Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Path > ESE Theory VSC321 > Flashcards

ESE Theory VSC321 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Of the following conditions which is likely to produce a primary metabolic alkalosis:

a) diarrhoea
b) excessive breathing from pain
c) excessive positive pressure ventilation
d) pyloric obstruction in a cow

A

pyloric obstruction in a cow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. The measurement of plasma fructosamine is useful for diagnosing which of the following conditions in cats.

a) Diabetes insipidus.
b) Diabetes mellitus.
c) Pre-renal azotaemia
d) Hepatic lipidosis

A

Diabetes mellitus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which of the following enzymes may be falsely elevated with haemolysis of canine blood samples?

a) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and amylase
b) Sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
c) Creatine Kinase (CK) and Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
d) Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

A

c) Creatine Kinase (CK) and Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of following is the preferred anticoagulant to use in blood samples to assess for cell morphology

a) Sodium fluoride
b) Sodium citrate
c) EDTA
d) Lithium heparin

A

c) EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of the following has been associated with peripheral myopathy in Burmese cats?

a) Hyperphosphataemia
b) Hyperkalaemia
c) Hypokalaemia
d) Diabetes mellitus

A

c) Hypokalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. A cation change that is frequently seen in cases with metabolic acidosis is:

a) no change in cation concentration
b) high Na+
c) high K+
d) low K+

A

c) high K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best explanation for arterial blood gas measurements of 38 pCO2 (mm Hg) – should be 40 and 110 pO2 (mm Hg) – slightly high O2, pH 7.28 (acidosis) in an otherwise normal racehorse that came last in a race in which it was favourite.

a) Mild obstructive respiratory dysfunction.
b) Likely pre-race dench with bicarbonate milkshake.
c) Mild restrictive respiratory dysfunction
d) Transient hyperventilation

A

c) Mild restrictive respiratory dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which one of the following is most likely to be associated with proliferative pneumonia

a) Pulmonary oedema secondary to patent ductus arteriosus

b) Diffuse, moderate to marked Type I pneumonocyte hyperplasia

c) Aerogenous bacterial infections such as Klebsiella and Pasteurella species

d) Intoxication with plants containing pyrrolizidine alkaloids

A

d) Intoxication with plants containing pyrrolizidine alkaloids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. The haematology results from a 4 year old male dog follows:
    Red cell count 2.9 L
    Haematocrit 0.26 L
    Reticulocyte count 289 H
    APTT 36s H
    PT 41s H

Which of the following disorders is most consistent with the laboratory data?

a) Regenerative anaemia due to rodenticide toxicosis
b) Non-regenerative anaemia due to chronic blood loss from a duodenal ulcer
c) Regenerative anaemia due to immune mediated thrombocytopenia
d) Regenerative anaemia due to Haemophilia A

A

Regenerative anaemia due to rodenticide toxicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 1 year old Rottweiler with lethargy and vomiting had the following test results:

Analyte Patient Reference range
White blood cell count 39.5 6.0 – 17.0 x109/L
Neutrophils 28.8 3.0 – 11.5 x109/L
Band Neutrophils 4.5 0.0 – 0.4 x109/L
Monocytes 5.9 0.1 – 1.3 x109/L
Lymphocytes 0.3 1.0 – 4.0 x109/L
Eosinophils 0 0.1 – 1.3 x109/L

Which of the following conditions is most consistent with the laboratory data?

a) A stress leukogram
b) An inflammatory leukogram
c) A combination of a stress and an inflammatory leukogram
d) An excitement (physiological) leukogram

A

b) An inflammatory leukogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. A 5-year-old dog is found to have marked elevations in plasma urea and creatinine concentrations. Which one of the following concomitant findings is the most reliable indicator that the dog has pre-renal azotaemia?

a) Hypersthenuria
b) Hyperphosphataemia
c) Hyperproteinaemia
d) A relative erythrocytosis

A

A relative erythrocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which of the following crystals is frequently detected in the urine of animals with ethylene glycol poisoning?

a) Calcium carbonate.
b) Calcium oxalate monohydrate.
c) Ammonium biurate.
d) Magnesium ammonium phosphate.

