Ethan Flashcards

1
Q

Front

A

Back

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2
Q

What is the study of abnormal physiological processes in the body?

A

Pathophysiology.

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3
Q

What term refers to the study of how drugs affect the body, including side effects and interactions?

A

Pharmacology.

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4
Q

What condition involves severe muscle rigidity, fever, altered mental status due to antipsychotic use?

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS).

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5
Q

What term refers to the process of brain and nervous system development throughout life?

A

Neurodevelopment.

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6
Q

Which field focuses on the structure of the brain and its components?

A

Neuroanatomy.

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7
Q

What term refers to the study of how electrical activity in the brain impacts function?

A

Neurophysiology.

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8
Q

Advanced pathophysiology helps explain the relationship between abnormal processes and what?

A

Disease symptoms and progression.

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9
Q

What is the primary concern when prescribing medications in advanced pharmacology?

A

Identifying contraindications, drug interactions, and potential adverse effects.

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10
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition associated with antipsychotic medications.

A

True.

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11
Q

How does pharmacokinetics differ from pharmacodynamics?

A

Pharmacokinetics involves drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion; pharmacodynamics focuses on drug effects on the body.

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12
Q

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are side effects commonly associated with ____.

A

Antipsychotic medications.

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13
Q

Advanced psychopharmacology includes understanding the interactions of drugs with the ____.

A

Central nervous system.

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14
Q

How can a genetic predisposition influence a patient’s response to psychiatric medications?

A

Through gene-drug interactions, which can affect drug efficacy and the risk of adverse effects.

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15
Q

What role does neuroanatomy play in understanding mental health disorders?

A

It helps identify how changes in brain structures contribute to psychiatric conditions.

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16
Q

Neurodevelopment refers to the growth and development of the brain from childhood to adulthood.

A

True.

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17
Q

What is one key concept in neurophysiology related to mental health?

A

The electrical activity of neurons and how it affects mood and behavior.

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18
Q

Advanced pharmacology involves studying how drugs interact with the body at the level of ____.

A

Receptors and enzymes.

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19
Q

How does understanding advanced pathophysiology assist in diagnosing psychiatric conditions?

A

It helps to identify how underlying biological processes contribute to symptoms and guide treatment.

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20
Q

What is the primary function of neurotransmitters in neurophysiology?

A

To transmit signals between neurons, affecting mood and cognitive functions.

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21
Q

Psychogenomics examines the genetic factors that influence a person’s response to medication.

A

True.

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22
Q

How do medications used in advanced psychopharmacology interact with the central nervous system?

A

They alter neurotransmitter activity to achieve therapeutic effects and influence mood or cognition.

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23
Q

The study of neuroanatomy is important in understanding ____, which are critical for psychiatric disorders.

A

Brain structures.

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24
Q

What are the potential risks of combining certain medications in advanced pharmacology?

A

Drug interactions that can lead to toxic effects, reduced efficacy, or side effects.

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25
Q

Advanced physical assessment skills are crucial for accurately diagnosing and monitoring psychiatric conditions.

A

True.

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26
Q

How does advanced pathophysiology help identify treatment targets for psychiatric disorders?

A

By understanding the underlying biological processes, clinicians can target specific pathways with treatments.

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27
Q

What is neurodevelopment’s role in understanding the onset of psychiatric disorders?

A

It helps explain how abnormal development of the brain can lead to mental health issues.

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28
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is characterized by high fever, rigidity, altered mental status, and ____.

A

Autonomic dysfunction.

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29
Q

Psychogenomics includes the study of heritability and its impact on mental health.

A

True.

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30
Q

How does neurophysiology contribute to our understanding of mental health treatment?

A

By exploring how neural activity affects mood regulation and cognitive function.

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31
Q

What impact do adverse effects have on psychopharmacology treatment plans?

A

They may require dosage adjustments, alternative medications, or additional treatments to mitigate harm.

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32
Q

The role of neurotransmitters in mental health is central to understanding both mood regulation and ____.

A

Cognitive function.

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33
Q

How can knowledge of advanced pharmacology influence the management of psychiatric medications?

A

By guiding the selection of medications based on their pharmacokinetics, side effects, and interactions.

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34
Q

Neurodevelopment is a field of study that is limited to early childhood.

A

False. It spans childhood, adolescence, and adulthood.

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35
Q

How do side effects like extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) affect patient adherence to antipsychotic treatment?

A

They can cause discomfort or distress, leading patients to discontinue their medications.

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36
Q

What is the goal of advanced physical assessment in psychiatric practice?

A

To obtain a comprehensive understanding of the patient’s physical health and any related psychiatric concerns.

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37
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) can be caused by ____.

A

Antipsychotic medications.

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38
Q

How does psychogenomics influence the personalized treatment of psychiatric disorders?

A

By tailoring medications and interventions based on genetic predispositions for better outcomes.

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39
Q

What is the study of gene-drug interactions and how genetic makeup affects drug response?

A

Psychogenomics.

