglycerides
B. Breaking down of large lipid globules into several small lipid globules
C.
D. Activation of lipases to hydrolyze lipid globules into FFA

B. Breaking down of large lipid globules into several small lipid globules

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Hydrolysis by lingual lipase yields what?

Diacylglycerol (DAG) and free fatty acids

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Absorption of water

Osmosis

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Which of the following statements are true?

Enzymes are truly selective catalysis

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What will determine the rate of chemical reaction will proceed?

A. Speed
B. Magnitude
C. Equilibrium Constant
D. Speed and Magnitude

B. Magnitude

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If free energy is lower than substrate (negative)

Left to Right

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In michaelis menten kinetic theory, if the substrate concentration is higher than the enzyme concentration what would happen?

Something about saturated and enzymes tas excess ang substrate…

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Enzyme differ with other inorganic substances because they

Not consumed in the reaction

What is necessary prior to lipid digestion

Break down of large lipid globules into several small lipid globules

Small Km

Lower concentration of the substrate is needed to half-saturate the enzyme

Lactase deficiency lacks ability to break down into:

Glucose + Galactose

Which of the following describes iron absorption? A. An oxidizing agent is needed to increase iron absorption such as vitamin C B. In iron deficiency, more hepcidin is synthesized to increase iron absorption C. Absorption of iron is limited due to the formation of iron free radicals D. Primary site of iron absorption is jejunum

C. Absorption of iron is limited due to the formation of iron free radicals

Overall digestion of protein starts in what organ?

Stomach

Salivary amylase not active in the stomach because A. Inactivated by pepsin B. Inactivated by acid

B. Inactivated by acid

What does salivary amylase hydrolyse? A. a-1,4 of amylose B. a-1,4 of amylopectin C. b-1,4 of amylose D. b-1,4 of amylopectin

A. a-1,4 of amylose

How does amylase “digest” starch? A. Hydrolyzing amylose ??? B. Hydrolyzing amylopectin C. Breaking ester bond of Alpha(1-4) D. Breaking ester bond of Alpha(1-6)

A. Hydrolyzing amylose ???

2 factors always measured when dealing with enzymes

Km and Vmax

Effects of competitive inhibitor on the kinetics of enzyme reaction except: A. Increase concentration of substrate reverses the inhibition B. The inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme other than the catalytic site C. Km is increased D. Kcat no change

B. The inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme other than the catalytic site

Hydolyzes peptide bonds FROM THE ENDS of peptides A. Carboxypeptidase B. Elastase C. Chymotrypsin D. Pepsin

A. Carboxypeptidase

True of Go, except: A. Independent of the mechanism of reaction B. Provide information only about direction and equilibrium C. Provide no information concerning the reaction rate D. Provide information about direction, equilibrium and reaction rates

D. Provide information about direction, equilibrium and reaction rates

What does the effect of pH on an enzyme catalyzed reaction reflect? A. Denaturation of the enzyme B. Ionization of the product C. Esterification of the enzyme D. Dephosphorylation of the product

B. Ionization of the product

Co-transport/Secondary active transport

Movement of one molecule down its concentration gradient (higher to lower) to power movement of another from lower to higher

Acid enters the duodenum:

Secretin is released

Inferred from the presence of amino acids in the same position in the family group A. Reserve residues B. Conserved residues C. Conservative residues D. Preserved residues

B. Conserved residues

State at which molecules may equal with probability to go ahead to products or go back to reactants:

Transition state

Anything that increases the frequency of collision will increase the rate of reaction:

Kinetic theory

Substrate is proportional to product:

Mixed order

Distinct enzyme reaction that catalyze same reaction arise through gene duplication: A. Lysozyme B. Residue C. Homologous D. Isoenzyme

D. Isoenzyme

Determines how far the reaction will go

Magnitude of free energy

Salivary amylase does not contribute yo the digestion of carbohydrates on the stomach because _____ inhibits salivary amylase A. Pepsin B. Peristalsis C. High pH D. Chief Cells

D. Chief Cells (production of HCl inactivates salivary amylase)

Mechanical digestion in small intestine A. Chyme is propelled caudally to mix with digestive enzymes B. Segmented longitudinal muscles contract and relax C. Circular muscles contract and relax D. Segmentation ... slowing overall process

A. Chyme is propelled caudally to mix with digestive enzymes (Peristalsis)

MAG and FFA hydrolyzed by

SN1 and SN3

If Go is negative

Reaction is left to right

Digestion includes

Hydrolysis of chemical bonds

Distinct enzyme forms that catalyze the same reaction arise through gene duplication A. Lysozymes B. Residue C. Homologous D. Isozyme

D. Isozyme

Small Km A. Low concentration of substrate is need to half saturate the enzyme B. Low affinity of enzyme to substrate C. High affinity of enzyme to product D. High concentration of substrate is needed to half saturate an enzyme

A. Low concentration of substrate is need to half saturate the enzyme

Catalytic triad except

Asparagine

Lactose

1 Glucose + 1 Galactose

In michaelis menten, at high concentrations of substrates, the velocity of the reaction is

Zero order kinetics

Alcohol

Passive diffusion

Sigmoid graph

Cooperative binding

*** FIGURE of oxygenase

Heme to biliverdin

Transition state

The state from which molecules may with equal probability go ahead to products or back to reactants

Absorbed in the duodenum

Iron

Water absorption

Osmosis

Exopeptidase that hydrolyze peptide bonds from the ends of peptides

Carboxypeptides

Effect of noncompetitive inhibition except A. Cannot be overcome by increasing the concentration of substrate B. Increase Vmax C. Km is unchanged D.

B. Increase Vmax

Transport of molecules from high to low concentrations with the help of transport proteins

Carrier mediated diffusion

Exit of glucose to the bloodstream

GLUT2 facilitated diffusion

Gibbs free energy except A. Independent of the mechanism of reaction B. Provide information only about the direction and equilibrium state of the reaction C. Provides no information regarding the rate of reaction D. Provide information only about the direction, equilibrium and rate of reaction

D. Provide information only about the direction, equilibrium and rate of reaction

Enzyme on rate of reaction

Decreases activation energy

Polyssacharide digestion

Hydrolysis of alpha (1,4) glycosydic bond

Secondary active transport

Movement of one molecule down the concentration gradient to power movement of another from low to high

2 factors

Km and Vmax

Bile

Emulsify lipid

Provides measurement for enzyme affinity to substrate

Anything that increases the frequency or energy of collision of substrates

Kinetic

What determines how far the reaction goes

Magnitude

Segregation of metabolic pathways ensuring metabolic efficiency

Compartmentation

Salivary amylase

Hydrolyse amylose

Where start ang protein digestion

Stomach

Why mag stop ang digestion ng carbohydrates sa stomach

Due to secretion of parietal cells

Digestion in the stomach

Peristaltic mixing and churning are examples of mechanical digestion

Function of chylomicrons

For lipid transport directly out of the cell to lacteal

What happens when acid from the stomach enters the duodenum

Secretin is released

The byproduct of lipid digestion by lipase

Diacylglycerol and free fatty acid

Enzyme responsible of digestion of carbohydrates

Amylase

Effect of pH on enzyme

Ionization

Diffusion of water

Osmosis

Transfer groups between atoms with a molecule

Mutases

Absorption of alcohol

Passive diffusion

Not part of catalytic triad

Asparagine

Absorption of iron

Duodenum

Not a role of saliva

Denaturation

Molecule to product and backward to substrate

Equilibrium

Where does protein digestion starts?

