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CEH v11 Revision > Essential Knowledge > Flashcards

Essential Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

OSI Model - Layer 1
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Physical (USB, Bluetooth)
  2. Bit
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2
Q

OSI Model - Layer 2
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Data Link (ARP, PPP)
  2. Frame
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3
Q

OSI Model - Layer 3
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Network (IP)
  2. Packet
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4
Q

OSI Model - Layer 4
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Transport (TCP)
  2. Segment
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5
Q

OSI Model - Layer 5
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Session (X255, SCP)
  2. Data
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6
Q

OSI Model - Layer 6
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Presentation (AFP, MIME)
  2. Data
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7
Q

OSI Model - Layer 7
1. Type
2. Data Unit

A
  1. Application (FTP, HTTP, SMTP)
  2. Data
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8
Q

TCP/IP Model - Layer 1
1. Type
2. OSI Layer Equivalent

A
  1. Network Access
  2. Physical (Layer 1) / Data Link (Layer 2)
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9
Q

TCP/IP Model - Layer 2
1. Type
2. OSI Layer Equivalent

A
  1. Internet
  2. Network (Layer 3)
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10
Q

TCP/IP Model - Layer 3
1. Type
2. OSI Layer Equivalent

A
  1. Transport
  2. Transport (Layer 4)
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11
Q

TCP/IP Model - Layer 4
1. Type
2. OSI Layer Equivalent

A
  1. Application
  2. Session (Layer 5), Presentation (Layer 6), Application (Layer 7)
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12
Q

How does TCP Handshake gets initialised?

A
  1. SYN
  2. SYN-ACK
  3. ACK
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13
Q

What does ARP stand for?

A

Address Resolution Protocol.

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14
Q

What is ARP used for?

A

Resolves IP address to physical address

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15
Q

What are the the 5 Network Security Zones?

A
  1. Internet
  2. Internet DMZ
  3. Production Network Zone
  4. Intranet Zone
  5. Management Network Zone
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16
Q

What does CVSS Stand for?

A

Common Vulnerability Scoring System

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17
Q

What is CVSS is used for?

A

Places numerical score based on severity for vulnerabilities and risks.

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18
Q

What does NVD stand for?

A

National Vulnerability Database

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19
Q

What is NVD?

A

US government repository of vulnerabilities

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20
Q

What are the 7 Vulnerability Categories?

A
  1. Misconfiguration
  2. Default Installation
  3. Buffer Overflow
  4. Missing Patches
  5. Design Flaws
  6. Operating System Flaws
  7. Default Passwords
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21
Q

What does EISA stand for?

A

Enterprise Information Security Architecture

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22
Q

What is EISA?

A

Process that determines how systems work within an organization

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23
Q

What are the 5 steps to Threat Modelling?

A
  1. Identify security objectives
  2. Application Overview
  3. Decompose application
  4. Identify threats
  5. Identify vulnerabilities
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24
Q

What are the 5 Phases of Risk Management?

A
  1. Risk Identification
  2. Risk Assessment
  3. Risk Treatment
  4. Risk Tracking
  5. Risk Review
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25
Q

What are the 6 types of Security Controls?

A
  1. Physical (Guards, Lights, Cameras)
  2. Technical (Encryption, Smart Cards, Access Control lists)
  3. Administrative (Training Awareness, Policies)
  4. Preventative (Authentication, Alarm Bells)
  5. Detective (Audits, Backups)
  6. Corrective (Restore Operations)
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26
Q

What does BIA stand for?

A

Business Impact Analysis

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27
Q

What does MTD stand for?

A

Maximum Tolerable Downtime

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28
Q

What does BCP stand for?

A

Business Continuity Plan

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29
Q

What does DRP stand for?

A

Disaster Recovery Plan

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30
Q

What does ALE stand for?

A

Annualised Loss Expectancy

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31
Q

What does ARO stand for?

A

Annual Rate of Occurrence

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32
Q

What does SLE stand for?