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40
Q

What is the process of evaluating physical health, including systems like cardiovascular, respiratory, etc.?

A

Advanced physical assessment.

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41
Q

What class of medications is used to treat psychotic disorders by altering neurotransmitter activity?

A

Antipsychotics.

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42
Q

What is the study of medications used to treat psychiatric disorders, focusing on their effects?

A

Psychopharmacology.

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43
Q

What condition causes involuntary muscle movements, tremors, and stiffness as a side effect of antipsychotic drugs?

A

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).

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44
Q

What field studies how psychiatric medications interact with genetic factors in patients?

A

Psychogenomics.

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45
Q

What term involves the study of the brain’s molecular and cellular mechanisms in relation to behavior?

A

Neurophysiology.

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46
Q

What study involves brain structure related to behavior and mental health disorders?

A

Neuroanatomy.

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47
Q

What term refers to disorders affecting the brain and nervous system, such as cognitive or motor dysfunctions?

A

Neurodevelopmental disorders.

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48
Q

What condition causes life-threatening fever, rigidity, autonomic dysfunction due to antipsychotic use?

A

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS).

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49
Q

How do genetic differences influence the response to psychiatric medications in patients?

A

Psychogenomics.

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50
Q

What are the involuntary symptoms, such as tremors, caused by antipsychotics and how are they treated?

A

Extrapyramidal Symptoms (EPS), treated with anticholinergics or dosage adjustment.

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51
Q

What study focuses on genetic variations affecting how patients respond to psychiatric treatments?

A

Psychogenomics.

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52
Q

How do pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics influence psychiatric drug treatment in patients?

A

Psychopharmacology.

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53
Q

What term refers to the study of how medications interact, their effects, adverse reactions, and drug interactions?

A

Pharmacology.

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54
Q

How do neurotransmitters and neural pathways relate to psychiatric disorders in neuroanatomy?

A

Neuroanatomy helps identify brain areas affected by disorders like depression or schizophrenia.

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55
Q

What role does physical assessment play in identifying psychiatric conditions or co-occurring medical conditions?

A

It helps assess physical health and detect conditions affecting mental health.

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56
Q

How do psychiatric medications interact with the nervous system to alter behaviors and mood?

A

Psychopharmacology.

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57
Q

How do we assess a patient’s neuroanatomy and neurophysiology in relation to mental health disorders?

A

Through imaging, EEG, and assessment of neural function.

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58
Q

How does neurophysiology contribute to understanding cognitive and mental health, including brain electrical activity?

A

It explains brain activity related to psychiatric symptoms.

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59
Q

How do developmental processes in the brain impact mental health across the lifespan?

A

Neurodevelopmental factors shape cognitive and emotional function over time.

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60
Q

What advanced assessment techniques identify signs of neurological or psychiatric conditions?

A

Physical examination, neurological testing, and mental health evaluations.

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61
Q

What are common adverse effects of antipsychotics and how are they managed?

A

EPS, treated with anticholinergics, dose reduction, or switching medications.

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62
Q

How do pharmacology principles apply to selecting the right psychiatric medications based on interactions and contraindications?

A

Through careful drug choice to minimize adverse interactions and maximize effectiveness.

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63
Q

How do pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics explain the actions and side effects of psychiatric drugs?

A

They describe how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and their biological effects.

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64
Q

How does genetic information influence drug efficacy and side effects in psychiatric treatments?

A

Through psychogenomics, which tailors treatments based on genetic variations.

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65
Q

What key neuroanatomy and neurophysiology concepts help clinicians understand psychiatric disorders?

A

Brain structure, function, and neural circuits involved in mood, behavior, and cognition.

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66
Q

What interview technique involves using open-ended questions and focusing on the patient’s perspective?

A

Clinical interviewing.

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67
Q

What term refers to strategies used to promote health and prevent disease in a community?

A

Health promotion and disease prevention.

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68
Q

What mental health screening tool assesses symptoms of depression and their severity?

A

PHQ-9.

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69
Q

What mental health assessment tool is commonly used to screen for anxiety symptoms in adults?

A

GAD-7.

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70
Q

What term refers to a detailed psychiatric examination to evaluate a patient’s mental state?

A

Mental status exam.

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71
Q

What is the process of assessing and managing emergencies such as suicidal or homicidal ideation?

A

Psychiatric emergency management.

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72
Q

What educational method involves delivering information to patients to help them understand their mental health condition?

A

Psychoeducation.

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73
Q

What is the approach of focusing on an individual’s strengths and resilience to aid recovery?

A

Recovery and resilience promotion.

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74
Q

What process involves assessing potential harm, self-harm, or other risks a patient may present?

A

Risk assessment.

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75
Q

What tool is used to assess alcohol consumption patterns and possible alcohol use disorders?

A

AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test).

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76
Q

What tool screens for substance use issues, especially in relation to drug abuse?

A

DAST (Drug Abuse Screening Test).

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77
Q

What is the primary focus of motivational interviewing during clinical interviews?

