Essentials Flashcards

1
Q

Ischemia

A

Obstructed blood flow to to skin tissue or organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hyperemia

A

Blood vessel expansion (vasodilation). Pressure is relieved and blood flow is returned, skin turns red.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Blanchable Hyperemia

A

Hyperemia does not last long after applying pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Nonblanchable Erythema

A

Skin does not turn light in color after applying pressure. Deep tissue damage occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Edema

A

Abnormal accumulation of fluid or swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tissue Slough

A

Dead tissue separates from living tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Shear force

A

Sliding movement of skin over bony protrusions
Example:
Elevated head on the bed. Sliding skeleton but skin intact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Friction

A

Skin is dragged across coarse surface. Affects epidermis of skin.
Example: bed linen (sheet burn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Moisture Associated Skin Damage (MASD)

A

Inflammation and erosion to skin from various sources of moisture.
Example: Wound drainage, urine, stool, wound exudate, mucus, or saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stage 1 pressure injury

A

Intact skin, nonblanchable erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stage 2 pressure injury

A

Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis.
Wound bed is viable, pink, red, and moist. No tissue visualization, slough, or eschar.
Example: adverse microclimate and shear in skin over PELVIS and HEELS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Stage 3 pressure injury

A

Full skin thickness loss. Adipose tissue is visible along with rolled wound edges. Slough and eschar may be visible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stage 4 pressure injury

A

Full thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed or directly palpable fascia, musicale, tendon, ligament, cartilage, and bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Unstageable pressure injury

A

Obscured by slough or eschar. Tissue loss extent cannot be confirmed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Deep-tissue pressure injury

A

Intact or non intact skin with persistent nonblanchable deep red, maroon, purple discoloration and epidermal separation revealing dark wound bed or blood filled blister.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Epibole

A

Rolled edges of skin around wound or ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MDRPI

A

Medical Device Related Pressure Injury.
Example: occurs at face, head region, and ears. O2 masks, nasal cannulas, cervical collars, medical adhesives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MARSI

A

Medical adhesive related skin injury persist after 30 mins or more after removal of device or adhesive securing the device
Example: IV sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Closed Wounds

A

Skin is intact but underlying tissue is damaged
Example: contusions, hematomas, or Stage 1 pressure injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Closed Wounds

A

Skin is open and tissue is exposed. Increased risk for infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Acute Wound

A

Caused by trauma or surgical incision, short duration, functional integrity can be restored. Wound edges are clean and intact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Chronic Wound

A

Caused by vascular compromise, chronic inflammation, or repetitive insults to tissue. Does not heal in timely process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Primary Intention

A

Closed wound by epithelialization with minimal scarring. Forms natural fibrin seal.
Example: sutures or staples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Secondary Intention

A

Wound edges are not closed. Needs support of moist wound environment.
Example: surgical wounds that have tissue loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tertiary Intention

A

Wound is left open for several days for edges to be approximated
Example: for contaminated/infection wounds that require observation until resolved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Partial Thickness Wound

A

Shallow in depth, moist, and painful, generally appears to be red. Heals by regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Full thickness wound

A

Extends to subcutaneous layer and is painful. Depth varies. Healing is new tissue formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Epithelialization

A

Filling wound with granulation tissue, wound contraction and resurfacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

SSI

A

Surgical Site Infection. Common in acute care settings. Occurs within 30 days of surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Local Clinical Signs of Wound Infections

A

Erythema (redness or inflammation of skin, ex sunburn), increased wound drainage, change in appearance of wound drainage (color, odor, consistency), periwound warmth, pain, or edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Serous Wound Drainage

A

Clear Watery Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Purulent Wound Drainage

A

Thick, yellow, green, tan, or brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Serosanguineous Wound Drainage

A

Pale, pink, watery; mixture of clear and red fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Sanguineous Wound Drainage

A

Bright red; indicates active bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dehiscence

A

Partial or total separation of wound layers. Occurs 5-12 days after wound repair peak or suturing. Could see increase in serosanguineous fluid
Can happen when sudden strain such as coughing, vomiting, or sitting up. Pt report “given way.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Evisceration

A

Total separation of wound layers and require emergency surgical repair.
Place sterile gauze soaked in saline over tissue to prevent bacteria and drying of tissue. Do not allow anything by mouth, observe signs of shock. Gather team.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pressure Risk Injury Assessment: Acute Care

A

Within 8 hours of admission. Every 24-48 hours or change in pt condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pressure Risk Injury Assessment: Critical Care

A

On admission. Every 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pressure Risk Injury Assessment: Long term care

A

On admission. Weekly for the first 4 weeks after admission. Routinely on quarterly basis, or change in pt condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Pressure Risk Injury: Home Care

A

On admission. Every RN visit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Braden Scale Components

A

Used in long term care and hospitals for pressure injury assessment. Max score 23 little to no risk. <16 is at risk. <9 is very high risk.
Sensory, Perception, Moisture, Nutrition, & Friction/Shear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Sensory Perception

A

Respond to pressure related discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Moisture Perception

A

Degree to which skin is exposed to moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Activity Perception

