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High-Yield Facts (Phase 1) > ETA 1 > Flashcards

ETA 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 components of the HPA axis?

A
  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Anterior pituitary
  3. Adrenal glands
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2
Q

What are factors (re: clotting cascade)?

A

Proteases or co-factors needed to activate the next step in the cascade

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3
Q

How does protein C halt the clotting cascade?

A

Breaks down factors 5a and 8a

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4
Q

What causes Graves’ disease?

A

Autoimmune stimulation of TSH receptors

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5
Q

Which reducing agent is necessary for glutathione (GSH) regeneration?

A

NADPH

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6
Q

What is the inactive form of fibrin?

A

Fibrinogen

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7
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

Breakdown of blood clots

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8
Q

Which hormone stimulates RBC production?

A

Erythropoietin

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9
Q

Which factor activates fibrin from fibrinogen?

A

Thrombin

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10
Q

What is the total number of factors in the clotting cascade?

A

26 (13 x 2)

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11
Q

What causes Hashimoto’s disease?

A

Autoimmune destruction of TSH receptors

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12
Q

What is the function of SDS-PAGE (a.k.a. protein electrophoresis)?

A

Separate protein fragments by size

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13
Q

Compare atheroma and thrombosis.

A

Atheroma: fatty, degenerative material narrowing artery walls by accumulating in the endothelium; may cause thrombosis by rupturing it

Thrombosis: formation of a blood clot inside a blood vessel; may result from an accumulation of atheroma rupturing the endothelium

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14
Q

Compare the roles of superoxide dismutase (SOD) and catalase in defence against oxidation.

A

SOD: converts superoxide to oxygen and hydrogen peroxide
Catalase: converts resulting hydrogen peroxide to oxygen and water

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15
Q

In addition to BMI, list 3 measurements a dietician might perform.

A
  1. Skin fold thickness
  2. Waist-to-hip ratio
  3. Upper arm circumference
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16
Q

What is the function of mass spectrometry?

A

Separate particles by mass-to-charge ratio

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17
Q

What is the role of tPA?

A

Convert plasminogen to plasmin

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18
Q

What are the 2 hormones produced by the posterior pituitary? (Hint: All Others.)

A

ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

Oxytocin

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19
Q

What is the function of the extrinsic pathway?

A

Regulate clotting in tissue that has undergone trauma

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20
Q

Define ketosis.

A

A state in which the body breaks down fat for food instead of glucose, producing ketone bodies

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21
Q

What does elevated blood creatinine indicate?

A

Kidney malfunction

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22
Q

How is metformin metabolised?

A

Is it NOT
Note: it is secreted in its current form

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23
Q

How does DNA gel electrophoresis separate DNA fragments by size?

A
  • DNA (-ve) is placed on a charged slide
  • Migrates toward cathode
  • Smaller fragments migrate faster
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24
Q

What is the most consistent biochemical abnormality in Addison’s disease?

A

Low Na+ (caused by lack of aldosterone due to damaged adrenal gland)

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25
Q

Define atherosclerosis.

A

Buildup of atheroma inside an artery wall

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26
Q

Which factors are involved in the extrinsic pathway? (Hint: 3 X 2.)

A

3, 7, 10

3a, 7a, 10a

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27
Q

What are 2 reasons why the eye is a good site for gene therapy?

A

Partially protected from the immune system

Hard for viruses to travel from the eye to other parts of the body

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28
Q

What is the mechanism of action for rifampicin?

A

Binds to bacterial RNA polymerase, preventing transcription

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29
Q

How does glibenclamide (sulphonylurea) act on insulin?

A

Promotes insulin secretion

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30
Q

What is the function of DNA gel electrophoresis?

A

Separate DNA fragments by size

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31
Q

What does plasminogen do?

A

Trigger fibrinolysis

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32
Q

Describe the process of thrombosis.