A

Encouraging patients to explore their own motivations for change.

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78
Q

What technique helps patients increase their readiness to change unhealthy behaviors?

A

Motivational interviewing.

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79
Q

What interview method involves assessing verbal and non-verbal communication to understand a patient’s condition?

A

Clinical interviewing.

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80
Q

The primary goal of clinical interviewing is to gather information for ____________ and treatment planning.

A

diagnosis

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81
Q

Clinical interviewing is primarily about building a therapeutic relationship, not just collecting information.

A

t

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82
Q

How do open-ended questions enhance the clinical interview process?

A

They encourage patients to elaborate, providing more insight into their experiences and concerns.

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83
Q

____________ communication involves body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice.

A

Nonverbal

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84
Q

What is the purpose of motivational interviewing?

A

To help patients explore and resolve ambivalence about change, increasing their motivation for behavioral change.

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85
Q

Motivational interviewing is most effective when the clinician takes an authoritative role.

A
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86
Q

Health promotion strategies aim to reduce the risk of ____________ and improve overall well-being.

A

disease

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87
Q

What does the GAD-7 tool assess?

A

It assesses the severity of anxiety symptoms.

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88
Q

Health promotion models are applicable only to physical health, not mental health.

A
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89
Q

A patient seems confused and disoriented, unable to answer simple questions. Which assessment tool would you use to evaluate their cognitive function?

A

Mental Status Exam

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90
Q

How does the PHQ-9 help clinicians in treatment planning?

A

It helps assess the severity of depression, guiding treatment decisions.

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91
Q

A low score on the PHQ-9 means no treatment is needed for depression.

A
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92
Q

A high score on the GAD-7 indicates a ____________ severity of anxiety.

A

higher

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93
Q

What should be the first step in managing a psychiatric emergency involving suicidal ideation?

A

Ensure the patient’s safety by creating a safe environment and assessing for immediate risks.

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94
Q

A patient is in crisis, expressing a desire to harm others. What is the first step in managing the situation?

A

Perform a risk assessment to determine the level of threat and take appropriate action.

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95
Q

____________ involves helping patients understand their diagnosis and treatment options through education.

A

Psychoeducation

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96
Q

How does psychoeducation benefit patients with mental health conditions?

A

It empowers patients with the knowledge to manage their conditions effectively and make informed decisions.

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97
Q

Psychoeducation should only be provided after a formal diagnosis.

A
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98
Q

A patient asks for information about their treatment options for depression. What should the clinician provide?

A

Psychoeducation tailored to the patient’s needs, including treatment options, side effects, and the importance of adherence.

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99
Q

Recovery and resilience promotion helps patients build ____________ to cope with mental health challenges.

A

resilience

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100
Q

What does a risk assessment evaluate in a psychiatric setting?

A

The likelihood of harm to self or others, including suicide or violent behavior.

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101
Q

Risk assessments only need to be conducted once during a patient’s treatment.

A
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102
Q

The ____________ tool is used to screen for alcohol use disorders.

A

AUDIT

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103
Q

A patient reports excessive drinking, and you suspect alcohol dependence. Which screening tool would be appropriate?

A

AUDIT

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104
Q

How do you interpret a high score on the DAST tool?

A

It indicates a significant level of drug use, requiring further evaluation and intervention.

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105
Q

The CIWA scale helps assess the severity of ____________ withdrawal symptoms.

A

alcohol

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106
Q

The COWS scale is used to assess opioid withdrawal symptoms.

A

t

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107
Q

What is the role of motivational interviewing when assessing readiness for change in a patient?

A

To help patients explore their ambivalence and increase motivation for change.

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108
Q

A patient appears reluctant to start treatment for depression despite acknowledging symptoms. What technique would you use to address their ambivalence?

A

Motivational interviewing to explore their concerns and enhance motivation for treatment.

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109
Q

A mental status exam includes assessments of ____________, mood, and thought processes.

A

cognition

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110
Q

The mental status exam is only used to diagnose psychiatric conditions.

A
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111
Q

What is the purpose of using a structured mental status exam in psychiatric assessments?

A

To assess cognitive, emotional, and behavioral functioning in a systematic way.

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112
Q

When assessing suicidal ideation, it is crucial to ask direct questions about thoughts of ____________.

A

self-harm

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113
Q

A patient is becoming agitated and threatening harm to others. What immediate action should be taken?

A

Assess the risk of violence, ensure safety, and initiate appropriate interventions.

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114
Q

How does the COWS scale assist in opioid withdrawal management?

A

It evaluates the severity of withdrawal symptoms to guide appropriate pharmacological treatment.

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115
Q

Clinical interviewing techniques should always be adapted based on the patient’s cultural background.

A

t

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116
Q

What is the benefit of cultural competence in clinical interviewing?

A

It helps build rapport and ensures the patient’s needs and beliefs are respected during the assessment.

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117
Q

A patient expresses fear of being stigmatized for their mental health condition. What should the clinician do to address this concern?

