Ethics and Therapeutics Flashcards

1
Q

A beneficial effect of aquatic therapy in cardiac rehabilitation is:

A

Aquatic immersion causes increased stroke volume, decreased heart rate, lower end diastolic blood pressure, increased cardiac output, in large part due to fluid dynamic shifts and the resultant reduction in venous and arterial vascular resistance.

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2
Q

The effect of aquatic therapy for patients with osteoporosis is:

A

Despite the concerns to the contrary, patients with osteoporosis who exercise have no loss of bone mineral density and preserve density better than non-exercising controls. There is no clear evidence of increased bone deposition however. The major benefits in patients with osteoporosis are from improved balance, decreased postural sway and lowered fall risks, with subsequent lower morbidity and mortality.

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3
Q

A specific benefit of music therapy that has been proven in patients with acquired brain injury is improvement in:

A

Although there were few studies overall, only gait was improved with the use of music therapy in patients with acquired brain injury. Further studies would be needed to evaluate the potential benefits of music therapy for the other outcomes.

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4
Q

Rhythmic auditory stimulation improves what aspect of gait the most in individuals with acquired brain injury?

A

The pooled data from the studies in the Cochrane review demonstrated potential improvements in gait symmetry in all the studies, while there was inconsistent improvements in velocity and stride length and inconsistent level of improvement in cadence. Balance was not assessed in the pooled data.

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5
Q

The institution of an exercise program has many benefits for a patient’s health. Which of the below is true?

A

Exercise has many physiological and psychological benefits including reduction in cardiovascular disease risk factors, anxiety, depression, and fall risk in older individuals. Exercise programs cannot change a person’s socioeconomic status.

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6
Q

According to the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) published Physical Activity Guidelines, the target level of exercise to maintain health is:

A

60 minutes a day of moderate to vigorous exercise is the recommendation for children, while the recommendations for adults are 150 minutes a week of moderate intensity exercise or 75 minutes a week of vigorous intensity exercise.

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7
Q

Cardiopulmonary exercise testing is used to evaluate:

A

While estimates can be made of cardiac stroke volume, muscle strength and sprint velocity, aerobic capacity is what is measured by cardiopulmonary exercise testing. Cardiac ischemia may be detected by the 12-lead monitoring used on cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPET), but CPET is a functional test, not a diagnostic test like cardiac exercise testing or the variants such as thallium, persantine, or other tests

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8
Q

For patients with peripheral vascular disease, the best method of assessing their walking endurance is:

A

Constant load treadmill testing is the best method for assessing endurance with walking in patients with claudication. Non-invasive flow studies (NIFS) detect disease, but in some instances, over 40% of symptomatic patients with normal NIFS have been shown to have abnormal constant load tests, and may then have abnormalities develop on the post walk NIF if it is repeated right after exercise. 6-minute walk tests do not test the endurance (but a walk to fatigue field test with time would be appropriate). Cycle ergometry is better for assessing cardiopulmonary capacity in vascular patients as they can achieve a higher workload on the cycle than walking, but does not assess endurance in walking activity. Angiography helps to define the extent of disease and plan for treatment, but also does not assess endurance.

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9
Q

Cardiopulmonary exercise testing can help determine:

A

Exercise capacity as determined on cardiopulmonary exercise testing is associated with the prognosis of patients with heart failure. Although the other answers may be associated with changes in exercise testing, they have not been validated as well as peak oxygen uptake has for heart failure.

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10
Q

A difference between field exercise testing compared to laboratory exercise testing is:

A

Field testing is less accurate and is relatively unmonitored, using estimates to determine values for V02 Maximum. The benefit of field testing is that it is easier to administer, can be administered to large numbers of individuals quickly and is able to be done with very simple equipment (often a stopwatch and a marked flat course). Laboratory testing is better at evaluating at risk individuals, is more closely monitored and gives exact values for anaerobic threshold and peak exercise capacity, but does require time and a significant equipment investment.