A

Epithelium ruptures ->

Collagen exposed ->

Attracts platelets ->

Platelet plug forms ->

Clotting cascade triggered

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33
Q

How does Sanger chain termination (a.k.a. DNA sequencing) work?

A
  • DNA is separated into 4 vials
  • Different ddNTPs added to each vial (i.e., ddATP, ddTTP, ddCTP, and ddGTP)
  • Terminate DNA at corresponding nucleotide
  • Gel electrophoresis separates fragments by size
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34
Q

What is the function of FISH (fluorescence in situ hybridization)?

A

Use probes to dye specific DNA sequences

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35
Q

What is the treatment for paracetamol poisoning?

A

N-acetylcysteine

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36
Q

Define atheroma.

A

Fatty, degenerative material narrowing artery walls by accumulating in the endothelium

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37
Q

Compare the function of type 1 and type 2 ELISA.

A

Type 1: identify ANTIGEN

Type 2: identify ANTIBODIES

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38
Q

What is the function of restriction enzymes?

A

Cut DNA at specific points

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39
Q

Define foam cells.

A

Macrophages that have attempted to digest oxidised LDL

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40
Q

Which common medication might lead to thrombosis due to over-stimulation of the clotting cascade?

A

Oral contraceptive pill

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41
Q

List 5 examples of catabolic pathways.

A
  1. Glycolysis
  2. Glycogenolysis
  3. Lipolysis
  4. Fatty acid oxidation
  5. Pentose phosphate pathway
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42
Q

Which protein converts plasminogen to plasmin?

A

tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)

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43
Q

What is the function of PCR (a.k.a. polymerase chain reaction)?

A

Make it easier to examine small sections of DNA by multiplying them

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44
Q

How do enzyme assays determine enzyme activity?

A

Measure color, light diffraction, heat, etc. as a marker for enzyme presence

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45
Q

What are the 2 phases of drug metabolism?

A

Phase I: modification (add or expose a reactive group)

Phase II: conjugation (add a water soluble polar group)

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46
Q

What is the function of DNA chip technology (a.k.a. DNA microarray)?

A

Examine thousands of genes simultaneously (e.g., when comparing normal DNA to diseased DNA)

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47
Q

What is the role of glutathione (GSH) in RBC?

A

Prevent oxidative damage

48
Q

How does type 1 ELISA identify ANTIGENS?

A

Antibody ->

Antigen ->

Antibody tagged w/ enzyme ->

Color change

49
Q

What is the best technique for comparing normal DNA to diseased DNA?

A

DNA chip technology (a.k.a. DNA microarray)

50
Q

You need a rapid burst of skeletal activity. What is the best energy source?

A

Creatine phosphate

51
Q

How does DNA chip technology (a.k.a. DNA microarray) work?

A
  • DNA is inserted in thousands of compartments
  • Reacts with relevant probes
  • Chip is inserted into a computer and read
52
Q

What is the final product of the clotting cascade?

A

Cross-linked fibrin

53
Q

What is the first line treatment for Graves’s disease (i.e., hyperthyroidism)?

A

Carbimazole

54
Q

How does type 2 ELISA identify ANTIBODIES?

A

Antigen ->

Antibody ->

Antibody tagged w/ enzyme ->

Color change

55
Q

What are zymogens?

A

Inactive precursors of enzymes

56
Q

What is the function of karyotyping?

A

Display entire set of chromosomes

57
Q

How does PCR (a.k.a. polymerase chain reaction) work?

A
  • DENATURE: heat DNA to separate strands
  • ANNEAL: decrease heat so primer can stick
  • TRANSCRIBE: increase heat so polymerase can add free nucleotides
  • Process is repeated to yield millions of copies
58
Q

What would you use to cut DNA at specific points?

A

Restriction enzymes

59
Q

How would you prepare a karyotype?

A
  • Arrest chromosomes at metaphase
  • Tag them with dyes
  • Photograph them
  • Arrange photographs in order
60
Q

How would increased ACTH (e.g., in Addison’s) lead to darker skin?