A

b) Calcium oxalate monohydrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best evidence of renal failure in a bearded dragon?

a) Severe hyperuricacidaemia
b) Polyuria and polydipsia
c) A urine specific gravity of 1.015
d) Elevations in plasma urea and creatinine concentrations

A

d) Elevations in plasma urea and creatinine concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which one of the following is least likely to be associated with a glomerulopathy.

a) Persistent proteinuria
b) Granular and cellular urinary casts
c) Hyperalbuminaemia alongside hypoglobulinaemia.
d) Circulating antigen/antibody complexes.

A

c) Hyperalbuminaemia alongside hypoglobulinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about bilirubin is incorrect?

a) Unconjugated bilirubin is an important lipophilic antioxidant.

b) Excretion of bilirubin by the mammalian foetus first requires conjugation.

c) Unconjugated bilirubin on the surface of enterocytes provides anti-protease activity.

d) Hyperbilirubinaemia can lead to kernicterus.

A

b) Excretion of bilirubin by the mammalian foetus first requires conjugation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A 7 year Maltese terrier had the following clinical pathology data.

Analyte Patient Reference Range
Albumin (g/L) 22 23 – 40 g/L
Globulins (g/L) 25 25 – 45 g/L
Creatinine (umol/L) 186 44 - 150
Urea (mmol/L) 23 2.5 - 10.0
Potassium (mmol/L) 7.9 (3.9 – 5.7)
Sodium (mmol/L) 116 (138 - 153)
Na:K Ratio 14.7 >22
Calcium (mmol/L) 2.46 (1.90 – 2.90)
Phosphate (mmol/L) 1.49 (0.87 – 2.10)
Ca:PO4 ratio 1.65 (1.8 - 3.8)
Urine specific gravity 1.011 -
Which of the following answers is the best explanation for the results?

a) Prerenal azotaemia
b) Dehydration
c) Addison’s disease
d) Interstitial nephritis

A

d) Interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which one of the following is most supportive indicator of chronic renal failure?

a) Isosthenuria and azotaemia.
b) Polyuria and intermittent hyposthenuria.
c) Anuria.
d) Polyuria and polydipsia.

A

a) Isosthenuria and azotaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. An Arab stallion had the following laboratory results:

Analyte Patient Reference range
Total Protein 62 53 - 75 g/L
Albumin 31 27 - 39 g/L
Globulins 31 20 - 40 g/L
A:G Ratio 1.0 0.8 - 1.9
Urea (mmol/L) 35 (5.0 - 9.7)
Creatinine (µmol/L) 548 (92 - 138)
Calcium (mmol/L) 5.7 (2.32 - 3.63)
Phosphorus (mmol/L) 0.3 (0.92 - 1.66)
Urine specific gravity 1.008 -

Given the laboratory data which of the following is the most likely differential diagnosis?

a) Acute rhabdomyolysis
b) Dehydration
c) Chronic interstitial nephritis
d) High protein diet

A

c) Chronic interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. An Arab stallion had the following laboratory results:

Analyte Patient Reference range
Total Protein 62 53 - 75 g/L
Albumin 31 27 - 39 g/L
Globulins 31 20 - 40 g/L
A:G Ratio 1.0 0.8 - 1.9
Urea (mmol/L) 35 (5.0 - 9.7)
Creatinine (µmol/L) 548 (92 - 138)
Calcium (mmol/L) 5.7 (2.32 - 3.63)
Phosphorus (mmol/L) 0.3 (0.92 - 1.66)
Urine specific gravity 1.008 -

Given the laboratory data which of the following is the most likely differential diagnosis?

a) Acute rhabdomyolysis
b) Dehydration -> no its not concentrating
c) Chronic interstitial nephritis
d) High protein diet

A

c) Chronic interstitial nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which of the following lesions could be expected in a horse with a severe cervicospondylomyelopathy at C5-C6?

a) Wallerian degeneration in spinal cord ventral white matter tracts at C1.
b) Poliomyelomalacia at C5-C6
c) Wallerian degeneration in spinal cord dorsal white matter tracts at T1.
d) All of the above.