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11
Q

Manual therapy utilizes instructions and maneuvers to achieve maximal painless movement of the musculoskeletal system and

A

This definition of manual therapy is derived from consensus on the goals of the provision of this treatment modality. Manual therapy includes instruction of the patient and the use of the provider’s hands to allow for restoration of painless movement with a goal of restoring postural balance in patients.

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of manual therapy?

A

There are many forms of manual therapy that are found in osteopathic, chiropractic and other forms of treatment. They all share a common thread of a combination of instruction and actual manual treatment aiming to relieve pain and restore normal function.

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13
Q

An absolute contraindication for massage therapy is:

A

Some of the above (pregnancy) are potential relative contraindications to massage, while others such as malignancy, myelopathy and aseptic necrosis are contraindicated in high velocity/low amplitude manipulation. Deep venous thrombosis is contraindicated in massage because increased blood flow in a limb could cause a thrombus to detach from the vessel wall, creating an embolism.

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14
Q

Isometric exercise has which of the following characteristics?

A

Isometric exercise is a muscle contraction without noticeable change in the length of the muscle. Thus, no physical work is performed (work is force over distance, so motion is needed). Answers a and c apply to isotonic exercise and answer d applies to isokinetic exercise.

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15
Q

For patients who have pulmonary disease, which of the following is an easy and commonly performed assessment of muscle strength?

A

Although all of the listed tests have been used for assessing strength in patients with frailty, in patients with lung disease (and most other conditions) the most commonly used and most validated test is the isometric hand grip test.

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16
Q

Creatine is commonly used to enhance performance for athletes. The evidence available indicates that it is beneficial for:

A

Although used in many settings, the only clear benefits for creatine for increasing performance in exercise have been found in short duration, high intensity activity. Because of the variation in the quality of commercially available preparations, even these benefits may also be limited and so advice should be given to athletes that creatine is only indicated for the short duration, high intensity activities.

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17
Q

Which of the following medication classes used to enhance athletic performance is allowed in competition?

A

All of the medications listed (Glucocorticoids, Anabolic agents, Peptide and growth hormones) except for ACEi are used to enhance performance and are banned through the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).

18
Q

Which of the following non-pharmacologic enhancement techniques is banned from competition by the International Olympic Committee?

A

Caffeine above nominal dosages is banned in competition. All the other listed techniques are allowed for preparation or in competition with athletes.

High altitude training, high protein supplementation, high dose lysine and creatine are allowed

19
Q

Objectives of the Joint Commission include:

A

Joint Commission Disease-Specific Care Certification was established in 2002, and today has been achieved by more than 2,000 clinical care programs nationwide. Certified programs must demonstrate a systematic approach to care delivery and a commitment to performance improvement through ongoing data collection and analysis. The discipline and self-assessment inherent in meeting these requirements creates a road map to improving patient care quality. Licensure falls under the jurisdiction of state and federal governments.

Evaluation of safety standards

20
Q

The Fee for Service Model of payment makes separate payments to providers for the services that providers give to beneficiaries for a single illness or course of treatment (episode of care). This model of payment promotes:

A

The Fee for Service Model results in increased service utilization since payment is based on how much a provider does, not how well the provider does in treating the patient The Bundled Payments Initiative aims to improve care through a patient-centered approach, emphasizing care coordination and quality. Though limited evidence-based literature regarding bundled payments currently exists, recent data indicates: (1) bundled payments may reduce spending for an episode of care; (2) bundled payments can promote quality improvements in care.

Increased service utilization

21
Q

According to the motor unit size principle, which statement is TRUE about muscle activation?

A

The motor unit size principle, which has been supported by many investigators, states that during muscle activation, smaller motor units are activated first and the larger motor units are recruited with more forceful contraction.

22
Q

Which massage technique has as its goal the breakup of tissue and muscle adhesions?

A

Petrissage is a method of compression massage that is used to break up tissue and muscle adhesions. In effleurage massage the practitioner uses a stroking motion that is beneficial for vascular and lymphatic drainage. Friction massage is a method of massage that uses circular motions to small areas of tissue to help with tendonitis and fasciitis. Acupressure is a massage method in which pressure is applied on specific body points to help reduce pain.