A

Provide reassurance, validate their feelings, and ensure a nonjudgmental, safe environment.

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118
Q

Psychoeducation can be delivered in a variety of formats, such as individual counseling, ____________, or group therapy.

A

workshops

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119
Q

Recovery and resilience promotion involves encouraging patients to avoid challenging situations.

A
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120
Q

What are key components of a psychiatric emergency management plan for patients with homicidal ideation?

A

Immediate safety assessment, securing the environment, and initiating crisis intervention or hospitalization.

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121
Q

A patient in withdrawal from alcohol is showing symptoms of agitation and tremors. What scale would you use to assess the severity of their withdrawal?

A

CIWA

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122
Q

What health promotion strategy focuses on educating communities to prevent physical and mental health issues?

A

Health education and community programs.

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123
Q

What are the key components of the Mental Status Exam (MSE)?

A

Appearance, behavior, mood, speech, cognition, insight, and judgment.

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124
Q

How do you select the appropriate mental health screening tool for a patient?

A

Based on presenting symptoms, age, and condition.

125
Q

What role does nonverbal communication play in clinical interviewing?

A

It helps assess emotional state and builds rapport with the patient.

126
Q

What mental health screening tool is used to assess ADHD symptoms in children?

A

Vanderbilt ADHD Rating Scale.

127
Q

What approach in clinical interviewing helps build rapport and trust with patients?

A

Open-ended questions.

128
Q

How do clinicians select screening tools for patients with substance use concerns?

A

By choosing tools based on the substance and severity of use.

129
Q

What are the key principles behind motivational interviewing for patients with substance use issues?

A

Empathy, collaboration, and focusing on the patient’s own motivation for change.

130
Q

What is the DSM-5-TR?

A

A diagnostic manual used for mental health disorders.

131
Q

The DSM-5-TR is a diagnostic manual used to diagnose mental health disorders based on specific criteria.

132
Q

The DSM-5-TR includes guidelines for diagnosing only psychiatric conditions, not medical conditions.

133
Q

How does the DSM-5-TR help clinicians in the diagnosis of mental health disorders?

A

It provides standardized criteria for diagnosis.

134
Q

What are complementary treatments in mental health care?

A

Treatments that supplement conventional medical treatment, like acupuncture or herbal remedies.

135
Q

Complementary treatments can include practices such as ______, acupuncture, and herbal medicine.

136
Q

Complementary treatments are always scientifically proven to be effective.

137
Q

How do complementary and alternative treatments differ in terms of evidence-based research?

A

Complementary treatments may have some evidence; alternative treatments often lack scientific support.

138
Q

What are some examples of alternative therapies that might be considered for mental health conditions?

A

Meditation, acupuncture, aromatherapy.

139
Q

What role do complementary treatments play in a patient’s overall treatment plan?

A

They can provide additional support alongside conventional treatments.

140
Q

What is the purpose of diagnostic and laboratory test selection?

A

To accurately identify and confirm a diagnosis.

141
Q

Diagnostic tests help to rule out ______ and identify the correct diagnosis.

A

Other conditions

142
Q

Laboratory test results always directly lead to a diagnosis without requiring clinical judgment.

143
Q

In what situations would you use a diagnostic test to confirm a mental health disorder?

A

When symptoms are unclear or could be caused by multiple disorders.

144
Q

What are some common diagnostic tests used in psychiatry?

A

Blood tests, neuroimaging (MRI, CT), EEG.

145
Q

What factors should be considered when selecting a laboratory test for a diagnosis?

A

Patient symptoms, medical history, cost, and availability.

146
Q

What does differential diagnosis mean in the context of psychiatry?

A

A process of ruling out other possible disorders to identify the correct one.

147
Q

Differential diagnosis involves comparing a patient’s symptoms with those of similar ______ to find the correct diagnosis.

148
Q

A differential diagnosis is a list of possible conditions that might explain a patient’s symptoms.

149
Q

What steps should a clinician take when making a differential diagnosis?

A

Gather patient history, conduct tests, rule out conditions.

150
Q

In what situations might you change a diagnosis after considering differential diagnoses?

A

If new symptoms or test results suggest a different condition.

151
Q

What is evidence-based practice in relation to medication dosing?

A

Using scientific research to guide medication dosage.

152
Q

Evidence-based practice involves making treatment decisions based solely on personal clinical experience.

153
Q

How do off-label medication uses fit into evidence-based practice?

A

Off-label use involves medications prescribed for conditions not specifically approved by the FDA, based on research or clinical evidence.

154
Q

What is the importance of psychotherapy selection in evidence-based practice?

A

Ensures that patients receive the most effective form of therapy based on their needs.

155
Q

What are the key considerations when selecting psychopharmacotherapy?

A

Patient history, side effects, drug interactions, and efficacy.

156
Q

Psychopharmacotherapy management involves regular ______ to ensure that the medication is effective and well-tolerated.

A

Monitoring

157
Q

What are some common methods for monitoring the effectiveness of psychopharmacotherapy?