Stomach

What will happen when acid from the stomach enters duodenum?

Release of pepsinogen

True of G except: A. Independent of the mechanisms of reaction B. Provide info only about the direction and equilibrium state of the reaction C. Provides no information regarding the rate of reaction D. Provide information only about the direction, equilibrium and state of reaction

D. Provide information only about the direction, equilibrium and state of reaction

*** NOMENCLATURE Heme Oxygenase

Oxygenase

How are the polysaccharides digested? A. Hydrolysis of a1,4 glycosidic bonds B. Hydrolysis of a1,6 glycosidic bonds C. Hydrolysis of b1,4 glycosidic bonds D. Hydrolysis of b1,6 glycosidic bonds

A. Hydrolysis of a1,4 glycosidic bonds

Composition of lactose

1 Glucose + 1 Galactose

Which of the following is true regarding digestion in the stomach? A. Carbohydrate digestion continues in the stomach B. No absorption of any compounds occur in the gastric mucosa C. Peristaltic mixing and churning are forms of mechanical digestion D. The high gastric pH is needed for protein and lipid digestion

C. Peristaltic mixing and churning are forms of mechanical digestion

How far the reaction will go? A. Magnitude of the energy B. Quantity of free energy C. Strength of energy

A. Magnitude of the energy

Diacylglycerols digested into monoacylglycerols and FFA by hydrolysis of

SN1 and SN3 ester bonds

True about competitive inhibition except:

Binds to the site other than the catalytic site

Digestion of carbohydrates

Amylase

All are true of irreversible inhibitors except

They form dissociable dynamic complex with enzyme

Lipid hydrolysis products

DAG and FFA

Secondary active transport

Higher to lower to power movement of another lower to higher

Negative free energy

Left to right

Low Km

Low concentration of the substrate needs to half saturate the enzyme

Action of salivary amylase A. Hydrolyzes amylose B. Hydrolyzes amylopectin C. Esterifies a1,4 of starch and glycogen D. Digest b1,4 of cellulose

A. Hydrolyzes amylose

Exit of nutrients from the cell

GLUT2

Hydrolyze at the end of the a.a. A. Peptidase B. Elastase C. Trypsin D. Carboxypeptidase

D. Carboxypeptidase

When acidic contents of the stomach enters the duodenum A. CCK is secreted in the Si B. Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in the SI C. Bicarbonate is secreted into the SI D. Secretin is secreted into the SI

D. Secretin is secreted into the SI

Michaelis menten theory

When [S] exceeds [E], when all enzymes are bound, there is an excess of substrates

Substrate concentration is high

0 order

Which of the following is true about pepsin A. Secreted by parietal cells B. Secreted as proenzymes C. Denatures proteins prior to digestion D. Works in a basic environment

B. Secreted as proenzymes

Energy required to bring all molecule to the transition state

Free energy of activation

Affinity of the enzyme to the substrate

Difference of enzyme and inorganic catalyst

Not altered

Distinct enzyme forms that catalyze the same reaction and arise through gene duplication A. Lysozymes B. Reside C. Homologous D. Isozyme

D. Isozyme

Inferred from the presence of specific amino acids in the same position in each family member

Conserved residues

2 factors in dealing enzymes

Km and Vmax

Which is true for iron absorption

Absorption is regulated in order to reduce the generation of free radicals

Sigmoid graph

Cooperative binding

Effect of noncompetitive inhibition except:

Increase Vmax

Transport of molecules from high to low concentration with the help of transport proteins

Carrier mediated diffusion

Enzyme on rate of reaction

Decrease activation energy

Proportionality is changing

Mixed order

Primary response, does not cross placenta?

IgM

Secondary response, can cross placenta?

IgG

Found in secretions

IgA

Allergic reactions

IgE

B Lymphocyte

IgD

Half-life of Hb-Hp complex

90 mins

Enzyme in milk that protect against E.coli and bacteria

Milk lysozyme

Rich in antibody

Colostrum

% of water in breastmilk

87%

Storage of human milk except A. 25C to 27C for 4 hrs B. 15C to 25C for 8 hrs C. Ref na 2 doors D. Deep freeze for 9 mos

D. Deep freeze for 9 mos

Exhibit polymorphism except

Ferritin

Enhances Ca absorption

Lactose

Physiologic jaundice except

Most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

Which of the ff is true

The iron of the unoxygenated myoglobin lies outside the plane of the heme ring

Conjugation of bile is catalyzed by

UDP-glucoronyl transferase

Has large capacity that even under the pathologic conditions, transport does not appear to be rate limiting for metabolism of bilirubiin

Facilitated transport system

Reciprocal coupling of proton and O2 binding

Bohr effect

5th coordinating carbon of myoglobin is linked to

Proximal His F8

Fetal Hb

A2y2

Condition where alpha and beta globin chains are absent and decrease in number

Thalassemia

Largest repository of heme

RBC

Sign of good attachment except ``` A. More areola visible above baby's mouth B. Baby's mouth wide open C. Lower lip turned outwards D. Chin close to the breast E. Baby's position should lie flat ```

E. Baby's position should lie flat

Thick milk antibodies

Colostrum

Breast milk affect milk production A. True B. False C. Neither D. True with increased fluid

B. False

The transfer of iron across the apical membrane of the enterocyte is accomplished via A. DMT1 B. TfR1 C. TFr2

A. DMT1

Ferric is reduced to the ferrous form by a A. Ferrireductase B. Ferrioxidase

A. Ferrireductase

Bilirubin found in bile ductules A. Bilirubin monoglucoronides B. Bilirubin diglucoronides C. UDP-glucoronic acid

B. Bilirubin diglucoronides

Genetic defect of this protein can lead to emphysema A. A2-macroglobulins B. A1-antitrypsin

B. A1-antitrypsin

WHO advises breastmilk feeding except A. After an hour of giving birth B. Within an hour after giving birth C. Up to 2 years of age D. During the 1st 6 months

A. After an hour of giving birth

Minerals found in the mature milk

Na, K, Ca, Fe, Zn, O

Has ferroxidase activity

Haphaestin

Binds to extracorpuscular Hb

Haptoglobin

All of the following are true of O2 dissociation curve of myoglobin except:

During strenuous exercise, release O2 when PO2 of muscles decrease to 20 mmHg (should be 5 mmHg)

Tyrosine to his F8

Hgb M

True of heme except

One ferrous ion is attached to the center of a linear tetrapyrrole (should be cyclic tetrapyrrole)

Hemoglobin

A carrier of both O2 and CO2

Why is it that carbon monoxide does not completely displace O2 from the heme iron

The apoproteins of myoglobin and hemoglobin provide a hindered environment

The reciprocal binding of proton and oxygen

Bohr effect

Which of the following statements is true?