A

Single Loss Expectancy

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33
Q

What is the ALE formula?

A

ALE (Annualised Loss Expectancy) = SLE (Single Loss Expectancy) * ARO (Annual Rate of Occurrence)

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34
Q

What does UBA stand for?

A

User Behavior Analysis

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35
Q

What is UBA?

A

Tracking users and monitoring data for malicious activity

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36
Q

CIA Triad - What are they?

A
  1. Confidentiality (Passwords, Encryption)
  2. Integrity (Hashing, Digital Signatures)
  3. Availability (Anti-Dos Solutions)
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37
Q

What is Bit Flipping?

A

Integrity Attack - Obscure data from users.

38
Q

What is CC commonly referred to?

A

Common Criteria

39
Q

What does EAL stand for?

A

Evaluation Assurance Level

40
Q

EAL - How many levels does it have?

41
Q

What are the 2 Access Control Types?

A
  1. Mandatory (MAC)
  2. Discretionary (DAC)
42
Q

What are the 4 Policy Categorisations

A
  1. Promiscuous - Wide Open
  2. Permissive - Block only known dangers
  3. Pudent - Blocks most, few exceptions
  4. Paranoid - Locks everything down
43
Q

What is a phreaker?

A

Someone that manipulates or hacks telephone systems

44
Q

What are the 4 Attack Types?

A
  1. Operating System
    Vectors: Buffer overflows, Protocol Implementations, software defects, patch levels, authentication schemes
  2. Application Level
    Vectors: Buffer overflows, Bugs, XSS, DoS, SQL Injection, MitM
  3. Misconfiguration
    Examples: Improper permissions of SQL users; Access-list permit all
  4. Shrink-Wrap Code
    Examples: Software defect in version 1.0; Defect in example CGI scripts; Default passwords
45
Q

What are the 5 hacking phases?

A
  1. Reconnaissance
  2. Scanning & Enumeration
  3. Gaining Access
  4. Maintaining Access
  5. Covering Tracks
46
Q

What does SIEM stand for?

A

Security Incident Event Management

47
Q

What does SOC stand for?

A

Security Operations Centre

48
Q

What does SOC stand for?

A

Security Operations Centre

49
Q

What are the 3 simple phases of a Penetration Test?

A
  1. Preparation
  2. Assessment
  3. Post-Assessment
50
Q

What are the 3 Law Categories?

A
  1. Criminal
    Laws that protect public safety and usually have jail time attached
  2. Civil
    Private rights and remedies
  3. Common
    Laws that are based on societal customs
51
Q

What does OSSTMM stand for?

A

Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual

52
Q

Who is OSSTMM maintained by?

A

ISECOM ( Institute for Security and Open Methodologies)

53
Q

OSSTMM - What are the 3 types of compliance?

A
  1. Legislative
    Deals with government regulations (Such as SOX and HIPAA).
  2. Contractual
    Deals with industry / group requirement (Such as PCI DSS).
  3. Standards based
    Deals with practices that must be followed by members of a given group/organization (Such as ITIL ,ISO and OSSTMM itself)
54
Q

What is ISO 27001?

A

Security standard based on the British BS7799 standard, focuses on security governance

55
Q

What is ISO 27002?

A

Standard is a collection of information security guidelines that are intended to help an organization implement, maintain, and improve its information security management.

56
Q

What is NIST-800-53?

A

Catalogs security and privacy controls for federal information systems, created to help
implementation of FISMA

57
Q

What does FISMA stand for?

A

Federal Information Security Modernization Act

58
Q

What is FISMA?

A

A law to codify the authority of the Department of Homeland Security with regards to implementation of information security policies

59
Q

What does FITARA stand for?

A

Federal Information Technology Acquisition Reform Act

60
Q

What is FITARA?

A

A bill that was intended to change the framework that determines how the US GOV purchases technology

61
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

62
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

Law that set’s privacy standards to protect patient medical records and health information shared between doctors, hospitals and insurance providers

63
Q

What does PCI-DSS Stand for?