A

Regular follow-ups, blood tests, patient feedback.

158
Q

Psychopharmacotherapy should always be adjusted based on patient feedback and side effects.

159
Q

What is the difference between psychopharmacotherapeutic and pharmacotherapeutic management?

A

Psychopharmacotherapy refers to psychiatric medication management; pharmacotherapy is broader, covering all types of medications.

160
Q

How can psychopharmacotherapy be tailored to meet individual patient needs?

A

By adjusting medications based on the patient’s response, side effects, and medical history.

161
Q

What factors must be considered when selecting pharmacotherapy for a patient with a mental health condition?

A

Age, medical history, co-occurring conditions, and the potential for side effects.

162
Q

How do medication monitoring and adjustments improve patient outcomes in pharmacotherapeutic management?

A

Monitoring ensures effectiveness and reduces adverse effects, leading to better patient adherence and outcomes.

163
Q

What technique involves assessing risk factors related to suicide or self-harm in patients?

A

Risk assessment.

164
Q

What is the role of psychoeducation in managing mental health disorders?

A

To empower patients with knowledge about their condition and treatment.

165
Q

What emergency management strategy is used when a patient expresses suicidal thoughts?

A

Immediate safety measures, risk assessment, and support.

166
Q

What is the purpose of a Mental Status Exam in psychiatric evaluations?

A

To assess cognitive and emotional functioning.

167
Q

What is involved in conducting an effective psychiatric emergency intervention for homicidal ideation?

A

Ensure safety, assess intent, provide immediate care, and involve appropriate authorities.

168
Q

What health promotion model is effective in preventing mental health issues across communities?

A

Community-based interventions and public health strategies.

169
Q

What tool can help assess withdrawal symptoms from alcohol or opiates in patients?

A

CIWA (Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol) and COWS (Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale).

170
Q

How do motivational interviewing techniques help in managing patients’ mental health conditions?

A

It fosters patient autonomy in decision-making and behavioral change.

171
Q

How do health promotion strategies impact chronic illness prevention?

A

By improving lifestyle choices and providing education on early intervention.

172
Q

What tool is designed to measure the severity of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

A

CIWA (Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol).

173
Q

How does the Mental Status Exam evaluate a patient’s cognitive function and mental state?

A

Through observation of speech, thought process, mood, and perception.

174
Q

How can clinical interviewing techniques improve patient outcomes in mental health?

A

By creating a safe space for the patient to express concerns and build rapport.

175
Q

What is the purpose of substance use screening tools like AUDIT and DAST?

A

To assess the risk and severity of substance use disorders.

176
Q

What are the key aspects of health promotion for mental wellness?

A

Education, lifestyle changes, stress management, and social support.

177
Q

How does the recovery model help in managing patients with mental health disorders?

A

Focuses on personal strengths, community support, and ongoing recovery.

178
Q

How does the Mental Status Exam assess a patient’s cognitive capacity?

A

Through tasks like memory recall, attention, and thought organization.

179
Q

What methods are used for interpreting screening tool results for substance use disorders?

A

Evaluating symptom severity, frequency of use, and patient’s reported impact.

180
Q

How do you evaluate the effectiveness of health promotion strategies for mental health?

A

By tracking changes in community health metrics and individual behavior.

181
Q

DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria are used to classify and diagnose mental health disorders based on what?

A

Symptom criteria.

182
Q

Complementary and alternative treatments in psychiatric care often include approaches like ____.

A

Acupuncture and herbal medicine.

183
Q

____ involves selecting and interpreting diagnostic and laboratory tests to aid in diagnosis.

A

Diagnostic and laboratory test selection and interpretation.

184
Q

The process of determining a primary diagnosis and considering other possible diagnoses is called ____.

A

Differential diagnosis.

185
Q

Evidence-based practice in psychiatric treatment includes considerations such as medication dosing, off-label use, and ____.

A

Psychotherapy selection.

186
Q

Psychopharmacotherapeutic management involves the selection, dosing, and monitoring of ____.

A

Psychiatric medications.

187
Q

Pharmacotherapeutic management refers to the selection, monitoring, and management of ____ in mental health.

A

Medications.

188
Q

How does DSM-5-TR assist clinicians in diagnosing psychiatric disorders?

A

By providing specific symptom criteria for accurate classification.

189
Q

The primary benefit of complementary and alternative treatments in psychiatric care is to ____.

A

Enhance the effectiveness of conventional treatment options.

190
Q

How do diagnostic tests help in confirming or refining psychiatric diagnoses?

A

By providing objective data that supports or excludes possible conditions.

191
Q

The purpose of differential diagnosis is to ____ before confirming the primary diagnosis.

A

Rule out other conditions with similar symptoms.

192
Q

What role does evidence-based practice play in choosing medication for psychiatric disorders?

A

It ensures treatments are based on the best available research and clinical evidence.

193
Q

Psychopharmacotherapeutic management ensures the right medication is selected and ____ for patient care.