In unoxygenated myoglobin, the iron lies outside the plane of heme ring

Methemoglobinemia

Iron in ferric rather than ferrous

A low PO2 in peripheral tissues promote the synthesis of

2,3 BPG

True of P50 except:

PO2 that half saturates a myoglobin (should be hemoglobin)

True of porphyrin except:

Forms complexes with metal ions bound to carbon atom of the pyrolle ring (nitrogen dapat)

The iron-free porphyrin portion of heme is degraded mainly in the

Liver

Fifth coordination position of the iron is linked to a ring nitrogen of proximal histidine

His F8

Has large capacity that even under pathologic condition, the transport does not appear to be rate limiting for metabolism of bilirubin

Facilitated transport system

Compound excreted in feces

Stercobilin

The bilirubin found in the bile ductules

Bilirubin diglucoronide

Conjugation of bilirubin

UDP glucoronyl transferase

Feme oxygenase is found at

Endoplasmic reticulum

After album-bilirubin complex dissociates, Albumin:

Remains in the plasma

Colorless substance in bilirubin metabolism

Urobilinogen

Cutaneous porphyria, except:

Acute intermittent porphyria

Porphyrin is

Hydrophobic

Carbon monoxide is the direct measure of

Heme oxygenase

Important for secondary response; fixes complement, enhancing bacterial killing

IgG

Physiological jaundice, except:

Conjugated bilirubin (unconjugated dapat)

Hormone secreted from anterior pituitary gland for production of breast milk

Prolactin

Stimulates milk production

Prolactin

A thick milky substance rich in antibodies

Colostrum

Does the size of the breast affect milk production?

Signs of good positioning of breastfeeding, except:

Baby’s body is flat against the mother (dili ko sure sa sentence basta dili dapat flat)

Two major proteins in breast milk

60% whey 40% casein

Percentage of water in human milk

87%

WHO recommends that... except:

Breastfeeding should be initiated after 1 hour after birth

Average composition of breastmilk in humans

Water 87% Lactose 7.2% Fat 4% Protein 1%

Principal sugar in human milk which enhances calcium absorption

Lactose

Minerals in mature human milk

Na, K, P, Ca, Fe, Zn

Enzyme in human milk that protects the infant against E. Coli & Salmonella

Milk lysozyme

Human milk protein with bacteriostatic properties, required for iron transport and absorption

Lactoferrin

Most abundant immunoglobulin in human milk secretions

IgA

Which of the following are the guidelines of milk storage, except:

Deep freezer 9 mos.

Concentration of total protein in human plasma

7-7.5 g/dL

Osmotic pressure of arterioles

40 mmHg

In protoporphyria, what enzyme is defective

Ferrochelatase

What plasma glycoprotein is involved in binding extracorpuscular Hgb:

Haptoglobin

What is an important element in the human body because it is found in many of the hemoproteins?

Iron

Enzyme that catalyzes ferric to ferrous

Ferrireductase

Milk let down

Oxytocin

Haptoglobin-hemoglobin complex half life

90 mins

Has ferroxidase activity

Haphaestin

A deficiency in this protein will result in the acceleration of emphysema

A1-antiproteinase

What immunoglobulin is found at secretions:

IgA

Transfer of iron from apical surface of enterocytes into their interiors

DMT1

What immunoglobulin is responsible for allergic reaction:

IgE

Primary response to antigen, fixes complement, does not cross placenta

IgM

Immunoglobulin in B-cells that binds to antigen:

IgD

Hbf

2 alpha 2 gamma

True of heme except

Consist of 2 molecules of pyrrole ring linked by a-methylene bridges

Maintain level of heme except

Formation of globin side chains

O2 binds to hemoglobin tetramer more readily if other O2 molecules are already bound

Cooperative binding

True of porphyrins except:

Forms complexes with metal ions bound to carbon atom of the pyrolle ring

Osmotic pressure of arterioles

40 mmHg

Defective enzyme in protoporphyria

Ferrochelatase

Decrease in hemolytic anemia

Haptoglobin

Important element in the human body that is found in hemoproteins?

Iron

Tyrosine to his F8

Hgb M

Enzyme that catalyzes ferric to ferrous

Ferrireductase

Milk let down

Oxytocin

The iron-free porphyrin portion of heme is degraded mainly in the

Liver

Haptoglobin-hemoglobin complex half life

90 mins

Hemoglobin

A carrier of both O2 and CO2

Has ferroxidase activity

Haphaestin

A deficiency in this protein will result in the acceleration of emphysema

A1-antiproteinase

All of the following are true of O2 dissociation curve of myoglobin except:

During strenuous exercise, release O2 when PO2 of muscles decrease to 20 mmHg

What immunoglobulin is found at secretions:

IgA

Transfer of iron from apical surface of enterocytes into their interiors

DMT1

Immunoglobulin for allergy response

IgE

Primary response to antigen, fixes complement, does not cross placenta

IgM

Antigen receptor on the surface of B cell

IgD

Fetal hemoglobin

2 alpha 2 gamma

True of heme except

Consist of 2 molecules of pyrrole ring linked by a-methylene bridges

Maintain level of heme except

Formation of globin side chains

Fifth coordination position of the iron is linked to a ring nitrogen of proximal histidine

His F8

O2 binds to hemoglobin tetramer more readily if other O2 molecules are already bound

Cooperative binding

The reciprocal binding of protein and oxygen

Bohr effect

After albumin-bilirubin complex dissociates, albumin:

Remains in the plasma

CO does not completely displace O2 from the heme iron

The apoproteins of myoglobin and hemoglobin provide a hindered environment

Milk storage, except:

Deep freezer 9 mos.

Conjugation of bilirubin

UDP glucoronyl transferase

Colorless substance in bilirubin metabolism

Urobilinogen

Most abundant immunoglobulin in human milk secretions

IgA

Heme oxygenase is found in

Endoplasmic reticulum

Human milk protein with bacteriostatic properties, required for iron transport and absorption

Lactoferrin

Concentration of total protein in human plasma

7-7.5 g/dL

Cutaneous porphyria, except

Acute intermittent porphyria

Porphyrin is

Hydrophobic

Hormone secreted from anterior pituitary gland for production of breast milk

Prolactin

Stimulates milk production

Prolactin

A thick milky substance rich in antibodies

Colostrum

Signs of good positioning of breastfeeding, except:

Baby’s body is flat against the mother

Methemoglobinemia

Iron in ferric instead of ferrous

Proteins in breast milk

60% whey 40% casein

Percentage of water in human milk

87%

A low PO2 in peripheral tissues promotes the synthesis of

2,3 BPG

Has large capacity that even under pathologic condition, the transport does not appear to be rate limiting for metabolism of bilirubin

Facilitated transport system

Does the size of the breast affect milk production?

True of P50 except:

PO2 that half saturates a myoglobin

Enhances bacterial killing. Main antibody in secondary response opsonizes bacteria. Fixes complement.

IgG

Which of the following statements is true?

