Ethical Pronciples Flashcards
1
Q
The most common nosocomial infection is:
A
urinary tract infection
2
Q
These microorganisms occur as yeasts or molds and can infect the skin, nail beds, and scalp.
A
Fungi
3
Q
Which of the following are involved in the cycle of infection?
(1) Reservoir
(2) Susceptible host
(3) Mode of transmission
A
1, 2 And 3
4
Q
Failing to disinfect the x-ray table or vertical Bucky between patients spreads microorganisms via the ________ route.
A
fomite
5
Q
When taking a radiograph of a patient with a contagious disease, the “dirty” radiographer:
A
positions the patient
6
Q
Nosocomial infections are those that are contracted:
A
Within a hospital
7
Q
A patient placed under airborne precautions requires a bedside chest radiograph. The radiographer must follow Standard Precautions and must don:
A
a particulate respirator
8
Q
Which of the following is considered to be a form of medical asepsis?
A
Hand washing
9
Q
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is caused by.
A
HIV virus
10
Q
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, an inexpensive environmental surface germicide that is effective against HIV is a solution of:
A
1 part sodium hypochlorite (bleach) to 10 parts water
11
Q
Which of the following is an airborne-transmitted pathogen encountered in the health care environment.
A
Tuberculosis
12
Q
The practice of isolating infectious patients from others and carefully controlling items that come in contact with these patients is called:
A
transmission-based precautions
13
Q
Which of the following methods of sterilization is a new and safer method of sterilizing heat- and moisture-sensitive items in hospitals?
A
Gas plasma technology
14
Q
Which type of hepatitis should all health care workers be vaccinated against?
A
Hepatitis B
15
Q
Which of the following may be transmitted via airborne means?
(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Rubeola
(3) Varicella
A
1,2 &3
16
Q
Health care workers occupationally-infected with HIV have been infected most commonly as the result of:
A
needle stick injuries
17
Q
According to the guidelines for Standard Precautions, what should be the first step before entering the room of a patient who is under protective precautions?
A
Perform hand hygiene
18
Q
Standard Precautions are defined as:
A
protective guidelines used to protect against disease transmission
19
Q
Medical asepsis is defined as the total destruction of all pathogens and their spores by chemical means.
A
False
20
Q
Which of the following are practices or procedures of medical asepsis?
(1) Hand hygiene
(2) Proper disposal of contaminated items
(3) Environmental control
A
1,2 & 3
21
Q
How often should the x-ray table be cleaned?
A
After every procedure
22
Q
Contaminated needles and syringes should be discarded in:
A
special puncture-proof biohazard containers
23
Q
The complete removal of all pathogens and spores from equipment used for invasive procedures defines:
A
surgical asepsis
24
Q
Which of the following is a true statement about moist heat sterilization?
A
It is the most efficient and convenient method.
25
The proper method to cleanse the skin for an invasive radiographic procedure is to swab with a sterile antiseptic solution:
in a circular motion from the inside to the outside
26
When opening a sterile kit or package, in which direction is the outermost flap opened?
Away from the body
27
When donning complete sterile attire, which of the following should be put on first, after hand hygiene is complete?
Hair and shoe covers
28
What is the proper method to remove sterile gloves after changing a sterile dressing?
Grasp the outside of the first glove and turn inside out as you remove it.
29
When donning complete sterile attire, which of the following should be put on first, before performing a surgical scrub as hand hygiene?
Hair and shoe covers
30
Which of the following is required when imaging a patient in contact isolation while in the radiology department?
(1) Particulate respirators
(2) Gloves
(3) Gown
2, 3
31
The Center for Disease Control (CDC) most recently recommended which agent(s) for routine decontamination of hands not visibly soiled?
Waterless antiseptic agent
32
What is the best method of interrupting the mode of transmission of organisms?
Using infection prevention and control measures
33
What is the best protection against transmission of bloodborne pathogens?
Adhere to Universal Precautions
34
What is the first action necessary during a decontamination procedure?
Wear clean gloves
35
What is the purpose of an exposure control plan for bloodborne pathogens?
Eliminate or minimize employee exposure
36
When caring for a client who has Hepatitis A, which type of precautions should the nurse use?
Contact precautions
37
Which is the major cause of occupational HIV transmission?
Hypodermic needle
38
Which list contains only body fluids that are important potential sources of HIV, HBV, and HCV infections?