A

Excessive ACTH exhibits MSH-like activity

Note: MSH = Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone

61
Q

What is the first factor of the intrinsic pathway?

A

Factor 11

62
Q

What are the 3 types of ketone bodies?

A
  1. Acetone
  2. Acetoacetate
  3. Beta-hydroxybutyrate
63
Q

Which factors are involved in the intrinsic pathway? (Hint: 4 X 2.)

A

8, 9, 10, 11

8a, 9a, 10a, 11a

64
Q

How does mass spectrometry separate particles by mass-to-charge ratio?

A
  • Ionisation
  • Acceleration
  • Deflection (via magnet)
  • Detection
65
Q

What are the 2 sources of ketone bodies?

A
  1. Fat in adipose tissue
  2. Ketogenic amino acids
66
Q

What is the best technique for determining the absence or presence of specific areas of a gene?

A

FISH (fluorescence in situ hybridization)

67
Q

What are the 6 hormones of the anterior pituitary? (Hint: TP FLAG.)

A

TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone)
PRL (prolactin)
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
LH (luteinising hormone)
ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
GH (growth hormone)

68
Q

Which factors are involved in the common pathway? (Hint: 5 X 2.)

A

5, 10, 13, prothrombin, fibrinogen

5a, 10a, 13a, thrombin, fibrin

69
Q

How is a clot able to form from the activation of a very small amount of initial factor?

A

Activation of thrombin promotes further activation of factors 5, 8, 11, and 13 (i.e., positive feedback loop)

70
Q

Define thrombosis.

A

Formation of a blood clot inside a blood vessel

71
Q

How does gene therapy work?

A
  • Add gene to a virus modified not to replicate
  • Insert virus into cell

Note: can be carried out in vivo (e.g., bone marrow) or ex vivo (e.g., stem cells)

72
Q

What is the function of phase I drug metabolism (i.e., modification)?

A

Add or expose a reactive group

73
Q

Which disease do protruding eyeballs indicate?

A

Graves’ disease

74
Q

What is the first line treatment for Hashimoto’s disease (i.e., hypothyroidism)?

A

Oral thyroxine

75
Q

Describe the reactions of the HPA axis.

A

Hypothalamus

(Secretes)

Corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH)

(Stimulates)

Anterior pituitary

(Releases)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

(Stimulates)

Adrenal glands

(Release)

Cortisol

(Negative feedback)

76
Q

The presence of which protein in the bloodstream is a biomarker for myocardial infarction?

A

Troponin

77
Q

What is the function of Sanger chain termination (a.k.a. DNA sequencing)?

A

Determine the sequence of nucleotides

78
Q

Which activated enzyme triggers fibrinolysis?

A

Plasmin

79
Q

What test would you use for the DDx of hypoadrenalism?

A

Short synacthen test

80
Q

What does thrombin do?

A

Activates fibrin from fibrinogen

81
Q

What is the best technique for identifying polyploidies, aneuploidies, or large chromosomal defects?

A

Karyotyping

82
Q

Which pathway regulates clotting in damaged endothelial lining?

A

Intrinsic

83
Q

What is the first factor of the extrinsic pathway?

A

Factor 3

84
Q

What is the common point for the 2 pathways of the clotting cascade?

A

Factor 10

85
Q

What type of glial cells produce cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Ependymal cells

86
Q

List 5 components of atheroma.

A
  1. Oxidised LDL
  2. Macrophages
  3. Foam cells
  4. Calcium salts
  5. Fibrous tissue
87
Q

How does fibrin cause clotting?

A

Forms a mesh which traps blood cells

88
Q

What is the mechanism of action for tetracycline?

A

Competes with tRNA at A site of bacterial ribosomes, inhibiting protein synthesis

89
Q

What are the 2 pathways of the clotting cascade?