A

Monitored.

194
Q

The goal of pharmacotherapeutic management in treating mental health is to ____ patient outcomes.

195
Q

Complementary and alternative treatments in psychiatry, such as yoga or acupuncture, aim to ____ symptoms.

A

Alleviate or reduce symptoms.

196
Q

The DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria are based on the presence and severity of ____.

197
Q

How is evidence-based practice used to guide the selection of psychotherapy?

A

By matching the most researched, effective therapies to the patient’s condition.

198
Q

Monitoring in psychopharmacotherapeutic management is necessary to evaluate both effectiveness and ____.

A

Side effects.

199
Q

The DSM-5-TR ensures consistency in diagnosis by providing specific criteria based on the patient’s ____.

A

Symptom presentation.

200
Q

The purpose of differential diagnosis in mental health is to eliminate similar conditions and focus on the most likely ____.

A

Diagnosis.

201
Q

Pharmacotherapeutic management in psychiatry requires careful attention to ____, including side effects and patient response.

A

Medication selection and monitoring.

202
Q

Complementary treatments like meditation and mindfulness can help in managing ____.

A

Stress and anxiety.

203
Q

In psychopharmacological management, drugs are selected based on their ability to treat the patient’s ____.

204
Q

How does pharmacotherapeutic management help in managing mental health conditions?

A

By selecting appropriate medications and monitoring their effectiveness and safety.

205
Q

Complementary treatments in psychiatric care may include non-pharmacological interventions such as ____.

A

Meditation, acupuncture, and herbal medicine.

206
Q

What is a key element of psychopharmacotherapy when managing psychiatric disorders?

A

Regular monitoring of effectiveness and side effects.

207
Q

The DSM-5-TR provides a structured approach for diagnosing psychiatric disorders based on the presence of ____.

A

Specific symptoms.

208
Q

What is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)?

A

A psychotherapy that focuses on changing negative thought patterns and behaviors.

209
Q

Humanistic therapy emphasizes the importance of ______, self-actualization, and personal growth.

210
Q

Behavioral therapy focuses on identifying and changing maladaptive behaviors through reinforcement.

211
Q

How does interpersonal therapy (IPT) work in treating mental health disorders?

A

It focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication patterns.

212
Q

What is the main goal of behavioral therapy?

A

To change specific maladaptive behaviors using reinforcement and punishment.

213
Q

What are the stages of the Transtheoretical Model of Change?

A

Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance.

214
Q

Lewin’s Change Theory emphasizes the process of ______, moving, and refreezing to implement successful change.

A

Unfreezing

215
Q

Lewin’s Change Theory focuses on individual changes, not group or organizational changes.

216
Q

How does Lewin’s Change Theory apply in psychotherapy?

A

It helps understand how individuals or groups can transition from one state to another.

217
Q

What are developmental theories in psychology focused on?

A

They explain how people change and grow over the course of their lives.

218
Q

What is Erik Erikson’s main contribution to developmental theories?

A

His theory of psychosocial development across eight stages of life.

219
Q

Theories of development examine psychological changes that occur during ______, adolescence, and adulthood.

220
Q

How do family theories, like structural therapy, view family dynamics?

A

They focus on how family roles and hierarchies influence behavior and relationships.

221
Q

What is the focus of narrative therapy in family dynamics?

A

It encourages individuals to reframe their personal narratives to create more empowering stories.

222
Q

What is the role of empathy in the development of a therapeutic alliance?

A

It helps create a trusting and supportive relationship between therapist and client.

223
Q

Boundaries in therapy are meant to protect both the therapist and the client while maintaining professional ethics.

224
Q

What does a trauma-informed approach to therapy involve?

A

It involves understanding, recognizing, and responding to the effects of trauma on the client.

225
Q

How can a therapist facilitate psychotherapy effectively?

A

By creating a safe space, building rapport, and using appropriate interventions tailored to the client’s needs.

226
Q

The goal of complementary and alternative treatments in psychiatry is to offer approaches that ____.

A

Support traditional treatments or provide alternatives for symptom management.

227
Q

What does pharmacotherapeutic management focus on regarding medication treatment in psychiatry?

A

Selecting, adjusting, and monitoring medications for the most effective outcome.

228
Q

____ ensures that medications prescribed are based on current research and patient needs.

A

Evidence-based practice.

229
Q

The process of selecting and interpreting diagnostic tests is critical in confirming a diagnosis and ____.

A

Ruling out other possible conditions.

230
Q

How does differential diagnosis aid in developing an effective treatment plan for psychiatric conditions?

A

It helps identify the most likely cause of symptoms and eliminate other possibilities.

231
Q

The DSM-5-TR helps clinicians by providing a detailed set of criteria for diagnosing psychiatric conditions based on ____.

A

Symptoms and their severity.

232
Q

What therapeutic approach focuses on changing negative thought patterns to alter emotions and behaviors?

A

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT).

233
Q

In the Transtheoretical Model, the stage where an individual is actively making changes is called ____.

234
Q

What theory emphasizes the importance of understanding and adapting to the stages of human development?

A

Developmental theories.

235
Q

How does the structural family therapy theory view family dynamics?

A

As an organization with boundaries and hierarchies that influence behavior.

236
Q

What is the role of empathy in developing a therapeutic alliance with a patient?

A

To build trust and demonstrate understanding.

237
Q

What approach focuses on helping individuals understand and change their family’s relational dynamics?

A

Family therapy (e.g., Structural, Narrative).

238
Q

Lewin’s Change Theory involves three stages: unfreezing, changing, and _____.

A

Refreezing.

239
Q

How does humanistic therapy differ from other therapy models?

A

It focuses on the individual’s experience, personal growth, and self-actualization.

240
Q

What is a key principle of behavioral therapy in the context of psychotherapy?

A

Modifying maladaptive behaviors through reinforcement or punishment.

241
Q

What developmental theory focuses on the psychosocial stages of development across the lifespan?

A

Erikson’s stages of development.

242
Q

What therapeutic approach aims to address and heal trauma by creating a safe, supportive environment?

A

Trauma-informed approach.

243
Q

In family therapy, the narrative approach focuses on helping clients reframe their ____.

A

Life stories.

244
Q

What is the primary goal of the therapeutic alliance in psychotherapy?

A

To create a strong, collaborative relationship between therapist and patient.

245
Q

How do boundaries play a role in managing the therapeutic alliance?

A

By ensuring professionalism and preventing overinvolvement in the patient’s emotional world.

246
Q

What is the focus of interpersonal psychotherapy?

A

Addressing interpersonal issues and improving relationships to alleviate emotional distress.

247
Q

The Transtheoretical Model describes stages of change, including precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and _____.

A

Maintenance.

248
Q

What role does the trauma-informed approach play in therapy?

A

It ensures the therapist is sensitive to the patient’s trauma history and needs.

249
Q

What rights are covered in the Patient’s Bill of Rights, such as informed consent and treatment options?

A

The rights to informed consent, treatment options, and participation in care decisions.

250
Q

How does the scope of confidentiality apply to patient information in psychiatric care?

A

Confidentiality limits involve releases of information and duty to warn in specific situations.

251
Q

What do the ANA Scope and Standards of Practice in psychiatric nursing outline?

A

They define the roles, responsibilities, and standards of practice for psychiatric-mental health nurses.

252
Q

The Patient’s Bill of Rights ensures a patient has the right to make decisions about ____.

A

Their treatment and care options.

253
Q

How is the release of information related to patient confidentiality?

A

Information can only be shared with consent or under specific legal/ethical circumstances.

254
Q

What is the duty to warn in relation to patient confidentiality?

A

It requires clinicians to disclose information if there is imminent risk of harm to others.

255
Q

The ANA Scope and Standards of Practice for psychiatric nurses emphasize the need for ____.

A

Safe, ethical, and effective patient care in mental health settings.

256
Q

How can cultural and spiritual competence improve care for patients?

A

By recognizing and respecting diverse beliefs and values to provide individualized, respectful care.

257
Q

Cultural competence involves understanding how ____ affect mental health and care.

A

Social determinants, belief systems, and existential concerns.

258
Q

What is one example of a social determinant that affects mental health care?

A

Socioeconomic status.

259
Q

How does cultural competence enhance therapeutic relationships?

A

By promoting understanding and respect for patients’ cultural backgrounds, beliefs, and values.

260
Q

Equity, diversity, and inclusion in healthcare aim to address the needs of ____.

A

Specific populations, including those based on sexual orientation, gender identity, and cultural backgrounds.

261
Q

What does the concept of equity in healthcare aim to achieve?

A

Fair treatment and access to care regardless of personal, social, or cultural differences.

262
Q

How does diversity in healthcare benefit patient outcomes?

A

It ensures that care is tailored to meet the unique needs of diverse populations.

263
Q

What role does patient advocacy play in ensuring patient rights?

A

It involves supporting patients’ needs, including accommodations and access to appropriate care.

264
Q

Ethical clinical decision-making requires balancing principles such as ____.

A

Autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice.

265
Q

In clinical decision making, the least restrictive care principle emphasizes using the ____ intervention necessary to meet patient needs.

A

Least restrictive.

266
Q

What is the significance of decision-making capacity in clinical ethics?

A

It ensures that patients can understand, evaluate, and make informed decisions about their treatment.

267
Q

What ethical principle supports the right of individuals to make decisions about their care?

268
Q

Involuntary treatment must meet ethical standards like ____.

A

Least restrictive care and respect for patient autonomy, when possible.

269
Q

How does patient advocacy support individuals with disabilities in a clinical setting?

A

By ensuring that accommodations and necessary support services are provided for the patient’s well-being.

270
Q

What does FMLA stand for, and how does it relate to patient advocacy?

A

Family and Medical Leave Act; it ensures that patients can take leave for medical or family needs.