In unoxygenated myoglobin, the iron lies outside the plane of heme ring

Carbon monoxide is the direct measure of

Heme oxygenase

WHO recommends that ... except:

Breastfeeding should be initiated after 1 hour after birth

Conjugation of bile is catalyzed by

UDP-glucoronyl transferase

Average composition of breastmilk in humans

Water 87% Lactose 7.2% Fat 4% Protein 1 %

Compound excreted in feces

Stercobilin

Principal sugar in human milk which enhances calcium absorption

Lactose

Minerals in mature human milk

Na, K, P, Ca, Fe, Zn

Enzyme jn human milk that protects the infant against E. Coli & Salmonella?

Milk lysozyme

Physiologic jaundice except

Most common form of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

O2 binding site ... except bond between 1st O2 and Fe2+ is parallel the plane of heme rinh

Perpendicular

True except

Release of O2 from myoglobin na at 20 mmHg tissue

Condition wherein alpha or beta globin chains are absent or decreased in number

Thalassemia

Most of the enzymes are inactivated by heat through what mechanism

Denaturation

These are two constants that is used when enzyme is characterized

Km and Vmax

Provides measurement for enzyme affinity to substrate

Effects of competitive inhibitor on the kinetics of enzyme reaction, except:

The inhibitor binds to the site of the enzyme other than the catalytic site

Effects of non competitive inhibitor on the kinetics of enzyme reaction except

Increases Vmax

Methemoglobinemia

Ferric (Fe3+) instead of Ferrous (Fe2+) state

Carbon monoxide (CO) is the direct measure of: A. Heme oxidase B. Heme oxygenase C. Biliverdin reductase D. Biliverdin oxidase

B. Heme oxygenase

Hemoglobinopathy wherein His F8 is replaced with Tyrosine

HgM

Enzyme defective in protoporphyria A. Porphobilinogen deaminase B. ALA synthase C. ALA dehydratase D. Ferrochelatase

D. Ferrochelatase

Total protein concentration in plasma

7.0-7.5

Cutaneous porphyria except A. Porphyria cutanea tarda B. Variegate porphyria C. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria D. Acute intermittent porphyria

D. Acute intermittent porphyria

Released in anterior pituitary gland that induces production of milk in breast

Prolactin

5th coordinating carbon of myoglobin is linked to: A. Proximal His F8 B. Proximal His E7 C. Distal His F8 D. Distal His E7

A. Proximal His F8

Fetal hemoglobin

a2y2

Found in secretions

IgA

Secondary response, fixes complements

IgG

Primary response, complement activation

IgM

Attached to surface of B-cell

IgD

Mast cell or allergic reactions

IgE

Condition wherein alpha or beta globin chains are absent or decreased in number

Thalassemia

Largest repository of heme

RBC

Reciprocal coupling of proton and O2 binding

Bohr effect

Low PO2 in peripheral tissues causes synthesis of

2,3 - BPG

Colored compound found in feces

Stercobilin

Blue-green color

Biliverdin

What happens to albumin when removed in bilirubin

Remains in plasma

Location of heme oxygenase

Endoplasmic reticulum

Exhibit polymorphism except? A. Haptoglobin B. Ceruloplasmin C. Ferritin D. Transferrin

C. Ferritin

Has large capacity that even under pathologic conditions, transport does not appear to be rate-limiting for metabolism of bilirubin

Facilitated transport system

Hydrostatic pressure of arterioles A. 40 mmHg B. 39 mmHg C. 38 mmHg D. 37 mmHg

D. 37 mmHg

Protein that is copper-containing and has a ferroxidase activity

Ceruloplasmin

The iron-free porphyrin portion of heme os degraded mainly in the

Liver

False about myoglobin

Release only small fraction of its bound O2 at the PO2 values in active muscles (20 mmHg)

True about porphyrins except?

Form complexes with metal ions bound to carbon atoms of pyrrole rings * dapat N atoms

Milk let-down reflex

Oxytocin

Thick, rich, yellowish milk roch in antibodies

Colostrum

Half-life pf haptoglobin-hemoglobin complex

90 minutes

Porphyrin ring

Hydrophobic

Deficiency in this protein may have a role in certain cases of emphysema

a1 antiproteinase

True of heme, except?

Linked linear tetrapyrolle ring * dapat cyclic tetrapyrolle rings through methyne or methenyl bridges

Conjugation of bilirubin is catalyzed bu

UDP-glucoronyl transferase

Plasma protein that binds extracorpuscular hemoglobin

Haptoglobin

Sings of good positioning, except: A. Baby flat against mother B. More areola visible above baby’s mouth C. Chin close to breast D. Lower lip turned outward

A. Baby flat against mother

Colorless

Urobilinogen

Percentage of water in breastmilk?

87%

Composition of milk

Whey - 60%; Casein - 40%

Protects infant from E. Coli and salmonella

Lysozyme

Transfer of iron from apical surface of enterocytes into their interior

Divalent Metal Transporter (DMT1)

True of physiologic jaundice, except: A. Transient B. Most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia C. Results from an accelerated hemolysis around the time of birth D. Onset: after 24 hours

B. Most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia * dapat unconjugated

Bacteriostatic that enhances absorption of iron

Lactoferrin

Enzyme that converts ferric to ferrous

Duodenal cytochrome B (Dcytb) or brush border membrane bound ferrireductase

Does size of breast affect milk production?

False

Breast milk storage, except? A. 25-37C - 4 hrs B. 15-25C - 8 hrs C. 2 door freeze-20C - 3 months D. Deep freezer - 9 months

D. Deep freezer - 9 months

Permits hemoglobin to maximize quantity of O2 loaded at PO2 of the lungs

Cooperative O2 binding

WHO recommends the ff. except A. Breastfeeding within an hour after birth B. Rooming in C. Breastfeeding an hour after birth

C. Breastfeeding an hour after birth

Composition of breast milk

87% - Water 7.2% - Lactose 4% - Fat 1% - Protein

Characteristics of myoglobin dissociation curve

Hyperbolic

Secretory Ig in human milk

IgA

True of porphyrins except?

Forms complexes with metal ions bound to carbon atom of pyrole rings

The ff are true of Michaelis-Menten theory except? A. The substrate concentra?on that produces the Vi one-half of Vmax is designated as the Michaelis-Menten constant B. Km is (roughly) an inverse measure of the affinity of substrate to enzyme concentra?on C. The lower the Km, the lower the affinity for substrate D. The lower the Km, the lower the concentra?on needed to achieve a given rate

C. The lower the Km, the lower the affinity for substrate

Responsible for lipid digeston?

Lipase

About milk: that has antibacterial, ant-tumor and can absorb calcium and zinc?

Alpha lactalbumin

Provides a more precise way to determine Km and Vmax

Double double lineweaver chuchu

Additon of Glucuronic acid to bilirubin is called?

Conjugation

Asa man daw ang hydrophilic beee?? A. Alanine B. Asparagine C. Leucine D. Methionine

B. Asparagine

What is true to selenocysteine? A. Different to other amino acid because of the D amino side B. It's trna uga codon?? Hence Complete signal something.. C. Ktng may post transla?on membrane D. Cysteine analogue

B. It's trna uga codon?? Hence Complete signal something..

State at which molecules may equal with probability to go ahead to products or go back to reactants:

transiton state

What is the pl of lysine? A. 4.3 B. 5 something C. 7.4 D. 10

C. 7.4

101. What predominantes in acidic medium? 102. Zwitterion 103. Pl of lysiene 104. Fully protonted form 105. At what pka does equichuchu concentraton does fully protonted molecule and electrically neutral molecule occur?