A

b) Poliomyelomalacia at C5-C6

UNSURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. A 4-year-old, male, domestic longhaired cat had the following test results.

Analytes Patient Reference range
Albumin (g/L) 11 21-37
Urea (mmol/L) 13.7 3-12
Creatinine (µmol/L) 184 86-177
Urine specific gravity 1.038 -
Urine Protein (dipstick) 3+ “none”
Urine blood (dipstick) 1+ “none”
Which one of the following disorders is most consistent with the laboratory data?

a) Prerenal azotaemia and haematuria.
b) Renal azotaemia and glomerulopathy.
c) Prerenal azotaemia and glomerulopathy
d) Renal azotaemia and tubular disease.

A

c) Prerenal azotaemia and glomerulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which of the following outcomes is most likely following aspiration of a large volume of inert paraffin oil into the airways of a horse?

a) Chronic interstitial pneumonia with multiple small granulomatous foci.
b) Fibrinous pleuritis accompanied by underlying bronchopneumonia.
c) Rapid death due to gangrenous pneumonia.
d) Secondary infections and a chronic insidious obstructive respiratory failure.

A

c) Rapid death due to gangrenous pneumonia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Which one of the following statements is true for acute pulmonary oedema?

a) The presence of oedema without hyperaemia suggests a toxic vasogenic mechanism.
b) Oedematous lung is said to be consolidated -> acute means no fluid in alveolar space
c) It initially causes obstructive and then restrictive respiratory failure. -> other way around
d) It is a common outcome of right sided heart failure – wrong, left sided

A

a) The presence of oedema without hyperaemia suggests a toxic vasogenic mechanism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Obstructive respiratory failure could be caused by which of the following?

a) Hydrothorax secondary to hypoproteinaemia.
b) Diaphragmatic hernia.
c) Bullous emphysema
d) Diffuse interstitial fibrosis.

A

c) Bullous emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Pulmonary hypertension is a likely mechanism in which of the following pathological states?

a) Cor pulmonale in broiler ascites syndrome.
b) Dehydration combined with peripheral vasoconstriction.
c) Fibrosing nephropathies.
d) Pulmonic stenosis.

A

a) Cor pulmonale in broiler ascites syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Which of the following is likely to result in eccentric dilation of the left ventricle in a dog.

a) Endocardiosis of the mitral valve
b) Pulmonic artery stenosis
c) Renal fibrosis
d) Right atrioventricular valvular endocarditis

A

a) Endocardiosis of the mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Angiotensin II:

a) is released in response to atrial stretch.
b) causes up-regulation of baroreceptors.
c) causes release of rennin.
d) causes release of aldosterone.

A

d) causes release of aldosterone.

28
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with patent ductus arteriosus in a 4 month old Poodle.
    a) A right to left shunt. – its left to right shunt
    b) A continuous heart murmur.
    c) Severe bradycardia.
    d) Femoral pulse deficits.
A

b) A continuous heart murmur.

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about left-sided congestive heart failure?

a) It causes pulmonary oedema due to pulmonary arterial hypertension.
b) It causes pulmonary oedema due to pulmonary venous hypertension.
c) It causes ventral subcutaneous oedema in horses and cows.
d) It is a common consequence of aortic stenosis.

A

It causes pulmonary oedema due to pulmonary venous hypertension.