A
  1. Intrinsic
  2. Extrinsic
90
Q

How does SDS-PAGE (a.k.a. protein electrophoresis) separate protein fragments by size?

A
  • Proteins (-ve or +ve) are placed on a charged slide
  • Migrates towards end
  • Smaller fragments migrate faster
91
Q

List 3 mechanisms of halting the clotting cascade.

A
  1. DILUTION of factors by blood flow (followed by removal in the liver)
  2. BREAKDOWN of factors by proteases
  3. INHIBITION of factors by binding
92
Q

Anti-coagulants reduce the risk of which progressive neurological disorder?

A

Dementia

93
Q

What is the best technique for identifying antigens or antibodies?

A

ELISA (a.k.a. immunoassays)

94
Q

What is the inactive form of thrombin?

A

Prothrombin

95
Q

Which breakdown product of muscle tissue is an indicator of kidney malfunction?

A

Creatinine

96
Q

Why can’t cellulose be broken down by the body?

A
  • Contains beta-glyosidic bonds
  • GI tract only has enzymes for breaking down alpha-glycosidic bonds
97
Q

Lack of which enzyme causes lactose intolerance by making it harder to metabolize lactose into glucose and galactose?

A

Lactase

98
Q

What is the function of phase II drug metabolism (i.e., conjugation)?

A

Add a water soluble group

99
Q

Compare anabolic and catabolic reactions.

A

Anabolic: build larger molecules from smaller ones, require energy

Catabolic: break larger molecules into smaller ones, release energy

100
Q

Explain how G6PD deficiency causes hemolysis.

A

Decreased G6PD ->

Deceased synthesis of NADPH (powerful reducing agent) in pentose phosphate pathway ->

Decreased regeneration of glutathione (powerful anti-oxidant) in RBC ->
Oxidative damage to RBC ->
Hemolysis

101
Q

Define embolism.

A

Lodging of an embolus (blockage-causing material) inside a blood vessel

102
Q

How does disulfiram treat alcoholism?

A

Inhibits acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to acetaldehyde buildup and hangover-like side effects

103
Q

How might the oral contraceptive pill lead to thrombosis?

A

Over-stimulation of the clotting cascade

104
Q

What is the function of the intrinsic pathway?

A

Regulate clotting in damaged endothelial linings

105
Q

List 5 examples of anabolic pathways.

A
  1. Gluconeogenesis
  2. Glycogenesis
  3. Ketogenesis
  4. Fatty acid synthesis
  5. Cholesterol synthesis
106
Q

What test would you use for the DDx of hyperadrenalism?

A

Dexamethasone suppression test (DST)

107
Q

What is the main function of the HPA axis?

A

Stress response

108
Q

What is the toxic metabolite of alcohol?

A

Acetaldehyde

109
Q

What is gene therapy?

A

Replacing a malfunctioning gene with a modified gene

110
Q

What is the best technique for determining enzyme activity?

A

Enzyme assays

111
Q

What is the mechanism of action for methotrexate?

A

Competitively inhibits DHFR, blocking the folate pathway Note: folate is essential for DNA synthesis

112
Q

How does Antithrombin III (AT3) halt the clotting cascade?

A

Inhibits thrombin by binding to it

113
Q

What is the mechanism of action for penicillin?

A

Prevents bacterial cell wall from cross-linking, causing lysis

Note: only affects gram-positive bacteria

114
Q

How does metformin (biguanide) act on insulin?

A

Promotes insulin sensitization in liver and muscle

115
Q

Which pathway regulates clotting in tissue that has undergone trauma?

A

Extrinsic

116
Q

How does classic hemophilia cause bleeding?

A

Defective factor 8 hinders clotting

117
Q

A toddler presents with seizures, intellectual delay, and behavioral problems. They smell musty. You suspect PKU. Which gene is mutated and which enzymatic defect results?

A

PAH gene

Low levels of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase

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