Leucine answers to questions: a-carbon is C5 PI is 10 Found inside cell (because hydrophobic)

Coloured compound found in feces:

Stercobilin

5th coordinating carbon of myoglobin is linked to:

proximal his f8

Increase frequency and collisions -

kinetic theory

Which amino acid is responsible for the absorbance of light by proteins?

Tryptophan

how many ubiquitin blahhh blah for degradation A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

D. 4

Where is iron absorbed?

Duodenum

true of peptide bonds a. negative charge in acidic medium b. net loss of one positive charge and gain of one negative charge c. rotation of peptides would break the bond d. none of the above

c. rotation of peptides would break the bond

Mechanism of AA absorption on luminal side of enterocytes

Cotransport ata

T/F ileum can absorb of free vitamin

TRUE

How many percent of free ileum absorbed by terminal ileum

Where does the transport of macromolecules along nucleus and cytoplasm occur? A. Nucleus exportins B. Nucleus localization signal C. Nucleus pore complex D. Nucleus export signal

C. Nucleus pore complex

At physiologic pH, ionizable weak acids exist as ``` A. COOH B. COO- C. NH3+ D. A&B E. A&C ```

NO ANSWER

Bidirectional Transport thru NPC

RAN

Aher Interaction of unfolded protein to HSP 70 with mitochondrial TOM 20/22, they are transferred to what channel

TOM40

Cytosolic Chaperone to prevent misfolding

HSP70

True about chaperones

Many are heat shock proteins

Misfolded protein after ER

Proteosome

Promotes rapid reshuffling of disulfide bonds until the correct set is achieved

PDI (Protein Disulfide Isomerase)

____ ubiquitin molecules must be attached to commit target molecule to degradation in proteasome

Organelle for metabolism of FA, AA, LIPIDS, PURINES etc

peroxisome

Measure of enzyme affinity to substrate

Not a characteristic of protein digestion in the stomach.

B. Pepsinogen is activated by pepsin which lead to more pepsin production.

High substrate concentration

Zero order

at high temperatures, enzymes are inactivated because

they are proteins and therefore denature

hormone secreted by posterior pituitary gland to induce uterine involution

Oxytocin

B surface

IgD

2nd major class of chaperons -

chaperonins

Color ... feces-

stercobilin

Colorless -

urobilinogen

Ferric -

methemoglobinemia

Milk composition -

60% whey casein 40%

Lipid degradation -

lipase

IgM

primary reaction

IgE

Allergic

IgA

Secretion

IgG

cross placenta, secondary reaction

Lactoferrin

Iron

Lysozyme

E.coli

Sn3

ester bonds

Lipid

breaking down of large lipid

Rate of chem reaction

magnitude

Enzymes

not consumed

Reciprocal

Bohr

Chyme enters SI activates:

CCK

Let down milk

oxytocin

what determines how far a rxn will proceed?

magnitude of free energy

Effect of pH:

Ionization

Site where B12 is absorbed.

ileum

Sigmoid plot of substrate concentration vs. reaction velocity A. Competitive inhibition B. Michaeles menten kinetics C. Cooperative binding D. Mb binding to O2

C. Cooperative binding

Immunoglobulin that can be a dimer or monomer?

IgA

Describes secondary active transport:

uses transport of one substrate from high to low to transport another substrate from low to high (basta kana na thought haha)

Disease: replaced by glutamate?

Hb S valine - gluta

Albumin removed:

remains in the plasma

Heme oxygenase location:

Endoplasmic reticulum

Transfers iron to where it is needed

Transferrin

Exit of glucose to the blood stream:

Glut2;facilitated diffusion

Effect of enzyme:

Decreases the activation energy

Transfer of iron from apical surface:

DMT1

Maintain level of heme except:

Formation of globin side chains

Low pO2 in peripheral tissues. Synthesis of:

2,3BPG

Hormone released by pituitary gland responsible for uterine something A. Prolactin B. Prolactin releasing hormone C. Oxytocin D. Oxytocin releasing hormone

C. Oxytocin

With antibacterial and anti-tumor activity

a-lactalbumin

The 5th coordination of the iron in myoglobin is linked to the pyrrole ring on its

A. Proximal end of histidine His F8

O2 binds more readily if there are O2 molecules already bound

Cooperative binding

Not absorbed in the liver-

Gamma globulin

Select the correct amino acid substrate and specialized product match. A. Cysteine – sphingosine B. Tyrosine – GABA C. Tryptophan – melatonin D. Serine Taurine

C. Tryptophan – melatonin

What amino acid is the precursor of the inhibitory neurotransmitter y-aminobutyrate? A. Glycine B. Tyrosine C. Tryptophan D. Glutamine

D. Glutamine

This compound, a potent vasoconstrictor and stimulator of smooth muscle contraction, comes from the non-protein conversion of tryptophan. A. 5-hydroxytryptophan B. Serotonin C. Melatonin D. Epinephrine

B. Serotonin

Which compound is the major non-protein fate of methionine and is the principal source of methyl groups for physiologic reactions? A. Histamine B. S-adenosylmethionine C. Spermine D. Serotonin

B. S-adenosylmethionine

Which amino acid participates in the biosynthesis of co-enzyme A? A. Arginine B. Cysteine C. Glycine D. Histidine

B. Cysteine

TRUE about branched-chain a-keto acid dehydrogenase complex: A. It catalyzes the multi-step catabolism of 3 nutritionally non-essential amino acids B. Biochemical defect involving it can produce musky odor urine. C. Genetic mutations that encode for its components may lead to elevated plasma and urinary levels of leucine, isoleucine, and valine. D. AOTA

C. Genetic mutations that encode for its components may lead to elevated plasma and urinary levels of leucine, isoleucine, and valine.

Alkaptonuria is a metabolic enzymes defect that arises from defective enzyme used in catabolism of which amino acid? A. Tyrosine B. Phenylalanine C. Lysine D. Tryptophan

D. Tryptophan

TRUE about the glycine cleavage system: A. It splits glycine to NH3, H2O and CH4. B. Methylene tetrahydrofolate is formed. C. It consists of 4 protein enzymes. D. NOTA

B. Methylene tetrahydrofolate is formed.

Excretion of Figlu following administration of what amino acid can be sued to detect folic acid deficiency? A. Proline B. Histidine C. Glycine D. Alanine

B. Histidine

The catabolism of glutamine and glutamate parallels that of asparagine and aspartate. Which statement correctly describes the involved reactions? A. Glutamate and aspartate use different enzymes for transamination. B. Deamidation of asparagine requires the same enzymes as deamidation of glutamine C. Transamination of aspartate gives rise to a- ketoglutarate. D. During transamination, aspartate... (MAY MISSING PART DITO HEHE)

C. Transamination of aspartate gives rise to a- ketoglutarate.

Alpha-amino groups of which amino acid do not participate in transamination? A. Glycine B. Alanine C. Lysine D. Leucine