30
Q
  1. Aortic thromboembolism commonly occurs:

a) due to vegetative endocarditis of the aortic valve.
b) in dogs with subaortic stenosis.
c) in horses due to migrating parasites.
d) as a secondary consequence of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

as a secondary consequence of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

31
Q
  1. Myocarditis due to Toxoplasmosis is most likely to cause death by which of the following mechanisms.

a) Right sided cardiac failure.
b) Inducing ventricular premature contractions.
c) Thromboembolism.
d) Left sided cardiac failure

A

Inducing ventricular premature contractions

32
Q
  1. Which one of the following is correct in regard to the pathogenesis of diarrhoea in animals?

a) In swine dysentery, diarrhoea is associated mainly with changes in intestinal permeability.
b) In enteroinvasive E.coli infection, diarrhoea primarily is associated with hypersecretion.
c) In hypersecretory diarrhoea, chloride is secreted from the villous tips
d) In rotavirus infection, diarrhoea primarily is associated with changes in intestinal permeability

A

In rotavirus infection, diarrhoea primarily is associated with changes in intestinal permeability

33
Q
  1. Which one of the following is correct in regard to enterotoxigenic E.coli infection in piglets?

a) Diarrhoea is associated with inflammation of the epithelium and permeability changes.
b) Affected pigs are best treated with broad spectrum oral antibiotics.
c) Affected pigs are best treated with oral fluids containing sodium and dextrose.
d) In most cases, the diarrhoea is mild and treatment is not required.

A

Affected pigs are best treated with oral fluids containing sodium and dextrose

34
Q
  1. Which one of the following is correct in regard to Johne’s disease in cattle?

a) The pathogenesis of the diarrhoea is similar to acute salmonellosis
b) Hypoalbuminaemia is a feature of the disease.
c) Clinical signs are usually apparent from 6 months of age
d) Diarrhoea always is present

A

Hypoalbuminaemia is a feature of the disease.

35
Q
  1. With respect to coccidiosis in bird species which one of the following is most likely to cause the most severe lesions and clinical signs?

a) Schizogony in the crypts of the duodenum
b) Gamogony in the caecae
c) Extra-intestinal replication phases.
d) Schizogony in the tips of the villi of the midgut.

A

Schizogony in the crypts of the duodenum -> this is stage they invade enterocytes

36
Q
  1. A foal is weak and lethargic 48 hours after birth but has failed to pass faeces due to meconium impaction. The foal was normal at birth and began suckling vigorously at 1 hour of age. Clinical examination showed icteric mucous membranes and the urine was red-tinged. Which of the following should be done as the highest priority?

a) Urinalysis to check concentration and evidence of nephritis.
b) PCV and check for haemoglobinaemia.
c) Plasma biochemistry to check liver enzymes and azotaemia.
d) Saline enema to improve defecation

A

PCV and check for haemoglobinaemia.

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is not involved in the pathogenesis of red maple leaf poisoning.

a) Severe oxidative damage to myocytes.
b) Hypoglycin interfers with β-oxidation of fatty acids.
c) Myoglobinuric nephrosis.
d) Polymyositis and fibrosis of type 2C and 2A muscles.

A

Polymyositis and fibrosis of type 2C and 2A muscles.

38
Q
  1. Normal serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) concentration is most likely to be associated with which one of the following conditions?

a) Phenobarbital use in dogs -> does increase
b) Animals less than 6 months of age.
c) Hyperadrenocorticism in dogs -> does increase
d) Dexamethasone use in cats

A

Dexamethasone use in cats

39
Q
  1. A 2 year old kelpie with a history of vomiting, diarrhoea and dark red urine had the following clinical pathology data.

Analyte Patient Reference Interval
Creatinine 239 44 - 150 umol/L
Urea 21.2 2.5 - 9.5 mmol/L
CK 3799 50 - 400 U/L
AST 3335 10 - 80 U/L
ALP 128 10 - 120 U/L
ALT 2179 5 - 80 U/L
Glucose (unpreserved) 3.1 3.3 - 6.7 mmol/L
Bilirubin 5 2 - 15 umol/L

Which of the following is the best explanation for the history, clinical signs and clinical pathology data?
a) Immune mediated haemoglobinuria.
b) Leptospirosis causing acute hepatic necrosis.
c) Myoglobinuric nephrosis. -> AST more than ALP
d) End stage chronic renal failure.