A

Degree of patients physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Mobility Perception

A

Ability to change and control body position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Nutrition Perception

A

Usual food intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Friction and Shear Perception

A

Ability to adjust self to avoid discomfort

48
Q

Calories

A

Cell energy (whole milk, nuts, beans, salmon)

49
Q

Protein

A

Collagen formation and wound remodeling (poultry, eggs, fish, beef, milk)

50
Q

Vitamin C

A

Collagen synthesis (citrus fruit, tomatoes, potatoes)

51
Q

Vitamin A

A

Epithelialization, wound closure, inflammatory response, collagen formation (green vegetables, carrots, sweet potato, liver)

52
Q

Zinc

A

Protein synthesis (vegetables, meats, legumes)

53
Q

Wound infection indication

A

Purulent drainage, change in odor, volume, redness, fever, or pain.

54
Q

Wound assessment factors

A

Amount (%) and color of viable and non-viable tissue, length, width, and depth

55
Q

Granulation Tissue

A

Red moist tissue. Presence may indicate progress towards slow healing.

56
Q

Slough

A

Soft yellow or white tissue (stringy substance attached to wound bed) must be removed in order for wound to heal

57
Q

Eschar

A

Black, brown, tan tissue is necrotic (dead). Removal is needed.

58
Q

Assessment of wound exudate (drainage)

A

Amount, color, consistency, odor

59
Q

Induration

A

Hardening of tissue (skin) due to edema or inflammation

60
Q

Maceration

A

Break down or softening of skin due to prolonged exposure moisture

61
Q

Abrasion

A

Superficial wound with little bleeding and is considered a partial thickness wound.

62
Q

Laceration

A

May bleed more profusely (esp if pt is on anticoagulants or blood thinners)

63
Q

Puncture Wounds

A

Bleed in relation to depth, size, and location of wound. These wounds could cause internal bleeding and infection.

64
Q

Assessment of Abnormal Healing (Primary)

A

Incision line poorly approx, drainage present >3 days after closure, inflammation increase in first 3-5 days after injury, no healing ridge by day 9

65
Q

Assessment of Abnormal Wound Healing (Secondary)

A

Pale/fragile granulation tissue, wound exudate is Purulent, nonviable tissue (necrotic or slough) found in wound base, odor present after cleaning, presence of fistulas, tunneling, or undermining

66
Q

Surgical Wound Drain

A

Remove excess wound fluid and promote wound healing in wound bed. Healing is done from the inside out.
Example) Penrose Drain: lies under dressing and is pinned or clipped.

67
Q

Hemovac

A

Drain is connected to a suction. Exerts low pressure to suction drainage.

68
Q

Hemostasis

A

Termination of bleeding by mechanical or chemical mean or coagulation

69
Q

Debridement

A

Removal of nonviable necrotic tissue. Note increase or decrease in wound exudate, odor, and size

70
Q

Autolytic debridement

A

Removal of dead tissue via lysis. Achieved by using dressing what support moisture in wound surface

71
Q

Chemical debridement

A

Use of topical enzyme. Either Dakin (breaks down and loose a dead tissue in a wound) or sterile maggots (ingest dead tissue)

72
Q

Surgical debridement

A

Removal of dead tissue with a scalpel, scissors, or sharp instrument. (Quickest removal)

73
Q

Pressure dressings

A

Promote hemostasis for bleeding wounds. Applied elastic bandages and exerts local downward pressure. Eliminates dead space.

74
Q

Hydrocolloid Dressing

A

Forms gel over wound exudate and is absorbed while maintaining a moist healing environment . Autolytically debride necrotic wounds. Used for shallow to moderately deep dermal injuries.

75
Q

Hydrogel Dressing

A

Gauze or sheet soaked with water or glycerin based amorphous gel. Hydrates wounds and absorbs small amount of exudate. Used for partial or full thickness wounds, deep with some exudate, necrotic wounds, burns, and radiation damaged skin.

76
Q

Foam Dressing

A

Used for wounds with large amount of exudate and that need pack. Used around drainage tubes for absorption.

77
Q

Alginate Dressing

A

Manufactured from seaweed and form soft gel when in contact with wound fluid. Highly absorbent. NEVER use for dry wounds.

78
Q

Negative Pressure Wound Pressure Therapy (NPWT)

A

Application or subatomic (-) pressure to wound through suction to facilitate healing an collect fluid. Used for chronic, a cure, traumatic, and dehiscence wounds. Common for diabetic patients. Wear time is 24 hours to 5 days.

79
Q

Vacuum Assisted Closure (V.A.C)

A

Liquifies infection material and wound debris. Implements (-) pressure to dear edges of wound together.

80
Q

MARSI

A

Medical Adhesive Related Skin Injury

81
Q

Montgomery Ties

A

Multiple ties that fasten across dressings to avoid repeated removal. Common for demented, kids, or elderly patients

82
Q

Irrigation

A

Used for open or deep wounds. Common for inaccessible body parts such as ear canal or sensitive body parts such as eyes. Fluid must flow directly over wound and not over a contaminated area.

83
Q

Heat Therapy

A

Causes vasodilation and improves blood flow to injury. Increases muscle and ligament flexibility, relaxation and healing, spasm relief, joint pain and stiffness

84
Q

Cold Therapy

A

Causes vasoconstriction. Treat inflammation of injury that presents as edema, hemorrhage, muscle & joint spasm or pain.

85
Q

Sits baths

A

After redraw surgery, episiotomy during child birth, painful hemorrhoids, or vaginal inflammation. Pt sits in tub excludes leg and feet for 20 mins

86
Q

Hypoxia

A

Insufficient oxygen reaching cells

87
Q

Anoxia

A

Total lack of oxygen in body tissue

88
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Reduced oxygenation of arterial blood

89
Q

Capnography

A

End-tidal Co2 monitoring, provides information about patient ventilation, perfusion, and production of Co2. Measured near end of exhalation.

90
Q

Dyspnea

A

Difficult or uncomfortable breathing. Observed labored breathing or SOB. Associated with hypoxia. Occurs with pregnant women in final months of pregnancy.

91
Q

Orthopnea

A

Abnormal condition in which patient uses multiple pillows when reclining to breathe or sits leaning forward with arms elevated.

92
Q

PND

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea occurs when patient is asleep. Panic and suffocation.

93
Q

Hemoptysis

A

Bloody Sputum associated with coughing and bleeding from upper RT and sinus drainage. Note if pt is on anticoagulants.

94
Q

Hematemesis

A

Blood sputum from GI tract

95
Q

Huff Cough

A

Natural cough reflex. Help move secretions to larger airways

96
Q

Cascade Cough

A

Series of coughs through exhalation. Large amount of sputum. Common in cystic fibrosis patients.

97
Q

Quad or Manually Assisted Cough

A

For patients without abdominal muscle control. Common in spinal cord injuries. Pt breathes out with maximal effort while nurse pushes inward and upward on abdominal muscles toward diaphragm

98
Q

Diaphragmatic Breathing

A

Encourages deep nasal inspiration to increase airflow to lower lungs. Common for COPD pt to increase tidal volume and O2 saturation. Reduces dyspnea.

99
Q

CPT

A

Chest Physiotherapy, helps mobilize pulmonary secretions through external chest wall manipulation using percussion, vibration, or high frequency chest wall compression.

100
Q

HFCWC

A

High frequency chest wall compression is an inflatable vest attached to an air pulse generator that loosens and removes secretions. Send pulses to chest wall

101
Q

PEP

A

Positive expiratory pressure allows air to be inhaled easily but forces patients to exhale against resistance. Helps expectorate mucus with CF or other lung diseases.

102
Q

Incentive Spirometry

A

Encourages voluntary deep breathing that could prevent atelectasis. Should be used on pt that have undergone thoracic or abdominal surgery, prolonged bed rest, neuromuscular disease or spinal injuries. Measures volume of air moving in and out and calculates lung capacity.

103
Q

ET

A

Endotracheal Tube. Invasive mechanical ventilation, relives upper airway obstruction, protections against aspiration or clear secretions. Remove within 14 days.

104
Q

TT

A

Tracheostomy tube, made for prolonged mechanical ventilation, upper airway obstruction, trauma, difficulty with airway clearance. Pt with spinal or neuromuscular diseases

105
Q

Open Suctioning

A

Through nose into trachea and pharynx. Catheter and port where endotracheal tubes connect to ventilator.

106
Q

Closed Suctioning

A

Introducing suction catheter into airways without disconnecting a patient from ventilator

107
Q

CPAP

A

Continuous (+) airway pressure maintains steady stream of pressure through pt breathing cycle. For pt with sleep apnea

108
Q

BiPAP

A

Bilevel (+) airway pressure prevents alveolar closure

109
Q

Ventilation

A

Movement of air in and out of lungs and is controlled by neurologic and musculoskeletal systems

110
Q

Respiration

A

O2 and CO2 exchange in lungs and is controlled by pulmonary and cardiovascular system

111
Q

ABG

A

Arterial Blood Gas measure pH, O2, CO2, bicarbonate concentrations in arterial blood. Used to to detect respiratory acidosis and alkalosis

112
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

Develops during hyperventilation when excessive CO2 is exhaled. Example) hysteria & anxiety

113
Q

CBC

A

Complete blood count reveals RBC (O2 carrying capacity of blood) Hb (O2 and CO2 transport capability) Hct (% of blood volume) and WBC (% of leukocytes)

114
Q

Nasal Cannulas

A

Low flow. Most common, low flow delivery (1 to 15 L). Ideal for patients with stable respiratory patterns and require low levels of O2. (0.5 to 6.0 L) humidifier starts at 4

115
Q

Face Masks (Simple)

A

For patients who require short term higher O2 concentrations. Can be set at rate no more than 6-10 L/min 40-60% of O2

116
Q

NRB

A

Low flow. Have a reservoir bag (600 to 1,000 mL capacity) allows for higher concentration of O2 delivery. Used for pt that have smoke inhalation, carbon monoxide poisoning, and chronic airway disease, and hypoxia 100% O2

117
Q

Ventimask

A

3-6 L of O2 35%-50% .9L/min