C. Lysine

What is TRUE regarding the rate-limiting enzyme of urea cycle? A. It is found in the cytoplasm B. It requires 4 mol of ATP C. N-acetylglutamate inhibits the enzymes D. Starvation increases its allosteric activator

D. Starvation increases its allosteric activator

In the urea cycle this amino acid provides the second nitrogen urea. A. Ornithine B. Aspartate C. Arginine D. Citrulline

B. Aspartate

Amino acid oxidases remove nitrogen as ammonia. Which of the following reactions produces ammonia from amino acids? ``` A. Transamination of glutamate B. Oxidative deamination catalyzed by amino acid oxidase C. Deamination of glutamine D. AOTA ```

D. AOTA

Transamination reactions which interconvert pairs of a-amino acids and a-keto acids... ``` A. Initiates protein degradation B. Occurs in all amino acids C. Only occurs in a-amino groups D. Are freely reversible, thus can also function in amino acid biosynthesis ```

D. Are freely reversible, thus can also function in | amino acid biosynthesis

What structure illustrated in the cover of Harper’s Biochemistry 30th edition represent the complex arranged as stacked rings, forming a hollowing, tube-like chamber that contains immobilized enzymes used to degrade proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids? A. Lysosome B. Proteosome C. Ubiquitin D. Citrulline

B. Proteosome

The mechanisms by which cells degrade proteins for turnover and recycling involve lysosomes and proteasomes. Which of a correct statement? A. Both mechanisms utilize ATP B. Protein degradation through proteasome system occurs in the cytoplasm C. Lysosomes require ubiquitin to initiate protein degradation D. NOTA

B. Protein degradation through proteasome system occurs in the cytoplasm

Chaperone proteins bind short sequences of hydrophobic amino acids that emerge while a new polypeptide is synthesized. Which disease arises from absence of these chaperone proteins? A. Alzheimer’s Disease B. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy C. Beta Thalassemia D. Menke’s disease

C. Beta Thalassemia

Which of the following is a homotetrameric proteins? A. B4 B. a2B2 C. aB2y D. a2

D. a2

This refers to a section in the protein structure that is sufficient to perform a chemical or physical task. A. Loops B. Motif C. Domain D. Quaternary Structure

C. Domain

TRUE statement regarding alpha helices A. Its stability arises from hydrogen bonds formed between carbonyl O and the H atom attached to Ca of the 4th residue down the polypeptide chain. B. Glycine can only be stably accommodated within the first turn of the alpha helix. C. Proline and glycine produce bends within the alpha helices. D. AOTA

D. AOTA

This refers to a structure wherein each carbonyl O is hydrogen bonded to the amide hydrogen of a peptide bone 4 residues away along the same chain A. Alpha helix B. Beta sheet C. Loop D. Motif

A. Alpha helix

Which bond forms the psi angle? A. Co-aN B. Ca-aN C. Co-Ca D. Peptide bond

C. Co-Ca

What covalent bond restricts free rotation of atoms in the secondary structure? A. Bond between alpha carbon and carbonyl atom B. Bond between carbonyl carbon and alpha nitrogen C. Bond between alpha carbon and alpha nitrogen D. Bond forming the phi angle

B. Bond between carbonyl carbon and alpha nitrogen

Which statement correctly describes the orders of protein structure? A. The primary structure is held together by strong H-bonds. B. The secondary structure is formed by folding of short amino acid segments into repeating patterns. C. The tertiary structure refers to the arrangement of different polypeptide chains to form a functional protein. D. The quaternary structure assembles to form a protein section that is (sorry kulang...di ko na move up ang screen)

C. The tertiary structure refers to the arrangement of different polypeptide chains to form a functional protein.

Which of the following is the correct precursor-amino acid product match? A. Pyruvate – Glutamate B. 3-phosphoglycerate – Leucine C. Alpha ketoglutarate – Glycine D. Oxaloacetate – Aspartate

D. Oxaloacetate – Aspartate

Which essential amino acid is required for cysteine synthesis? A. Cysthionine B. Homoserine C. Methionine D. Serine

C. Methionine

TRUE about hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline. A. They are the most abundant amino acids in collagen B. Dietary hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline can be directly incorporated during protein synthesis C. Hydroxylation of lysine and proline occurs after these amino acids have been incorporated into peptides D. Disorders in hydroxylation reaction results in scurvy

D. Disorders in hydroxylation reaction results in scurvy

Glutamate is a nutritionally non- essential amino acid. Which statement best describes glutamate? A. The precursor for its synthesis comes from the citric acid cycle. B. The enzyme that catalyzes its synthesis is located in the cytoplasm C. Formation of glutamate increase concentration of ammonium ion. D. The reaction requires biotin as a cofactor.

A. The precursor for its synthesis comes from the citric acid cycle.

There is survival advantage in being dependent on an external supply of some nutrients. Which of the following statements accurately describes nutritionally essential vs non-essential amino acids? A. Phenylalanine and Tryptophan require fewer enzymes for synthesis compared to Alanine and Proline. B. Glutamine must be present in the human diet. C. Humans cannot synthesize Threonine. D. Prokaryotes lost the ability to synthesize Cysteine and Serine.

C. Humans cannot synthesize Threonine.

Coding information can be changed at the mRNA level by A. Proofreading B. Processing C. Cycling D. Editing

D. Editing

The processes of DNA and RNA synthesis are similar in that they involve A. The general steps on initiation, elongation, and termination with 3’ to 5’ polarity B. Large, multicomponent termination complexes C. Adherence to the Watson-Crick base-pairing rules D. There is highly active, efficient proofreading functions

C. Adherence to the Watson-Crick base-pairing rules

The sigma subunit helps the core enzymes recognize and binds to the specific deoxynucleotide sequence of the promoter region to form the A. Promoter unit B. Transcription unit C. Pre-initiation complex D. Initiation complex

C. Pre-initiation complex

The region of the DNA that includes the signals for transcription initiation, elongation and termination is called A. Complementary unit B. Promoter unit C. Transcription unit D. Pre-initiation complex unit

B. Promoter unit

``` The enzyme responsible for the polymerization of ribonucleotides into a sequence complementary to the template strand of the gene is A. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase C. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase D. DNA-dependent DNA polymerase ```

B. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

``` The function that identifies copying errors and correcting them is called A. Chain elongation B. Processivity C. Proofreading D. Termination ```

C. Proofreading

``` The expression of the number if nucleotides added to the nascent chain before the polymerase disengages from the template is called A. Chain elongation B. Processivity C. Proofreading D. Termination ```

B. Processivity

``` The enzymes involved in the processive unwinding of DNA are A. DNA polymerase B. Helicases C. Topoisomerases D. DNA primases ```