A

Leptospirosis causing acute hepatic necrosis.

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best example of a primary skin lesion.

a) Wheal
b) Alopecia
c) Leukoderma
d) Ulcer

A

Wheal

41
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with an atrophic dermatosis
    a) Demodex infection in a dog.
    b) PPID in a horse.
    c) Dermatophyte infection.
    d) Hyperadrenocorticism in a dog.
A

Hyperadrenocorticism in a dog.

42
Q
  1. Histopathological sections of liver from a pup that died suddenly demonstrated widespread, multifocal to coalescing areas of coagulative necrosis with occasional hepatocytes exhibiting karyomegaly and globular basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions. At the margins of affected necrotic foci were zones of hepatocellular pyknosis and karyorrhexis.

Which of the following tests is the most likely cause of this lesions?

a) Canine circovirus infection
b) Tyzzer’s disease
c) Canine parvovirus infection
d) Canine herpesvirus infection

A

Canine circovirus infection

43
Q
  1. A 6 year-old pony with severe photosensitisation had the following test results.

Analyte Patient Reference range
Total Protein (g/L) 62 53 – 75
Albumin (g/L) 31 27 - 39
Globulins (g/L) 31 20 - 40
Fibrinogen (g/L) 3.6 1.0 – 4.0
Serum Amyloid A (mg/L) 325.6 < 7.0
ALP (IU/L) 459 99 – 262
AST (IU/L) 340 219 – 473
GGT (IU/L) 272 11 – 63
Bilirubin (mol/L) 53.6 17 – 41

Which of the following disorders is most consistent with the laboratory data?
a) Acute hepatitis
b) Pyrrolizidine alkaloid poisoning.
c) Cholangitis
d) Hepatic lipidosis

A

Cholangitis

44
Q
  1. A wire foreign body that encircled the fetlock of a cow induced massive irregular osseous proliferation circumferentially encasing the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints causing fusion of the joint. Which of the following in the best morphological diagnosis for this lesion
    a) Severe osteoarthritis and osteomyelitis, fetlock
    b) Severe chronic proliferative osteoarthritis, ankylosing
    c) Chronic, metacarpophalangeal panosteitis
    d) Hypertrophic osteopathy, severe, chronic
A

Severe chronic proliferative osteoarthritis, ankylosing

45
Q
  1. Pain is a common cause of lameness, and this pain may originate from the______

a) joint capsule.
b) periosteum/endosteum.
c) articular cartilage.
d) bone marrow.

A

a) joint capsule.
b) periosteum/endosteum.

46
Q
  1. Which of the following combinations of tests provides the best biochemical assessment of skeletal muscle damage?

a) Aspartate aminotransferase and creatine kinase.
b) Alkaline phosphatase and creatinine.
c) Sorbitol dehydrogenase and myoglobin.
d) Aspartate aminotransferase and creatinine.

A

Aspartate aminotransferase and creatine kinase.

47
Q
  1. A goat has a sudden onset of clinical signs of blindness, depression, head pressing, and anorexia that progress to recumbency with opisthotonus and nystagmus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.

a) Caprine arthritis-encaphalitis virus (CAEV) infection
b) Listeriosis
c) Polioencephalomalacia
d) Toxoplasmosis

A

Polioencephalomalacia

48
Q
  1. A two-year-old Cocker spaniel with neurological signs had the following test results:

Analyte Patient Reference range
Urea (mmol/L) 3.8 2.5 – 8.4
Creatinine (mol/L) 27 75 – 138
ALT (IU/L) 55 3 – 58
ALP (IU/L) 130 9 – 185
Fasting Bile acids (umol/L) 120 < 10
Fasting Ammonia (umol/L) 326 < 50