23
Q

Lying quietly is equivalent to how many metabolic equivalents (METs)?

A

Lying quietly is 1.0 MET. Climbing stairs is equivalent to 3-4 METs, and heavy gardening is equivalent to 4-5 METs.

24
Q

When compared to conventional stroke rehabilitation methods, mirror therapy has been shown to

A

When comparing a conventional stroke rehabilitation program with mirror therapy for stroke patients, researchers found that mirror therapy resulted in improvement only in the self-care FIM score; it did not improve scores on the Modified Ashworth Scale for spasticity.

25
Q

A 28-year-old man returns to clinic after failing conservative management for clinical medial epicondylitis. What is the most cost effective diagnostic test to localize the site of pathology?

A

Real time ultrasound is less costly than magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and has similar sensitivity and specificity in diagnosing medial epicondylitis. Plain radiographs and electrodiagnostic studies will not help localize or confirm your diagnosis of medial epicondylitis, but may help with diagnosing a fracture or nerve injury, respectively.

26
Q

Which muscle fiber type (Type 1, Type 2a, Type 2b, Type 3) uses only glycolytic metabolism for energy?

A

There are 2 primary muscle fiber types in humans. They are categorized according to speed of contraction and sources of fuel. Type 1 muscle fibers are slow-twitch with oxidative metabolic pathways. Type 2 muscle fibers are fast-twitch fibers. The type 2 fibers can then be further divided into fast-twitch with both oxidative and glycolytic metabolism (type 2a) and fast-twitch glycolytic (type 2b).

27
Q

Which type of cryotherapy uses conduction for energy transfer?

A

Conduction is a process of transferring thermal energy between 2 entities placed in direct contact with each other, for example cold packs on skin. Convection is a process of using a medium to transfer energy. Examples of convection include the use of husks with fluidotherapy, and the use of water with whirlpool therapy. Vapocoolant sprays are an example of evaporation, not conduction.

28
Q

Which statement is TRUE when comparing a functional restoration program to active individual therapy for chronic low back pain?

A

Functional restoration programs produce a greater improvement in endurance, but no differences are noted between functional restoration programs and active individual therapy programs.

Functional restoration programs produce greater improvements in ENDURANCE than do ACTIVE INDIVIDUAL THERAPY programs

29
Q

What is the effect of treadmill training in Parkinson patients?

A

A 6-week treadmill training program in patients with Parkinson disease showed that the program decreased fall risk, improved quality of life, and improved gait impairments. There was no indication of a reduction of tremors.

30
Q

In contrast to cryotherapy, heat may:

A

Cryotherapy and heating modalities share several therapeutic benefits and therapeutic contraindications. Both heat and cold modalities have some analgesic properties and can be used as adjuvant treatments for pain management. Neither cold nor heat modalities should be used over insensate areas or over areas with decreased vascular supply. Heat modalities may increase edema in the area treated, whereas cold therapy will not lead to increased edema.

31
Q

Ultrasound utilizes the physiologic mechanism of:

A

Conversion is a process of transforming energy to heat; for example, sound transformation with ultrasound. Conduction is a transfer of thermal energy through direct contact; for example, hot packs. Convection is a process of using a medium to transfer energy; for example, fluidotherapy. Evaporation is a process of transforming a liquid to a gas; for example, vapocoolant sprays.

32
Q

A patient has been receiving ultrasound treatments for contractures of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscle. You become concerned about the adequacy of the treatment technique when the patient states that

A

The physician should be concerned if there is a time gap between the ultrasound application and the stretching activity. In order to be effective, the deep heating that is accomplished with the ultrasound application should be combined with a period of prolonged passive stretching, both during and immediately after the ultrasound application. This can be achieved by having the patient stand during the ultrasound application and after it. An appropriate treatment time with ultrasound is 8 to 12 minutes and the patient may experience a transient deep ache in the treatment application area.