B. Helicases

``` In the steps involved in DNA replication in eukaryotes, the 1st step is identification of the origins of replication followed by A. Formation of the replication fork B. Synthesis of RNA primer C. Unwinding of dsDNA to provide a ssDNA template D. Formation of replication bubbles ```

C. Unwinding of dsDNA to provide a ssDNA | template

At the origin or replication A. There is an association of sequence-specific dsDNA-biding proteins with a series of direct repeat DNA sequences B. There are encoded O proteins to 4 adjacent sites. C. Specific replication happens occurring only from a single-stranded RNA D. Mechanism exist to target the site of initiation thus replication

A. There is an association of sequence-specific dsDNA-biding proteins with a series of direct repeat DNA sequences

The strands of a given molecules of DNA separate at the melting temperature which is influenced by A. Base composition of mRNA and complementary base pairing B. Strength of the hydrogen bonds and complementary base pairing C. Number of hydrogen bonds and base composition D. Base composition and salt concentration of the solution

D. Base composition and salt concentration of the solution

``` What consists of 7 nucleotides and it recognizes the 3-letter codon in the mRNA? A. Triplet codon B. Nonsense codon C. Anticodon D. Terminal codon ```

C. Anticodon

``` Exons are spliced together to form A. Ribosomal RNA B. Messenger RNA C. Transfer RNA D. Nuclear RNA ```

B. Messenger RNA

The extent of DNA packaging in metaphase chromosomes are as follows A. Metaphase chromosome – naked double helical DNA – condensed loops – non-condensed loops – chromatin fibril – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril B. Metaphase chromosome – non-condensed loops – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril – chromatin fibril – naked double helical DNA C. Metaphase chromosome – condensed loops – chromatin fibril – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril – naked double helical DNA D. Metaphase chromosome – non-condensed loops – condensed loops – chromatin fibril – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril – naked double helical DNA

C. Metaphase chromosome – condensed loops – chromatin fibril – “beads-on-a-string” chromatin fibril – naked double helical DNA

``` RNA is a polymer of purine and pyrimidine ribonucleotides linked together by A. Hydrogen bonds B. 3’-5’ phosphodiester bonds C. Van de Waals forces D. Hydrophobic forces ```

B. 3’-5’ phosphodiester bonds

``` The parent nucleotide from which both AMP and GMP are formed is A. Glucose-6-phosphate B. Ribose-5-phosphate C. Ribosyl-5-phosphate D. Inosine Monophosphate ```

D. Inosine Monophosphate

``` What is the 1st true pyrimidine nucleotide formed? A. UMP B. CMP C. GMP D. AMP ```