Which of the following disorders is most consistent with the laboratory data?
a) Acute hepatocellular damage
b) Cholestasis – does not increase ammonia
c) Chronic hepatopathy
d) Cholangiohepatitis

A

Cholangiohepatitis

49
Q
  1. On clinical examination, an 11 year old male dog is discovered to have bilaterally symmetrical alopecia, enlarged mammary glands, and a pendulous prepuce. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings.
    a) Sertoli cell neoplasm.
    b) Pituitary adenoma of the pars distalis.
    c) Prostatic adenocarcinoma.
    d) Perianal hepatoid gland adenoma.
A

Sertoli cell neoplasm.

50
Q
  1. A 6-month old kitten is being evaluated because of abnormal curvature of the legs. Radiographs of the skeleton show multiple healing fractures and generalized osteopaenia. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a) Disuse osteopaenia.
b) Scurvy.
c) Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism.
d) Rickets

A

Rickets

51
Q
  1. Histopathological examination of a section of liver from a pademelon revealed multifocal, coalescing areas of coagulative necrosis involving widespread hepatocyte parenchyma and supporting vascular structures and bile ducts. Some of the larger blood vessels and bile ducts are also involved in coagulative necrosis with thrombi present along with variable to massive numbers of relatively monomorphic Gram negative filamentous bacteria up to 10 μm long and 1 μm wide.

Which of the following is the best morphological diagnosis for this case?

a) Severe acute necrotising hepatitis
b) Fusobacteriosis
c) Black’s disease
d) Periacinar hepatic necrosis

A

Severe acute necrotising hepatitis

52
Q

Trauma to the distal ulnar growth plate is likely to be associated with more serious clinical consequences than most other growth plate injuries because:

a) the two bones in the forearm require synchronous growth.
b) the conical shape of distal ulnar growth predisposes it to lateral displacement injury.
c) the distal ulnar growth plate is the only growth plate in the growing ulna.
d) shortening of the forelimb is more disabling than shortening of the hindlimb.

A

the two bones in the forearm require synchronous growth.

53
Q

Osteochondrosis is a disease which:

a) occurs only in giant breeds of dog.
b) occurs at a higher frequency in males compared to female animals.
c) can involve articular cartilage or growth plates
d) is due to a defect in insulin-like growth factor-I (IGF-I) gene in racehorse

A

b) occurs at a higher frequency in males compared to female animals
c) can involve articular cartilage or growth plates

54
Q
  1. With respect to bone neoplasia in the dog:

a) Osteosarcomas have a characteristic radiographic pattern
b) Multiple myeloma tends to cause lytic lesions in the bone marrow
c) They always carry a poor prognosis due to pulmonary metastasis.
d) They usually present clinically as painful acute lameness.

A

Multiple myeloma tends to cause lytic lesions in the bone marrow

55
Q
  1. The test results from a six year-old, male neutered, Toy poodle with hypercalcaemia included:

Analyte Patient Reference range
Urea (mmol/L) 12 (3.6 – 10.7)
Creatinine (µmol/L) 156 (92 - 138)
Calcium (mmol/L) 4.46 (2.25 – 2.85)
Parathyroid hormone (pg/mL) 1130. (<145)
Parathyroid hormone related peptide (pmol/L) 0.8 (<1.3)
Urine specific gravity 1.032

Which of the following disorders is most consistent with the laboratory data?

a) Hypercalaemia of malignancy.
b) Renal insufficiency.
c) Primary hyperparathyroidism.
d) Hypoadrenocorticism.

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism.