271
Q

How does the principle of bioethics guide clinical decision-making?

A

By balancing patient autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice to ensure ethical care.

272
Q

How do cultural beliefs influence mental health care and treatment decisions?

A

Cultural beliefs affect how individuals perceive mental illness and engage with treatment options.

273
Q

What is a key focus of ethics in clinical decision-making related to mental health?

A

Ensuring that decisions respect patient rights, autonomy, and the principle of least restrictive care.

274
Q

How do ethical guidelines inform decisions regarding involuntary treatment?

A

They ensure that such treatments are provided based on clinical need, respecting patient rights.

275
Q

What are the goals of cultural competence in psychiatric nursing?

A

To provide care that respects patients’ cultural beliefs and values, improving therapeutic outcomes.

276
Q

What is the Patient’s Bill of Rights?

A

A set of legal and ethical rights that protect patients, including the right to informed consent and treatment options.

277
Q

The Patient’s Bill of Rights ensures that patients are fully aware of ______ and treatment choices.

A

Their rights

278
Q

The Patient’s Bill of Rights only applies to patients who are hospitalized.

279
Q

How does the Patient’s Bill of Rights protect patients?

A

It ensures that patients are informed, consent to treatment, and have the right to access appropriate care.

280
Q

What does the scope of confidentiality in healthcare include?

A

It includes when patient information can and cannot be shared, such as during emergencies or with patient consent.

281
Q

Confidentiality may be broken if there is a duty to ______ in situations of harm or risk.

282
Q

Healthcare professionals can share patient information without consent if the patient is not in imminent danger.

283
Q

How does the duty to warn differ from general confidentiality?

A

The duty to warn allows healthcare providers to break confidentiality when a patient poses a risk to themselves or others.

284
Q

What is the role of the ANA Scope and Standards of Practice in psychiatric nursing?

A

It defines the ethical and professional responsibilities of psychiatric nurses to ensure safe, high-quality care.

285
Q

How does the ANA Scope and Standards of Practice ensure that psychiatric nurses provide quality care?

A

By establishing standards for assessment, diagnosis, intervention, and evaluation of patient care.

286
Q

What is cultural competence in healthcare?

A

The ability to understand and respect patients’ cultural differences and incorporate this understanding into care.

287
Q

Cultural competence involves understanding differences in ______ systems and health beliefs.

288
Q

Cultural competence is unnecessary if the healthcare provider has experience with the patient’s culture.

289
Q

How can a nurse develop cultural competence in their practice?

A

By engaging in cultural awareness training, learning about different cultural practices, and adapting care to individual needs.

290
Q

What are social determinants of mental health?

A

Factors such as income, education, employment, and social support that can affect an individual’s mental health.

291
Q

Social determinants, such as access to healthcare, can either promote or ______ mental health.

292
Q

What are some common barriers to accessing mental health care?

A

Stigma, cost, lack of culturally competent care, and insufficient availability of services.

293
Q

How can a nurse address barriers to mental health care in diverse populations?

A

By advocating for equitable resources and providing culturally sensitive care.

294
Q

Equity in healthcare only addresses race-related disparities in mental health care.

295
Q

What challenges do LGBTQ+ individuals face when accessing mental health services?

A

Discrimination, lack of understanding from healthcare providers, and unique mental health needs.

296
Q

Gender identity and sexual orientation should be considered when planning ______ for patients in mental health care.

297
Q

How does equity, diversity, and inclusion impact healthcare delivery?

A

It ensures that all individuals, regardless of background, receive fair, respectful, and customized care.

298
Q

What is the significance of ethics in clinical decision-making?

A

Ethics guides healthcare providers in making decisions that respect patients’ autonomy and ensure fairness and safety.

299
Q

Involuntary treatment is always the best option for patients with severe mental illness.

300
Q

What is the principle of least restrictive care in mental health treatment?

A

It involves using the least invasive or restrictive interventions necessary to provide effective care.

301
Q

How does decision-making capacity impact patient care in mental health?

A

It determines whether a patient can understand the consequences of treatment decisions and make informed choices.

302
Q

Ethical principles like ______ guide healthcare professionals in making decisions that are fair and respect patient rights.

303
Q

What are the four core bioethical principles?

A

Autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice.

304
Q

How can patient advocacy improve outcomes for individuals with disabilities?

A

By ensuring that patients receive necessary accommodations and support to access care and education.

305
Q

Patient advocacy can include helping patients access Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) support if needed.

306
Q

A nurse is faced with a patient who has expressed the desire to discontinue treatment. The nurse must assess if the patient understands the consequences. What principle is being applied here?

A

Decision-making capacity.

307
Q

A patient has a history of violent behavior and is threatening harm to others. The healthcare team is deciding whether to break confidentiality. What ethical principle applies in this situation?

A

Duty to warn.

308
Q

A healthcare worker is working with a patient from a different cultural background and the patient feels misunderstood. What can the nurse do

A

Developing cultural competence by learning about the patient’s culture and adapting care appropriately.