A. UMP

``` What enzymes catalyzes the committed step in pyrimidine biosynthesis? A. Thymidilate synthase B. Dihydroorotase C. Aspartate transcarbamoylase D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II ```

C. Aspartate transcarbamoylase

What is the 1st enzymes uniquely committed to purine biosynthesis? A. Formyltransferase B. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase C. PRPP synthase D. Adenylsuccinase

B. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase

5-phosphoribosyl 1- pyrophosphate A. Is formed from ribose-5-phosphate + AMP B. Has no role in the biosynthesis of pyrimidine coenzymes C. Has no role in the biosynthesis of nucleotide enzymes D. Is the 1st intermediate formed in the de novo pathway for purine biosynthesis

D. Is the 1st intermediate formed in the de novo | pathway for purine biosynthesis

Cancer is caused by: a. overproduction of p53 b. inactivation of RAS gene c. loss of immunity to the cells d. uncontrolled mitosis

d. uncontrolled mitosis

Which of the following is NOT a property of cancer cells? a. proliferate rapidly b. display diminished growth control c. decreased telomerase activity d. evade apoptosis

c. decreased telomerase activity

A 60 year old woman came to your clinic due to liver disease. Results of complete laboratory workup show hepatocellular carcinoma. The patient had a history of needle prick injury in the past while working as a nurse. Which of the following viruses was probably an ethiology for cancer development in this patient. a. Epstein-Barr Virus b. Hepatitis B c. HPV d. Human Herpes Virus

b. Hepatitis B

This mechanism activates oncogenes by splitting off a piece of a chromosome and joins it with another: a. promoter insertion b. enhancer insertion c. chromosome translocation d. chromosomal point mutation

c. chromosome translocation

Which enzyme is responsible for converting procarcinogen to ultimate carcinogen? a. Cytochrome P450 b. Inflammasomes c. Hydrolases d. Caspasses

a. Cytochrome P450

The specificity of a clinical test: a. refers to the percentage of positive results that are true positives b. refers to the percentage of negative results that are true negatives c. refers to the ability of a test to identify patients with the disease d. refers to the ability of a test to identify patients without the disease

d. refers to the ability of a test to identify patients without the disease

A diagnostic test for a certain disease has 92% sensitivity and 94% specificity. This would imply that: a. the test would detect 92% of patients with the disease but 8% of them go undetected b. the test would detect 92% of the patients without the disease but 8% of them go undetected c. the test would detect 94% of patients with the disease but 6% would go undetected d. the test would detect 94% of the patients without the disease and 6% of the patients with the disease.

a. the test would detect 92% of patients with the disease but 8% of them go undetected

The quality of an analytical method that refers to the closeness of two or more measurements to each other: a. Accuracy b. Precision c. Sensitivity d. Specificity

b. Precision

Which of the following serum marker best reflects renal function? a. BUN b. Creatinine c. Protein d. Ketone bodies

b. Creatinine

Which of the following probability of a test answers the question “how likely is it that my patient has the disease given that the test result is positive?” a. Sensitivity b. Specificity c. Positive predictive value d. Negative predictive value

a. Sensitivity

It is defined statistically as the average number of years remaining at a given age a. longevity b. life span c. life expectancy d. life cycle

c. life expectancy

Which of the following processes is NOT a known contributor to aging and death? a. DNA damage b. telomere elongation c. errors in gene expression d. imbalanced metabolism

b. telomere elongation

The following are effects of UV radiation to the skin, EXCEPT: a. single or double bond breaks in the DNA b. generation of ROS c. protein crosslinking d. increases the skin’s intrinsic repair capacity

d. increases the skin’s intrinsic repair capacity

What happens when telomere length is critically shortened? a. cells undergo irreversible arrest of cell proliferation b. they show altered function c. causes cross linking of proteins d. the cell evades apoptosis

d. the cell evades apoptosis

Which of the following is incorrect about the free radicals and mitochondrial theory of aging? a. aging is due to accumulation of oxidative damages to tissues and organs caused by free radicals b. mitochondrial is the major source of Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS) in the........... c. Mitochondrial respiratory capacity declines with aging d. mitochondrial genome has a highly functional surveillance and repair mechanism that help to maintain integrity of nuclear DNA

d. mitochondrial genome has a highly functional surveillance and repair mechanism that help to maintain integrity of nuclear DNA

Which of the following is a determinant of target cell response? a. Dissociation of inactive or suboptimally active forms of the hormone into the fully active form b. proximity of the target cell to the hormone source c. rate of clearance from plasma by other tissues or by digestion, metabolism or excretion d. up or down regulation of the receptor consequent for the hormone response

d. up or down regulation of the receptor consequent for the hormone response

The enzyme that catalyzes the hydroxylation reaction that produces the intermediate which is an active Na retaining mineralocorticoid a. 11-Beta hydroxylase b. 18-dehydrogenase c. 21-hydroxylase d. 3-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

c. 21-hydroxylase

True about glucocorticoid synthesis a. involves 3 hydroxylases in the fasciculata and reticularis acting on C21, C17, C11 sequentially b. first 2 hydroxylation reactions are slow, third one is rapid c. 17-a hydroxylase is a mitochondrial enzyme acting on progesterone, more commonly pregnenolone d. 11-deoxycortisol: hydroxylated at C11 to form cortisol by the enzyme 11-beta hydroxylase

d. 11-deoxycortisol: hydroxylated at C11 to form cortisol by the enzyme 11-beta hydroxylase

The PTH-receptor interaction initiates a typical cascade a. activation of adenylyl cyclase towards increased intracellular cAMP resulting to an increased intracellular calcium b. dephosphorylation of intracellular proteins by kinases resulting to an activation of genes and enzymes c. activation of adenylyl cyclase towards an increased intracellular cAMP resulting to a decreased intracellular calcium d. phosphorylation of intracellular proteins by kinases towards an inactivation of genes and enzymes

a. activation of adenylyl cyclase towards increased intracellular cAMP resulting to an increased intracellular calcium

True about beta-endorphin a. rapidly acetylated in the anterior pituitary lobe b. active in pituitary c. acetylated form is 100x less active than the unmodified form d. trimmed at the amino terminal to form alpha and gamma-endorphin

c. acetylated form is 100x less active than the unmodified form

Used by Dopamine beta hydroxylase as electron donor a. copper b. ascorbate c. pyridoxal phosphate d. fumarate

b. ascorbate

True about the concentration of Iodide a. Mostly done through the diffusion process b. Energy-dependent process linked to the ATPase dependent Na+-K++pump c. Thyroidal I-transporter is controlled by TRH

a. Mostly done through the diffusion process

True about insulin synthesis a. the enzymatic removal of the leader peptide (pre) segment occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum b. proinsulin is synthesized in the golgi apparatus c. proinsulin undergoes proteolysis and packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum

a. the enzymatic removal of the leader peptide (pre) segment occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum

This results in the variation in one or both alleles of a gene on an autosome or sex chromosome or in a mitochondrial gene a. chromosomal disorders b. mitochondrial disorders c. single gene disorders d. multifactorial disorders

c. single gene disorders

Which of the following statements is true? a. where the genetic disorder manifests early, the competing risks are large b. when the onset of disease is late, it is often difficult to say which is the final cause of death c. where the genetic disorder manifests early, the survivorship curve negatively skewed d. when the onset of disease is late, the survivorship curve positively skewed.

b. when the onset of disease is late, it is often difficult to say which is the final cause of death

Phenylketonuria (PKU) manifests a. precursor toxicity b. product deficit c. combined product deficit and precursor excess d. increased metabolites due to product excess

c. combined product deficit and precursor | excess

The more distant the genes are from each other in the same chromosome, the greater is the chance of recombination occuring a. true b. false

a. true

A method of isolating genes where no functional information about the gene product is available and isolation is based solely on its chromosomal position a. positional candidate approach b. positional cloning c. functional approach d. candidate gene approach

b. positional cloning

True of Open-type pathways of processes a. no substrate competition b. two or more pathways run in parallel c. provides a fail-safe device should any of the pathway or substrate fail d. branches do not rejoin and pool their products

d. branches do not rejoin and pool their products

If usual development is difficult to reconcile with a linear code of instruction, so too is maldevelopment a. galton-fischer theory b. angular homeostasis c. epistasis d. life history

b. angular homeostasis

An important defense mechanism against toxic compounds a. GSH b. GGT c. PAPS d. Acetly transferase

a. GSH

Cytochrome P450 will exhibit polymorphism especially in the metabolism of a. CYP2D2 and debrisoquin b. CYP2A6 and nicotine c. CYP2A1 and sparteine d. CYP2E1 and ethanol

b. CYP2A6 and nicotine

Characteristic of isoforms of cytochrome P450 a. 50% of common drugs humans ingest are metabolized by isoforms b. the major cytochromes are membranes of the CYP4, CYP5, CYP6 families c. a and b correct d. a and b incorrect

a. 50% of common drugs humans ingest are metabolized by isoforms

Acetly CoA is involved in a. methylation of isoniazid b. reaction catalyzed by enzymes in the liver c. also known as inactive acetate d. is a tripeptide

b. reaction catalyzed by enzymes in the liver

Which of the following undergoes sulfation reaction? a. phenols and anline b. glycoprotein and glycolipids c. steroids and benzoic acid d. alcohols and meprobamate

b. glycoprotein and glycolipids

in the genetic code, how many codons encode amino acids? a. 61 codons b. 62 codons c. 63 codons d. 6 codons

a. 61 codons

Given a specific codon, only a single amino acid is indicated, therefore the genetic code is a. non-overlapping b. unambiguous c. degenerative d. universal

b. unambiguous

Since there is no affinity of nucleic acids for specific functional groups of amino acids, this recognition must be carried out by an enzyme capable of recognizing a. a specific tRNA b. a specific amino acid c. both specific tRNA and specific amino acid d. specific codon-anticodon reading

a. a specific tRNA

The template for correct addition of individual amino acids is the a. mRNA b. rRNA c. tRNA d. miRNA

a. mRNA

What associated with the mRNA that ensures correct access of activated tRNAs and containing the necessary enzymatic activities to catalyze peptide bond formation? a. tRNA b. activated tRNA c. ribosome d. codon

c. ribosome

Any step of the gene’s expression may be modulated. this statement is a. true b. false c. not always applicable d. an understatement

a. true

The following are the stages where gene expression is regulated, EXCEPT a. chromatin domains b. transcription c. post-transcriptional modification d. DNA transport

d. DNA transport

What do you call the process by which nonsense sequences or intervening sequences are removed from pre-mRNA to produce a functional mRNA a. editing b. splicing c. proofreading d. translatin

b. splicing

what binds to non-coding sequences on the DNA strand that are close to or overlapping promoter region thus impeding RNA polymerase’s progress along the strand a. specific factors b. repressors c. enhancers d. general transcription factors

b. repressors

What are the sites on the DNA helix that are bound to by activators in order to loop DNA bringing a specific promotor to the initiation complex? a. specificity factors b. repressors c. enhancers d. general transcription factors

c. enhancers

when the inducing signal for gene expression is removed, the amount if gene expression diminishes to its basal response. this type of response is the a. TYPE A b. TYPE B c. TYPE C d. TYPE D

a. TYPE A

a variation of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis based on repetitive sequences that is highly polymorphic a. DNA sequencing b. DNA fingerprinting c. gene therapy d. polymerase chain reaction

b. DNA fingerprinting

true of clone/cloning except a. cells with an identical genotype b. transfer or recombinant DNA into the host cell c. allows the production of large numbers of identical DNA molecules d. large population of bacteria that arise from a common ancestor

b. transfer or recombinant DNA into the host cell

Types of vectors include the following except a. plasmid b. bacteriophage c. palindrome d. yeast artificial chromosome

c. palindrome

used for identifying parentage a. western blot b. northern blot c. DNA sequencing d. RFLP

d. RFLP