Essay 5 -Hosea and Matthew Flashcards
How does Matthew 2:15 use Hosea 11:1?
Hosea 11:1 says “out of Egypt I called my son.”
Matthew uses this verse to refer to Christ.
In Matthew Mary and Joseph went to Egypt until the death of Herod.
- Matthew says, “This was to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet, “Out of Egypt I called my son.”
Is Matthew taking Hosea out of context? What are the liberal views on this?
Von Harnack says, we should ignore the NT authors when they rip the OT text out of context. (similar to Origen)
Robert Thomas suggests that every OT passage must be interpreted in its grammatical-historical context regardless of how the NT authors interpreted it.
- Thomas additionally says that NT authors are assigning additional meaning when they interpret it.
What are the necessary conclusions about Robert Thomas’s view of NT usage of the OT?
Robert Thomas suggests that every OT passage must be interpreted in its grammatical-historical context regardless of how the NT authors interpreted it.
This suggests:
1.) there are no multiple meanings in any text.
2.) This claim is that Matthew is then allegorizing the text of Hosea.
- that the NT authors are basically making things up.
What is the Infallible rule of interpreting scripture?
The reformed view of interpreting scripture says the infallible rule of interpretation is scripture itself.
- When there is a question about the true and full sense of any scripture, it may be searched and known by other places that speak more clearly.
Why is Matthew’s use of Hosea appropriate according to the reformed/protestant view?
“Out of Egypt I have called my son.”
Hosea 3:5 tells us, God will call his people out of slavery. He will restore the king to the throne. David will be their king.
- Matthew understands that the verse he quotes is a lynchpin to apply the entire message of Hosea to the person and work of Christ.
How does Paul’s letter to the Romans support Matthews use of Hosea?
Romans 9:22-26 - Paul deals with the subject of Israel and the church. He talks about the ingrafting of the gentiles when Hosea says “not my people” will become “my people.”
How does 1 Peter support Matthews use of Hosea?
1 Peter 2:10, Peter applies the “not my people will become my people” to the NT church.
(same as Romans’ 9:22-26)