33
Q

Performing a seated leg extension exercise is an example of what type of kinetic chain exercise?

A

In open kinetic chain exercises the most distal segment moves around a fixed proximal segment. In closed kinetic chain exercises the proximal segment moves around a fixed distal segment. Static muscle contractions occur when the muscle is contracted but the proximal and distal segments do not move. There are no mixed kinetic chain exercises.

34
Q

According to the American Medical Association Code of Ethics Opinion, which statement is TRUE?

A

According to the AMA Code of Ethics Opinion, individual gifts of minimal value from pharmaceutical representatives to physicians are permissible, so long as the gifts area benefit to patients. It is not acceptable for physicians to request free pharmaceuticals for personal use or use by family members. Subsidies to underwrite the costs of continuing medical education are permissible when they are accepted by the conference’s sponsor and are not provided directly to the physician. It is acceptable for faculty at conferences to accept reasonable honoraria and reimbursement for travel, lodging, and meal expenses.

35
Q

As the medical director of an inpatient rehabilitation program, you become concerned because you have recently noticed an increase in the number of urinary tract infections in the patients on your service. Which action would NOT be considered a reasonable initial management strategy in this scenario?

A

Continuous quality improvement should be a part of each physician’s clinical practice. All of the options listed would be appropriate to consider, with the exception of immediately ordering a urine culture on every patient at the time of admission to the rehabilitation service. This option would not be appropriate without gathering more information and understanding the implications of this intervention strategy.

36
Q

A research study is performed to assess the degree of spasticity experienced by individuals after traumatic brain injury. Spasticity in the gastrocnemius muscle is evaluated in 10 patients using the Modified Ashworth Scale (0–4 scale). Which descriptive statistic is appropriate for summarizing the ordinal data measured with this scale?

A

The appropriate descriptive statistical method used to summarize ordinal data such as the values used in the Modified Ashworth Scale is the median. The median value is defined as the value that occurs in the middle of a set of values. The mean would be used to summarize ratio or interval type of data. The other options listed are not descriptive statistical measures.

37
Q

A clinical trial can best be defined as a:

A

A clinical trial can best be defined as a prospective study comparing the effect and value of an intervention with a control. A study measuring the natural history of a disease process is more observational in nature and can be either prospective or retrospective. Clinical trials are not necessarily randomized or double-blinded. Clinical trials are prospective and not retrospective in nature.

38
Q

The validity of a functional outcome measurement tool is defined as the ability:

A

The validity of a functional outcome measurement tool is defined as the ability of the tool to measure what it is designed to measure. The ability to measure different outcomes simultaneously does not impact the validity of the instrument, but the validity of the tool would need to be established for each of the outcomes being measured. The ability of two different raters to obtain the same conclusion is referred to as inter-rater reliability. Freedom from random error is also related to the reliability of the instrument.

Of the tool to measure what is designed to measure

39
Q

Informed consent documents for participation in research protocols must include language stating:

A

Informed consent documents for participation in research protocols must include the procedures to be used in the study. Informed consent documents must also assure confidentiality of the subjects and outcomes of individuals participating in the research. Informed consent documents must also state that subjects have the right to terminate involvement in the study at any time, even after they have signed the consent document. It must also state that the decision to terminate involvement in the study will not affect the individual’s ongoing medical care. Informed consent documents do not provide information that research results will be shared with the individual subjects.

Procedures to be used in the study

40
Q

Your inpatient rehabilitation unit participates in the Uniform Data System for Functional Independence Measures (UDS-FIM) program by submitting information on the outcomes of all patients treated at your facility. Your unit subsequently receives information back from the UDS-FIM database about how outcomes from your center compare to centers in your geographic region and centers across the nation. This process is referred to as:

A

A benchmark is a target value or standard for comparison for a performance indicator. Functional outcomes and efficiency of functional improvement during inpatient rehabilitation admission are examples of performance indicators. The UDS-FIM database provides a means by which individual rehabilitation units can compare their outcomes to other centers across the nation. This process of comparing outcomes to a standard is referred to as benchmarking