Blood or body fluids containing blod or semen
39
Which of the following incidents is considered an occupational exposure to a bloodborne pathogen?
Respiratory therapist experiences a contaminated needle punture
40
Which of the following is a bloodborne disease?
Hepatitis C
41
Which of the following is a major source of Hepatitis B (HBV)?
Chronic carriers
42
Which of the following is considered a contaminated sharp?
Hypodermic needle
43
Which of the following is the best policy regarding disposal of sharps?
Never recap
44
Which of the following is the most common chronic bloodborne infection in the United States?
HCV
45
Which of the following should the healthcare professional consider to be of greatest priority when implementing infection control measures?
Minimize transmission of orgainisms from reservoir to client
46
Which of the following statements is true regarding CDC guidlines for immunization against HBV (Hep B)?
Recommended for those who come into contact with blood or other potentially infectious body fluids on the job
47
Which regulation has OSHA developed for preventing bloodborne infections?
Universal precautions
48
You are planning to work today as a healthcare professional in a howpital setting. When assessing yourself for signs of non-intact skin, which finding concerns you the most?
Burns on both hands
49
You must use personal protective equipment in which of the following situations?
Performing an oral exam of teeth
50
What is nonverbal communication?
The use of non-vocal means; i.e., using gestures and facial expressions to send messages.
51
The tone and volume of your voice are factors of:
Verbal communications
52
Which of the following must be used carefully in communications in order to avoid misunderstandings?
(1) appropriate grammar
(2) direct eye contact
(3) humor
2 &3
53
Factors that affect nonverbal communications include:
Body language and appearance
54
Which of the following imaging scenarios would present a language barrier to communications?
A chest x-ray on a patient who does not speak the same language as you
55
Which of the following would be the best option to inform an adult patient that you have to perform an acute abdominal series?
"I'm going to take some x-rays on your abdomen. I'll need you to stand for one and lie on your back on the table for another."
56
Which of the following would be the best practice when imaging a patient who is sedated?
Explain the procedure in the same voice tone and manner as you would if the patient were conscious.
57
What is empathy?
The ability to understand and perceive the emotions of others
58
Which of the following is an undesirable communications trait that is defined as an expression of anger and hostility towards others?
Aggression
59
Which of the following are key attitudes in professional communications?
(1) expressing a balance of sympathy and empathy
(2) treating others with respect and kindness
(3) being a good role model
1, 2 and 3
60
Which of the following expressions generally have a negative effect on one's professional attitude?
Rudeness
61
Pet names, such as "Honey," are generally most offensive to:
Geriatric patients
62
Which age group is likely to become combative when afraid?
Toddlers and preschool age
63
Which feedback and listening skill entails verbally expressing the main idea of the message back to the communicator?
Restate
64
What is the purpose of using the "3Rs" during interpersonal communications?
To build rapport and convey listening and understanding
Responding, restating, and reflecting
65
How is observation used in interpersonal communications?
To check for congruency between the patient's verbal responses and nonverbal cues
66
It is acceptable and professional to answer a patient's questions regarding what you see in the images.
False
67
Determining the chief complaint is usually:
The first step in obtaining a patient history.
68
Having a strong religious belief when dealing with loss can often result in:
Increased comfort
69
Which stage of grief is characterized by a recognition of the new reality and the ability to reconnect with others?
Acceptance
70
The principle in medical ethics stating that the information a patient reveals to a health care provider is private and has limits on how and when it can be disclosed to a third party defines:
Confidentiality
71
What is the purpose of HIPAA?
To standardize the exchange of electronic information and protect confidentiality.
72
With which of the following personnel would it be appropriate to discuss a patient's case?
(1) radiologist
(2) attending nurse
(3) referring physician
1, 2, and 3
73
All of the following might be the cause of a fire in a health care facility except:
Grounded electrical plug
74
Which of the following are reasons to use immobilization?
(1) Increase radiation protection
(2) Improve image quality
(3) Reduce risk of imaging motion
1,2,3
75
Which type of fire extinguisher would be used on an electrical fire?
Class C
76
Which of the following is an important consideration when transferring patients who have IV infusions?
Keep the bag or bottle 18 to 20 inches above the insertion site.
77
Chemicals that are stored improperly are of greatest concern as a potential source of fire in imaging departments.
False
78
Which of the following immobilization techniques is most appropriate to aid an elderly patient in keeping their feet inverted for an AP projection of the pelvis?
Sandbags placed on outside of feet
79
Which of the following might cause a safety hazard?
An unsecured extension cord crossing a hallway floor
80
The patient is positioned lying on their left side with the right knee flexed and resting on the table in front of the left leg. Which term describes this position?
Sims
81
You discover the mobile unit emitting a slow, steady stream of smelly smoke. You remove all patients from the hallway and imaging department. What should you do next?
Report the fire using the appropriate method and procedure.
82
After your patient changes into a gown and places his belongings in the garment bag provided by the facility, he lays the bag on a countertop in the x-ray room. Which of the following would be the best response?
Ask the patient to give the bag to his wife for safe keeping.
83
A sweeping motion is the most effective way to use a fire extinguisher.
True
84
Stability of the body is greatest when the line of gravity:
Bisects the base of support
85
Which of the following defines orthostatic hypotension?
A slight drop in blood pressure that occurs with changes in body position from recumbent to upright
86
Which of the following describes the best method to lift and carry an object?
Use a wide base of support and carry the object close to the center of gravity.
87
Which of the following is a method to reduce strain and injury for a radiographer who works trauma frequently?
Take care not to overextend reach when moving equipment and patients.
88
The study of the human body in motion defines:
Kinesiology
89
Which type of transfer is required for patients who are immobile and when there is not sufficient personnel available to assist?
Hydraulic lift
90
Which of the following items in the imaging department would be regulated by OSHA?
Location of eye wash stations
91
All of the following medications might increase the risk of falls except for:
Antihyperlipidemics
92
An accidental spill of a radioactive nuclide occurs in the nuclear medicine lab. Which of the following would be the best practice?
Stay at least 6 feet away from the contaminated area.
93
Ms. Cassie Fletcher, age 63, was admitted to the hospital this morning for some tests to determine what is causing her liver enzymes to be elevated. She is brought to radiology in a wheelchair for an abdominal ultrasound exam. Upon assessment, Ms. Fletcher states she is quite active and other than wearing bifocals and these "silly tests" she has no other health concerns and takes no medications. Which of the following would be the safest transfer method to move her from her wheelchair onto the stretcher for the scan?
Standby assist
94
Which of the following should be performed first before transferring an inpatient?
Checking the patient chart at the nurses' station
95
Which of the following are safety rules regarding patient transfer?
(1) Check all equipment to be used for transfer for proper operation.
(2) Maintain awareness of orthostatic hypotension.
(3) Use good body mechanics.
1, 2, and 3
96
Which of the following might be used to increase comfort when the patient is positioned prone? (1) Placing a support under the flexed knees (2) Placing a radiolucent pad on the table (3) Resting the flexed arms and hands on the table near the head
2 and 3 only
97
Which safety rule is used when a stretcher is in motion and the patient is fully conscious?
The stretcher side rails should be upright and locked.
98
Identify the safety device that would be used with the position depicted in the diagram below.
Shoulder supports
99
Which of the following are rules of electrical safety?
(1) Regular inspection of equipment for worn wiring
(2) Turning off the power source prior to repairs
(3) Using qualified electricians for repairs
1, 2, and 3
100
Which of the following are common immobilization tools for use with pediatric patients? (1) Velcro band (2) Bookends (3) Plexiglass
1, 2, and 3
101
Which of the following are purposes of incident reporting? (1) Identifying potential hazards (2) Helping determine legal liability (3) Assigning blame
1 and 2 only
102
Which of the following injuries are common in imaging professionals?
(1) Repetitive stress injuries
(2) Shoulder strains
(3) Lower back strains
1,2,3
103
Which of the following is an indication of liver failure?
Jaundice skin color
104
A creatinine level above the normal range is a significant indication of:
Impaired renal function
105
A fast heartbeat, usually defined as faster than 100 beats per minute, is termed:
Tachycardia
106
Which of the following are essential components of a patient history?
(1) Previous surgeries
(2) Alleviating factors
(3) Duration of problem
1, 2, and 3
107
What is the normal oral temperature for adults?
98.6 °F
108
Presence of fever, hypertension, and hematuria are all symptoms specific to:
The urinary system
109
What does the diastolic number of a blood pressure measurement measure?
Arterial pressure during relaxation of the heart
110
Which of the following is an example of a closed question that would be relevant to obtaining a patient history for a foot x-ray examination?
Did your doctor tell you why you need your foot x-rayed?"
111
Which of the following tools is used to measure pulse rate?
Palpation of surface artery and second hand on a watch
112
What does abbreviation PRN (prn) mean?
As needed or as necessary
113
Normal systolic blood pressure range for adults is:
110-120 mm Hg
114
Which temperature reading would constitute fever?
102 °F (oral)
115
Which of the following lab values are evaluated prior to invasive imaging procedures?
(1) Platelets
(2) PTT
(3) WBC
1&2
116
Which of the following may be used to assess a patient in pain?
(1) Descriptive terms
(2) Pulse oximetry
(3) A scale of 1-10
1&3
117
What is the normal reference range for INR?
The reference range for INR is 2.0-3.0. INR is used to evaluate clotting ability
118
A patient has a pulse oximetry reading of 102 beats/min and 89% oxygen saturation. What conditions are indicated by these readings?
Hypoxia and tachycardia
119
The normal hemoglobin range for adult females is:
12-16 g/dl
120
Your requisition states that you are to obtain PA and lateral chest projections on your patient. The patient history states "SOB." What does this acronym stand for?
Short of breath
121
While obtaining a patient history, the patient complains of pain. Which of the following would be the best response?
Would you point to where it hurts the most, please?"
122
Iodine is listed as one of the more common drugs to which allergic reactions occur.
True
123
All of the following patient factors can be observed except:
Heart rate
124
As compared to the oral route, the normal body temperature measures slightly lower when obtained rectally.
False
125
Where might you search an inpatient's chart for information on a patient's ability to stand for an imaging procedure?
Nurses' notes on activities
126
Which of the following arteries may be palpated to obtain a pulse?
(1) Femoral
(2) Carotid
(3) Pedal
1, 2,3
127
Mr. Tonymon, a 48-year-old with pain during urination, is scheduled for an excretory urogram. Prior to beginning the procedure, you check his lab values and notice his creatinine level is 2.8 mg/dl. Which of the following statements is true?
This is a high creatinine level for an adult male
128
Which of the following is an indication of liver failure?
Jaundice skin color
129
A creatinine level above the normal range is a significant indication of:
Impaired renal function
130
Which of the following is an indication of liver failure?
Jaundice skin color
131
A fast heartbeat, usually defined as faster than 100 beats per minute, is termed:
Tachycardia
132
Which of the following are essential components of a patient history?
(1) Previous surgeries
(2) Alleviating factors
(3) Duration of problem
1, 2, and 3
133
What is the normal oral temperature for adults?
98.6 °F
134
Which of the following substances is classified as a radiolucent contrast medium?
Air
135
Which of the following contrast agents produce light (white) areas in the radiographic image?
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Barium sulfate
(3) lodine-based
• 2 and 3 only
136
Which radiolucent contrast agent is often preferred because it is more readily absorbed by the body?
Carbon dioxide
137
With the exception of emergency patients, which of the following patients should have priority in the scheduling of imaging procedures?
Patients with diabetes
138
An outpatient is scheduled for a CT of the abdomen without contrast, a fiberoptic colonoscopy exam, and a barium enema (BE to be performed on the same day. Which of the following is the correct sequencing of these exams?
• CT, fiberoptic colonoscopy, BE
139
Which of the following is the most common contrast administration technique for an excretory urogram?
Intravenous
140
After images have been obtained during an excretory urogram, the patient is often required to:
Void into a special strainer
141
Which of the following might be patient preparation for contrast studies of the urinary system?
Bowel cleansing
142
All of the following are common vessels used for venipuncture except:
Femoral vein
143
Which of the following statements is true regarding post-procedure care of a patient who has undergone a T-tube cholangiogram?
The patient is encouraged to increase fluid intake.
144
Contrast studies of the biliary system require the patient to be NPO for several hours prior to the procedure.
True
145
If air is injected during the administration of contrast into the biliary system, there is the possibility:
The air bubbles will simulate stones.
146
If air is injected during the administration of contrast into the biliary system, there is the possibility:
The air bubbles will simulate stones.
147
What is a cathartic?
A drug that stimulates emptying of the bowels
148
Which of the following should be included during the patient education for contrast procedures of the Gl tract?
(1) Details of administration route
(2) Thorough patient history
(3) Cleansing enemas
1 and 2 only
149
If a perforation of the Gl tract is suspected, what type of contrast agent is usually used?
Water-soluble, iodinated
150
All of the following are common post-procedure patient care for a BE except:
Cleansing enemas
151
The radiographic examination of the veins following administration of a contrast medium is termed:
Venography
152
Which of the following procedures commonly are single-contrast studies that use a water-soluble, iodinated medium to demonstrate the anatomy of interest?
(1) Venography
(2) Arteriography
(3) Myelography
• 1, 2, and 3
153
All of the following imaging modalities have reduced the number of radiographic contrast procedures except:
Nuclear medicine
154
Besides the type of contrast agent used, a common feature of myelography and arteriography is the:
Application of strict sterile technique for contrast administration
155
Which of the following is a high-flow method of oxygen administration that does not allow the patient to breathe in their exhaled air?
Nonrebreathing mask
156
A surgical opening into the trachea used to treat obstructive respiratory diseases and provide a mechanism for breathing is a(n):
Tracheostomy
157
While performing a mobile chest procedure, you notice the patient's oxygen tubing is lying across the patient's right lung. Which of the following is the best action?
Move the oxygen tubing out of the lung field to prevent image artifacts.
158
Which of the following are uses for suction?
(1) As treatment for a bleeding ulcer
(2) To remove blood from a trauma patient's airway
(3) To clear an ill patient's airway of mucus or vomitus
1,2, and 3
159
All of the following are true regarding suction administration except:
Sterile gloves should be donned prior to administering suction.
160
A patient on continuous suction is transported to the imaging department with the tube clamped and secured. Which of the following is the next step to provide the best patient care?
Unclamp the tube and connect it to the receptacle for the duration of the imaging procedure.
161
A patient has an NG tube that has been clamped and pinned to his gown. While positioning for a radiograph, you notice the NG tube is in the collimated field. Which of the following is the best option?
Gently unpin the tube and secure it out of the collimated field to avoid causing an artifact.
162
Which of the following tubes is used for temporary feeding?
Dobbhoff
163
Which term denotes blood collected in the pleural space?
Hemothorax
164
Which of the following might be treated with a chest tube?
(1) Empyema
(2) Upper respiratory obstructive disease
(3) Atelectasis
1 and 3 only
165
Where would a chest tube be placed to treat a pneumothorax?
• In the superior, anterior chest wall
166
Which of the following terms is the proper medical term for a chest tube insertion?
Thoracostomy
167
A sterile procedure in which a tube is placed directly into the renal pelvis to drain urine from the kidney is called a:
Nephrostomy
168
Which type of tube used for tissue drainage is secured to the body with a sterile pin?
Penrose
169
Which type of CV line is used for dialysis?
Raaf
170
Which of the following is a rare complication associated with insertion of CV lines?
Cardiac tamponade
171
All of the following can be verified through imaging after a CV line insertion except:
Infection at insertion site
172
Which of the following veins may be used for CV line insertion?
(1) Femoral
(2) Subclavian
(3) Jugular
• 1, 2, and 3
173
Which of the following is a type of CV line used for parenteral feeding?
Hickman
174
Which of the following is a disadvantage of oxygen administration via a simple mask?
Masks interfere with talking and eating and impede patient movement.
175
Which of the following would be found on a crash cart, used for treatment of respiratory emergencies?
Endotracheal tube
176
A patient is brought into the ED on a spine immobilizer and with a cervical collar. The patient states her feet slipped out from under her in the mud and she landed on her behind. Which of the following questions would be the best to assess this patient further?
Do you feel any tingling or numbness in your arms or legs?
177
What is atelectasis?
• A collapsed lung
178
Which of the following drugs is commonly found on an emergency crash cart and is a respiratory stimulant?
Atropine
179
Which of the following are signs and symptoms of an airway obstruction?
• Facial congestion and inability to speak
180
Which of the following is a common imaging modality in cases of abdominal trauma?
Ст
181
Which of the following is commonly used to treat an asthma attack?
© A rescue inhaler containing a bronchodilator medication
182
All of the following increase the risk of respiratory emergency except:
Sinus infection
183
Which of the following statements is true regarding performing the technique to clear an airway obstruction on a conscious patient?
The rescuer stands behind the patient and wraps their arms around to deliver the thrusts upward at the midline of the abdomen.
184
The best method to handle a patient's limb when there is a suspicion of fracture is to:
Obtain help to support the limb at the joints both proximal and distal to the injury to reduce the risk of exacerbation.
185
Which type of seizure is characterized by body jerks and shaking?
Tonic-clonic
186
What is the purpose of emergency codes?
• To facilitate communications in emergencies without alarming the public
187
The acronym FAST is used to designate symptoms of:
Stroke
188
What is the medical term for a nosebleed?
Epistaxis
189
Stroke is caused by two types of conditions in the brain, which are:
Ischemia or hemorrhage
190
Which type of diabetic emergency occurs due to excessively high blood sugar?
Diabetic ketoacidosis
191
Which of the following medications is commonly ordered by the physician when a patient has a moderate (intermediate) reaction to contrast media?
Benadryl
192
Crushing chest pain that radiates down the left arm is the cardinal symptom of:
MI
193
Which of the following may exhibit symptoms of nausea and/or vomiting?
Head injuries
194
What is an acute myocardial infarction?
© Heart attack
195
Which of the following must be constantly assessed when imaging a patient who has suffered chest trauma?
Respirations and level of consciousness
196
Angina pectoris is characterized by symptoms of:
Burning or tingling sensation in the chest
197
Pallor is:
Paleness or a lack of skin color
198
Initiation of CPR is usually the first response to:
Cardiac arrest
199
What is shock?
A general term used to describe a life-threatening condition that occurs due to a marked decline in oxygen perfusion of vital tissues and an accumulation of metabolic by-products in the system
200
Dyspnea, cyanosis, confusion, and drowsiness are all symptoms of:
Respiratory failure
201
Which type of shock may result from a cardiac tamponade?
Cardiogenic
202
A patient experiences vomiting after a contrast media injection. This reaction is classified as:
Mild
203
A patient suffers a spinal cord injury at the level of C5. Which type of shock is of concern?
Neurogenic
204
A patient, suspected of having a head injury, does not open her eyes or respond verbally to cues, and the motor response is flaccid. The Glasgow Coma Scale for this patient would be:
3
205
Pallor, tachycardia, tachypnea, and decreased blood pressure are symptoms of:
Shock
206
Free air located in the thoracic cavity is termed:
Pneumothorax
207
Which level is used to designate the most extensive emergency services that are available?
Level I
208
Which of the following are symptoms of a head injury?
(1) Pallor
(2) Bradycardia
(3) Irritability
2 & 3
209
Burns that cause blisters and swelling are usually classified as:
Second-degree
210
The medical term for dizziness is:
Vertigo
211
When a patient has an open wound, images should be obtained:
D) With the sterile dressing in place to avoid contamination.
212
Which branch of law addresses wrongs committed against the state?
Criminal
213
The body of written laws developed and defined by the legislature is:
Statutory law
214
All of the following sensitive patient information is to only be released by the health information department of the health care facility except for:
Radiologists' dictation reports on imaging procedures
215
Which of the following might be a penalty for a violation of an administrative law?
(1) License suspension
(2) License revocation
(3) Community service
• 1 and 2 only
216
Which of the following are exceptions to confidentiality and may be reported without patient consent?
(1) Certain wounds
(2) Automobile accidents
(3) Birth defects
• 1, 2, and 3
217
A technologist is overheard calling a patient a "cranky, crazy old coot" by one of the patient's family members. This statement might result in a(n)…
tort claim of …
quasi-intentional; slander
218
A threat to harm another is termed:
Assault
219
All of the following are criteria used for the legal use of patient restraints except fort
Restraints should be left in place until the patient is released from the care of the health care team.
220
All of the following procedures would require a signed informed consent except for:
Emergency chest tube placement to treat a collapsed lung for a victim of a car accident
221
Which of the following must occur to claim negligence?
(1) A breach of the duty of reasonable care
(2) A resultant injury from the duty breach
(3) Proof of intent to injure
1 &2
222
Documentation of informed consent on the proper forms with the required signatures is:
One of the ways to reduce legal liability.
223
A patient is left alone on an imaging table while the technologist checks image quality. The patient feels nauseous, so he turns to vomit and rolls off of the table. Which of the following might result from this situation?
Negligence
224
Which of the following legal doctrines are often applied together when a clinician is negligent while under the supervision of a physician?
(1) Respondeat superior
(2) Res ipsa loquitur
(3) Doctrine of borrowed servant
• 1 and 3 only
225
The phase of the lawsuit that involves the case being brought before a judge and/or a jury for a decision is termed the …
phase.
Trial
226
You are a trauma radiographer for a major medical center. One of the emergency physicians that you often work with has just received news that the family of a patient who died in the ER last week has filed a lawsuit against the entire hospital. Which legal doctrine did the family use as the basis for their claim?
• The doctrine of corporate responsibility
227
Which of the following will help prevent malpractice claims?
Being competent in your profession and compliant with all policies and procedures
228
Which of the following means "let the master answer"?
Respondeat superior
229
What does the acronym HIPAA mean?
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
230
Confidentiality is defined as:
The ethical principle or legal right that requires health care employees to hold secret all information relating to a patient, unless the patient gives consent permitting disclosure.
231
A serious criminal offense is termed a:
Felony
232
Violations of HIPAA rules for improper disclosure of private medical information can only be penalized with a fine of less than $1,000.
False
233
It is an extremely busy day in the imaging department, so many registered technologists, including Natasha, are helping out in records, scheduling and transporting of patients. While passing by the temporarily unoccupied reception desk, Natasha hears the fax machine printing. She notes that document contains patient information. Natasha retrieves the page from the machine and puts into an envelope, stamps it as "confidential," and places the envelope on the radiologist's desk. Which of the following statements is true regarding Natasha's actions?
• Natasha's actions were appropriate since she took confidential information out of plain sight and delivered it to the intended recipient.
234
Which of the following would be required when obtaining informed consent for an imaging procedure?
(1) Consent provided voluntarily without coercion
(2) A description of risks and benefits
(3) Signature of patient or authorized representative
1,2&3
235
Implied consent may be used in place of informed consent for all of the following situations except when:
• The procedure is an FDA-approved treatment for the condition.
236
A civil wrong in which liability is based on unreasonable conduct defines:
Tort
237
What is the purpose of the Patient Care Partnership?
• To inform patients of their rights and responsibilities regarding their health care
238
Which of the following would be included on the chart of a patient who had a lumbar myelogram procedure?
(1) Type of contrast
(2) Technical factors used
(3) Amount of contrast administered
1 &3
239
Incident reports are valuable for:
Identifying high-risk or problem areas
240
The belief that one race is superior over all others defines:
Racism
241
Which of the following activities would help in the development of cultural competency?
(1) Making friends with a person from another country or race
(2) Attending a seminar about local immigrants' native healing beliefs and practices
(3) Attending a holiday celebration native to another culture
1,2,3
242
Which core value of human rights law provides for the right of persons with disability to have self-directed actions and behaviors?
Autonomy
243
The belief that the norms and values of one culture are better and the only ones that are acceptable defines:
Ethnocentrism
244
You overhear one of your co-workers, who does not appear to be of a different ethnicity, carrying on a conversation with a patient in another language. After both of your shifts end, you ask your co-worker to join you for coffee. During your conversation, you find out that his parents are first-generation immigrants to this country. Your invitation and conversation is an example of:
Dynamic cultural interaction
245
Assimilation is defined as:
The process of giving up original cultural characteristics and identity to merge into another culture
246
Which of the following are core values of human rights law?
(1) Equality
(2) Solidarity
(3) Autonomy
1,2,3
247
Which of the following statements about personal bias is true?
Bias can interfere with quality of patient care.
248
Patients from a particular culture might view health as a reward and illness as punishment. This would be an example of human diversity in the area of:
Views on health and illness
249
Persons who are oriented by their culture to value traditions of the past might be very resistant to:
New technology or procedures
250
Unique physical characteristics such as straight dark hair and almond-shaped eyes are an example of:
Genetic differences
251
Which of the following ethnic groups have spirituality as a core value?
(1) African-American
(2) Native American
(3) U.S. mainstream
1,2
252
One of the cafeteria workers suggests serving Chinese and Taiwanese cuisine and decorating the hospital with kites on the Double Ninth Day holiday.
The suggestion is ignored by the cafeteria supervisor who also criticizes the suggestion in a public manner. What is your impression of this supervisor?
Cultural competency is not being practiced at all levels in the facility.
253
You are aware of several Mexican-American patients in the elderly assisted-living facility in which you work. Which of the following would be a good activity to help promote cultural competency in the facility?
(1) Invite a comedian to entertain the residents.
(2) Celebrate Cinco de Mayo.
(3) Invite a mariachi band to entertain the residents.
2,3
254
You are a 32-year-old male radiographer whose next patient is Mrs. Dianne Denton, a 29-year-old female. Mrs. Denton is scheduled for a hysterosalpingogram, which is a contrast study of the uterus and uterine tubes. After you greet Mrs. Denton and explain the procedure, she hesitantly asks for you to leave the room during the procedure. Mrs. Denton's response might be interpreted as:
Gender bias
255
Dr. John Gregory is credited with:
The first English-language book written on biomedical ethics.
256
What is the last step of Dowd's problem-solving technique presented in Module 6, Section 5?
Analysis of the outcome
257
Which of the following would be a violation of the Code of Ethics of our profession?
Talking about a friend's imaging procedure to a mutual friend who is the cashier in the hospital gift shop
258
Which historical figure in medical ethics is widely considered as the greatest American philosopher?
John Rawls
259
Which core value is defined as a commitment to completion?
Promise keeping
260
While working with patients, you tend to view each as uninformed, less educated, and child-like; therefore, you probably make ethical decisions based on the …
model.
Paternal/priestly
261
Which of the following describes the work of Lawrence Kohlberg?
Developmental stages of moral reasoning
262
Which of the following pairs were teacher and pupil who worked together in their contributions to ethics?
Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill
263
Which of the seven principles of biomedical ethics deals with performance of good acts?
Beneficience
264
Whistle-blowing is the term used to denote the act oft
Reporting ethical violations
265
Which prima face duty and biomedical ethical principle deals with telling the truth?
Duty: Fidelity; Biomedical ethical principle: Veracity
266
Parents must decide whether to put their child on a ventilator to keep her alive until she heals more. There is every reason to believe that the child will recover completely, but she requires the assistance of a ventilator for the time being. The parents' religious beliefs are that life and death are to be left to God's will, and death should not be delayed, nor life sustained, by technological means. If the parents decide against the use of a ventilator, then their decision is based on:
Deontology
267
What is another name for the consequentialism ethical theory?
Teleology
268
Criteria to assess the areas of clinical performance, quality performance, and professional performance are found in the:
ASRT Practice Standards
269
A radiologist asks about a procedure in which an error in imaging was made. She is visibly upset. You realize that you performed the procedure, but you are afraid of the consequences. If you do not admit your error and take responsibility for it, you will be violating the core value of:
Accountability
270
Which ethical decision-making theory is based solely on one's beliefs and morals?
Deontology
271
Which ethical decision-making model is defined as one in which the provider and patient interact as business partners, each with rights and responsibilities, in the agreement for care?
Contractual
272
Which of the following laws protect persons who report ethical violations?
(1) First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution
(2) Occupational Health and Safety Act (OSHA)
(3) Consumer Assurance of Radiologic Excellence (CARE) Bill
1,2
273
Which of the following ethical theories considers both the potential outcomes as well as personal beliefs in the decision-making process?
• Virtue ethics
274
The process of sorting injured people into groups based on need for or likely benefit from immediate medical treatment defines:
Triage
275
The term for a predetermined (usually written) choice made to inform the health care treatment wishes of the patient should he/she become incompetent is:
• Advance directive
276
Which distribution allocation group considers who pays for the entire budget of health care services?
Macro-allocation
277
Which distribution theory views health care as a basic right that is a social good rather than as a financial good?
Rights theory of justice
278
All of the following organs can be transplanted except for the:
brain
279
Which of the following are considered to be life-sustaining treatments?
(1) Feeding tube
(2) Ventilator
(3) Blood pressure maintenance drugs
1,2,3
280
Patient effort is the distribution decision-making criterion based on the patient's:
Willingness or ability to comply with medical advice
281
Imaging professionals should only study the technology in the area in which they practice and are employed.
False
282
During a code, a patient fails to respond to all resuscitation efforts. The ECG shows asystole. The patient is not making voluntary respiratory efforts.
The physician calls the code and declares the patient dead. Does this patient meet the legal definition of death?
Yes
283
Which of the following issues in health care may create ethical dilemmas for imaging professionals?
(1) Reproduction assistance technology
(2) Fusion imaging
(3) Stem cell research
1,3
284
A no-code order that would prohibit initiation of CPR on a patient who stops breathing is termed:
DNR
285
Which of the following health care professionals is authorized to make a formal declaration of death?
Physician
286
Which term applies to a patient who refuses treatment, despite the fact that doing so will lead to death?
Passive suicide
287
Which of the following employees would be required to receive training according to the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)?
High school coach
Respiratory therapist
Computer programmer
Elementary school teacher
Respiratory Therapist