A

Payment Card Industry - Data Security Standard

64
Q

What is PCI-DSS?

A

Standard for organizations handling Credit
Cards, ATM cards and other POS cards

65
Q

What is COBIT (Control Object for Information and Related Technology)?

A

IT Governance framework and toolset , created by ISACA and ITGI

66
Q

What is SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley Act)?

A

Law that requires publicly traded companies to submit to independent audits and to properly disclose financial information

67
Q

What is GLBA U.S Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act?

A

Law that protects the confidentiality and integrity of personal information that is collected by financial institutions.

68
Q

What does CSIRT stand for?

A

Computer Security Incident Response Team

69
Q

What is purpose of CSIRT?

A

Team provided a single point of contact when reporting computer security incidents

70
Q

What does ITIL stand for?

A

Information Technology Infrastructure Library

71
Q

What is purpose of ITIL?

A

An operational framework developed in the ’80s that standardizes IT management procedures

72
Q

Which of the following is an example of a Single Class A network?
1. 10.0.0.0/8 (255.0.0.0)
2. 172.16.0.0/12 (255.240.0.0)
3. 192.168.0.0/16 (255.255.0.0)

A
  1. 10.0.0.0/8 (255.0.0.0)
73
Q

Which of the following is an example of 16 Class B networks?
1. 10.0.0.0/8 (255.0.0.0)
2. 172.16.0.0/12 (255.240.0.0)
3. 192.168.0.0/16 (255.255.0.0)

A
  1. 172.16.0.0/12 (255.240.0.0)
74
Q

Which of the following is an example of 256 Class C networks?
1. 10.0.0.0/8 (255.0.0.0)
2. 172.16.0.0/12 (255.240.0.0)
3. 192.168.0.0/16 (255.255.0.0)

A
  1. 192.168.0.0/16 (255.255.0.0)
75
Q

What is DLP and what does it do?

A

Data loss prevention: Software detects potential data breaches/data exfiltration transmissions and prevents them by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data while in-use, in-motion, and at-rest

76
Q

What is MDM and what does it do?

A

Mobile Device Management: Software is used for the configuration and securing of mobile devices like smartphones and tablets.

77
Q

What is UTM and what does it consist of?

A

Unified Threat Management: Is a device that combines the functions of a firewall, anti-malware solution, and IDS into a single piece of hardware.

78
Q

Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for ARIN?

A

North America
ARIN (American Registry for Internet Numbers)

79
Q

Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for LACNIC?

A

Latin America
LACNIC (Latin America and Caribbean Network Information Centre)

80
Q

Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for RIPE NCC?

A

Europe, Middle East, Central Asia
RIPE NCC (Réseaux IP Européens Network Coordination Centre)

81
Q

Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for AFRINIC?

A

Africa
AFRINIC (African Network Information Centre)

82
Q

Where is the Regional Internet Registry located for APNIC?

A

Asia/Pacific
APNIC (Asia Pacific Network Information Centre)

83
Q

When does the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) performs external and internal penetration testing among organizations?

A

At least once a year and after any significant upgrade or modification.

84
Q

How is False Negative best described?

A

Happens when no alarm was raised even though an attack has taken place.

85
Q

What are the 5 response types to risk?

A
  1. Acceptance
  2. Avoidance
  3. Transference
  4. Mitigation
  5. Exploitation
86
Q

When does Secondary NS requests a zone transfer from a Primary NS?

A

When a Primary SOA is higher than a Secondary SOA

87
Q

Which of the following represents the initial two commands that an IRC client sends to join an IRC network?

A

USER, NICK

88
Q

How does the TCP Handshake gets terminated?

A

FIN
ACK-FIN
ACK

89
Q

How is True Positive best described?

A

Alert was raised when an attack has taken place.

90
Q

How is True Negative best described?

A

No alert was raised and no attack has taken place.

CEH v11 Revision (15 decks)

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