56
Q
  1. Radiographic findings in an aged Labrador dog with a stiff gait demonstrated extensive bridging osteophyte formation along the ventral aspects of the lumbar vertebral column. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Discospondylosis
b) Discospondylitis
c) Multicentric vertebral osteoma
d) Multiple exostoses

A

Discospondylosis

57
Q
  1. A bone involucrum is:

a) an area of bone demineralization
b) a reactive osseous proliferation surrounding osteomyelitis and sequestrum
c) an area of periosteal reaction
d) a piece of bone sitting free in a joint

A

a reactive osseous proliferation surrounding osteomyelitis and sequestrum

58
Q
  1. An otherwise healthy 9 year-old Great Dane dog has become acutely lame after exercise. Radiographs of the affected forelimb reveal lysis in the distal radial metaphysis. Which of the following is the best course of action to diagnose the most likely cause of these findings?

a) Thoracic radiography.
b) Biopsy and histopathology of the affected radius.
c) Biopsy and histopathology of the axillary lymph node.
d) A short course of anti-inflammatory medication and wait for a clinical response.

A

Biopsy and histopathology of the affected radius.

59
Q
  1. The haematology results from an 11 year old dog revealed mild non-regenerative anaemia. Biochemistry results showed moderate elevation in ALP (2.5 x normal) and severe hypercholesterolaemia. Which of the following tests should be recommended to further investigate the most likely diagnosis?
    a) Cortisol
    b) Total T4
    c) Endogenous ACTH
    d) Fructosamine
A

Total T4

60
Q
  1. Which of the following can occur with mobilisation of labile bone in reproductively active parrots.
    a) Transient hypocalcaemia.
    b) Secondary lead poisoning due release from bone stores.
    c) Metabolic fractures.
    d) Soft-shelled eggs.
A

Absolutely no idea

a,c and d

61
Q
  1. Rickets is a disease which has been associated with:

a) Severe dietary deficiency of calcium.
b) Congenital arthrogryposis.
c) Late autumn lambing and overcast winters in lower altitude regions of Australia.
d) Angus and other heavily pigmented cattle.

A

Severe dietary deficiency of calcium.

62
Q

Which of the following is the most likely definitive diagnosis of a sheep that died suddently with few gross pathological findings however with histopathological evidence of widespread cerebral congestion and severe perivascular oedema in the brain mainly affecting the inside vessels throughout the parenchyma?

a. Hypocalcaemia
b. Polioencephalomalacia
c. Enterotoxaemia
d. Cranial ryegrass staggers

A

Enterotoxaemia

63
Q

Which of the following lesions is pathopneumonic for salt poisoning or the deprivation syndrome in pigs

A

Eosinophilic meningitis

64
Q

Migrating larvae of which of the following zoonotic organisms is an important cause of meningoencephalitis in wild and domesticated birds and mammals in Aus
a. Strongylis vulgaris
b. Neosporum
c. Angiostrongylus – rat lungworm
d. Ascardidia

A

Angiostrongylus – rat lungworm

65
Q

The paCO2 is a measure of:

a) CO2 dissolved in plasma and the unit is mmolL-1
b) partial pressure of Co2 in the blood and the unit is mmHg
c) Co2 dissolved in plasma and the unit is mmHg
d) CO2 plus HCO3- in blood and the unit is mmolL-1

A

partial pressure of Co2 in the blood and the unit is mmHg

66
Q

A dog presenting with acute renal failure is likely to have an acid base distrubance recognised by:

a) low pH, a BD, a reduced HCO3- and reduced paCO2 from a physiological compensation

b) low pH, a BE, a reduced HCO3- and reduced paCO2 from physiological compensation

c) low pH, a BD, no change in HCO3 and no change in paCO2 from physiological compensation

d) no change in pH, a BD, no change in HCO3- and no change in paCO2 from physiolgical compensation

A

Low pH, a BD, a reduced HCO3- and reduced paCO2 from a physiological compensation

67
Q

A cation change that is frequently seen in cases with metabolic acidosis is

a) no change in cation concentration
b) high Na+
c) high K+
d) low K+

A

high K+

Clinical Path (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions