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Part 4 Systems > Eric "skyhawk" Reynolds vs. Bruce the big man > Flashcards

Eric "skyhawk" Reynolds vs. Bruce the big man Flashcards

1
Q

What redundancy is built into a large aircraft electrical system?

A

Multiple systems

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2
Q

What type of electricity can be found on large aircraft?

A

AC and DC

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3
Q

Which form of electricity is more common on aircraft? Why?

A

AC

Alternators are lighter weight for same output

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4
Q

What is the general configuration of an aircraft electrical system?
What are the three types?

A

AC circuit powered by an alternator on each engine feeding a BUS.

Split
Parallel
Split/Parallel

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5
Q

Describe the split BUS system? What options are available in an engine failure?

A

Generator 1 will power BUS 1 in normal ops
Aircraft usually split into Left/Right side circuits on each BUS

Can be linked manually to BUS 2 in an emergency

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6
Q

Describe the Parallel BUS system

A

All generators are tied to a common BUS which powered all circuits

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7
Q

Describe the Split/Parallel BUS System

A
  • Usually found of 3/4 engine aircraft
  • Left hand engine generators work in parallel to supply Left BUS
  • Right hand engine generators work in parallel to power Right BUS
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8
Q

What are the advantages of AC?

A
  • Lighter weight for same power output
  • Alternators produce more current per RPM
  • Can be rectified to produce DC, or provides AC
  • Can be transmitted long distances more readily
  • Circuit breaker operate better under high loads at high altitudes
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9
Q

What is an Electrical BUS?

A

A common bar, off which several electrical components or systems can be powered
This allows circuits to be prioritised based on which BUS they are connected to if there is a supply breakdown

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10
Q

How can AC be produced from DC? In what circumstance would this be required?

A

An inverter can off a DC generator
A Static inverter can produce AC off a DC battery
most common in an emergency

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11
Q

What must happen before AC generators are connected in parallel?

A

Output voltage, frequency and phase rotation must be the same

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12
Q

When is emergency lighting required?

What are the requirements of the emergency lighting system?

A
  • After a total power failure
  • In an emergency evacuation

Needs to be armed
Automatically activated after failure of primary lighting power

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13
Q

What things can aircraft lighting systems illuminate?

A

Cargo compartments
Pilot instrument panel
Passenger cabin
External poisiton and landing lights

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14
Q

What does CSD stand for? What is its purpose?

A

Constant Speed drive

A unit that allows the Alternator to always have a constant speed, allowing it to output 400Hz electricity

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15
Q

Describe the CSD? how does it work?

A

Hydromechanical drive similar to a car gearbox

  • Mechanical governors maintain constant output
  • Fine adjustments made by frequency controller
  • Constant speed function is similar to the function of a propeller system
  • Has a fixed displacement and variable displacement hydraulic pump
  • Independent oil system
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16
Q

What are the components of the Constant Speed Drive unit?

A 
Input shaft
Hydraulic unit (variable & fixed displacement hydraulic pumps)
Differential unit
Control cylinder
Governor 
Output shaft
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17
Q

What system is incorporated into the CSD unit to account for a generator or gearbox malfunction? What switch will activate this system?

A
  • GEN DISC switch in cockpit opens solenoid
  • Dog clutch opens and will break drive between engine and gearbox
  • Cannot be reset in flight

*Prevents having to shutdown the engine to prevent the system from malfunctioning

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18
Q

What is the Airbus vs Boeing terminology for the CSD?

A

B: Integrated drive generators (IDG)
A: Integrated constant speed drive (ICSD)

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19
Q

What areas does the cabin a/c and pressurisation system provide air to? why?

A

=Cabin and Cockpit - to heat and cool and provide pressurisation
=Cargo compartments - pet often travel in these
=Avionics and equipment bays - to prevent condensation after heat build up

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20
Q

What is PD? Why does it exist and how does it change as the aircraft altitude increases?

A

Pressure differential - exists because the cabin altitude is set to 8000ft
As altitude increases past 8000ft the pressure differential will increase

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21
Q

How can pressure differential be controlled?

A

A rate controller controls the outflow of air from the fuselage based on pilot settings and altitude
Outflow rate is maintained at a lower rate than the air conditioning inflow until desired PD is reached

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22
Q

What controls the vertical speed of the cabin

A

Rate controller - it is the same as controlling the pressure differential

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23
Q

What pressure differentials can be expected on a light piston, a large piston, or a jet transport aircraft?

A

Light piston: 3-5 psi
Large Piston: 5.5
Jet transport: 9psi (aim is for 8.9)

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24
Q

What controls the position of the outflow valve?

A

Cabin pressure controller

Manually or automatically controlled

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25
Q

How can a typical environmental system be controlled? What selections can be made?

A

Cockpit control panel:
Simple system: Off, normal or Ram air selections
Modern system: temperature control for different zones with actual temp indications also given. Can have different temperatures the cockpit and cabin

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26
Q

What elements are incorporated into the cockpit control panel of the environmental and pressurisation system?

A
  • Provision for duplicated systems
  • If APU has capability, its selector
  • Controls & Emergency controls
  • Instrumentation
  • Warning lights associated with CWS
  • Baro Pressure selector
  • Landing altitude selector
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27
Q

What safety valves are part of the environmental and pressurisation system? How does each work?

A
  • Outflow valve (pressure control valve in normal ops)
  • Pressure relief valve (operates automatically)
  • Negative pressure valve (automatically stops cabin alt being higher than aircraft alt)
  • Emergency depressurisation valve (operated by WoW switch or activated through cockpit controls)
  • Emergency cabin altitude control
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28
Q

What is the location of:

  • Negative pressure valve
  • pressure relief valve
  • emergency depressurisation valve
  • emergency cabin altitude control
  • emergency depressurisation control
  • Cabin pressure control valve
A
  • Negative pressure valve: Rear of aircraft
  • Pressure relief valve: Rear of aircraft
  • Emergency depressurisation valve: fuselage behind cockpit
  • emergency cabin altitude control: cockpit
  • emergency depressurisation control :cockpit
  • Cabin pressure control valve: Central fuselage in middle of wing
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29
Q

Describe how the vapour cycle air conditioning works

A
  • Continuous cycle
  • Refrigerant absorbs latent heat from cabin air
  • Refrigerant temp does not change but changes state from liquid to gas
  • Refrigerant is now in gaseous form and flows to a heat exchanger outside the aircraft.
  • Refrigerant releases latent heat and becomes a liquid again
  • Process repeats
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30
Q

What is the most common refrigerant used in air conditioning systems? Why?

A

Di-chloro-di-fluro-methane (called Refrigerant 12, R12, Freon 12)

  • Stable at high and low temps
  • Does not react with materials in system
  • Colourless
  • Practically odourless
31
Q

What are the 2 oxygen delivery systems in use on aircraft and what are the advantages of each?

A

Continuous flow system:

  • Simplest
  • Automatically actuated
  • Immediate and continuous flow of O2

Pressure Demand system:

  • Delivers oxygen in response to user breathing suction
  • Prolongs O2 supply
  • Diluter demand regulator dilutes O2 with suitable amount of atmospheric air
  • Dilution ratio adjustable in case of smoke/contaminants
32
Q

What are the limitations of the Pressure demand O2 system?

A

-Dilution with atmospheric air limited to 34,000ft or below

33
Q

What are the advantages of chemical Oxygen systems compared to gaseous oxygen?

A
  • Requires less space
  • Less equipment
  • Less maintenance
34
Q

What are the disadvantages of chemical oxygen systems compared to gaseous systems?

A
  • Higher fire hazard
  • Not tamperproof
  • Won’t turn off
35
Q

What fire protection systems are usually included on large transport aircraft?

A

Fire detection
Overheat detection
Smoke detection
Fire extinguishing system

36
Q

How does an automatically fired fire extinguishing system work? Where are they normally located?

A

Some cargo compartments and toilets

  • Fire bottle fitted with eutectic head (also called squib)
  • Squib melts at 70-75˚C
  • Melted squib allows extinguishing agent to exit the bottle
  • Bottle discharges into a line which is sprayed into the compartment
37
Q

What are the 4 types of extinguishing agent? How does each one work?

A

Water: cools fire, excludes Oxygen
Carbon Dioxide: Displaces Oxygen in atmosphere
Dry Chemical: Smothers fire/excludes oxygen
Halogenated Hydrocarbons (freon): Chemically interferes with combustion

38
Q

What is a halogenated hydrocarbon (freons)?

A

Low toxicity airborne fire extinguishing agent

Freon type is a successor to CO2 extinguishers

39
Q

What are the advantages of Halogenated hydrocarbons as an extinguishing agent?

A
  • Low concentration is effective (allows people to still breath, 2% concentration vs 40% in CO2)
  • Can be used in occupied pax compartments
  • Effective on all 3 types of fires
  • No residue remains after use
40
Q

Describe the thermal loop switch? What type of electricity is provided?

A
  • 28V DC applied to both paths of thermal loop switch
  • If fire occurs, wires will expand
  • Contact between loops will close the circuit to ground
  • Thermal loop switches arranged in parallel
41
Q

What happens to the fire detection circuit at other points if a fire is only detected by one of the thermal loop switches?

A

The rest of the circuit will still provide fire protection surveillance at the remaining points

42
Q

How does the thermal loop test switch work?

A
  • Test switch tests the entire loop

- Shows operator if an open circuit is present in the power input lead of the loop

43
Q

What will a short circuit in the thermal loop switch do?

A

-Cause a false fire warning indication

44
Q

What happens to the fire detection system indicator (aka fire alarm) at night?

A

Dimming relay provides low voltage to the light

45
Q

What is the principle of operation of the pneumatic fire detection system?

A
  • Gas in tube expands when heated
  • When trigger temp is reached gas pressure overcomes check valve and flows to right side of diaphram
  • This forces diaphragm contacts to the left onto the alarm contacts
  • Alarm circuit is closed`
46
Q

What is the advantage of the pneumatic fire detection system if the fire is no longer sensed?

A
  • Gas will return to a low pressure
  • Diaphragm will force gas back into tube
  • System is effectively reset, ready for another operation
47
Q

What is the principle of operation of the flame detector system?

A
  • Infrared detectors receive directed or reflected rays from flame
  • Detectors located in engine nacelle
  • When IR rays detected signal is sent to an amplifier
  • Amplifier powers an alarm in the cockpit

Self resetting to standby state

48
Q

What is the principle of operation of the smoke detection system?

A
  • Photoelectric cells have alight directed at them
  • If sufficient smoke present, reference beam is interrupted and alarm is triggered

Self resetting to standby state

49
Q

Is a photoelectric sensor commonly used on gas turbine engines? Why/Why not?

A

No

  • Cannot detect hot air leaks
  • Hot air leaks are a common malfunction, which can cause fire if directed at fuel or oil lines
50
Q

What high temperature states can the fire and smoke detection system differentiate between?

A

Overheat
Hot air leak
Actual fire

51
Q

What pressure does the engine fire extinguishing bottle operate at?

A

500-600 PSI

52
Q

What is the principle of operation of the fire extinguishing bottle

A
  • Relief valve is a fusible disc which will rupture in an overheat
  • To discharge electrical current applied to contactor which detonates an explosive cartridge
  • Shatters disc located in bottle outlet
  • extinguishing agent flows into the engine
53
Q

Describe how fire extinguishers can be cross-fed?

A
  • Distribution system allows for number 1 bottle to be used in number 1 engine, as well as number 2 bottle in number 1 engine
  • Same is also true in reverse
54
Q

What things affects the effectiveness of primary flight controls?

A
  • Aerodynamic force (by the amount of deflection, and speed of airflow)
  • The moment are from the CoG
55
Q

What can happen when controls are used at high speeds, in structures that are inherently flexible?

A

The resulting force may can the wing to twist about its torsional axis

56
Q

How are large aircraft control surfaces designed to prevent torsional rotation when flying at high speeds? how does this system work? What is the additional benefit of this?

A

Flight controls are split

  • At low speeds they are operated in tandem
  • At high speeds lockout system automatically actuated when ADC signal is received.
  • Added benefit of providing redundancy
57
Q

Describe the split control systems for the roll primary controls?

A

Ailerons are split

-At high speeds only inboard sections may be used, or flaperons/elevons may be used

58
Q

What features may be designed for primary and secondary controls on a large aircraft? Swept wings/modern flexible aircraft?

A
  • Controls split into multiple sections
  • Flying tailplanes
  • All moving wing tips
  • All moving tailplanes
59
Q

Describe the lift augmentation system on large aircraft? What does it consist of and when is it used?

A
  • Used during takeoff and landing to reduce speeds
  • Form part of the aerofoil at high speeds
  • Slats, slots, leading and trailing and leading edge flaps, fowler flaps
60
Q

What issues can arise with power boosted controls in the high subsonic and transonic range?

A

Control buffeting from shockwaves
Vibrations fed back into the control system
Systems in place to prevent this from reaching pilot, however this means pilots have no control feel

61
Q

How do pilot controls actually actuate flight controls in heavy aircraft? How do they get control ‘feel’?

A
  • Actuate control valves
  • Control valves direct hydraulic fluid to control surface actuators
  • Known as the Power Control Unit (PCU)

Control feel is built into the system to give stick force proportional to flight loads on the control surfaces

62
Q

What is the type of halogenated hydrocarbon that is used in aircraft extinguishers?

A

Halogen 1301 (Halon 1301)

Bromo-trifluro-methane

63
Q

What is the purpose of position transducers in the Fly-by-wire system? Describe the path of electrical signals to actuate the controls?

A

Position transducer convert flight crew command input to electrical signals

  • Signals go to actuator control electronics
  • There signals converted to digital format
  • Digital signals sent to primary flight computers
64
Q

What functions does the primary flight computers provide in the fly-by-wire system?

A
  • Pilot input can be analysed
  • If pilot input outside the operating envelope signals can be modified to stay within the correct envelope
  • Can be operated through IFS system to give auto flight control
  • Feed flight control position data to flight data recorder
65
Q

What aircraft components are employed during an auto landing?

A
  • Autopilot(s)
  • Auto-thrust
  • Radio altimeter
  • Nose wheel steering

-Auto-brake (not integral part)

66
Q

What cautions should be noted when flying an auto land on CAT 1, or CAT2/3 when not in poor vis configurations?

A
  • Some CAT1 systems not suitable when below minimal due to offset ground stations
  • When carrying out Auto-land tests/currency in good weather ATC may not be protecting Critical areas
67
Q

What happens at 1500ft AGL of an ILS/GLS approach when in Approach mode is active?

A
  • Self test mode
  • Electrical system automatically reconfigures to isolate various electrical inputs (to enhance robustness)
  • Once completed auto land status message will be displayed
68
Q

In what cases will the pilots have to activate reverse thrust?

A

All cases

69
Q

What is a fail operational auto land system capable of doing? what does it require?

A
  • Has 2 autopilots engaged
  • Has no decision height
  • Failure of one AP will still allow the approach to be continued
70
Q

What is a fail passive auto land system capable of doing? What does it require?

A
  • associate with at least a single autopilot approach
  • AP failure will not cause anything drastic, but PF should immediately take control and carry out Missed approach unless sufficient visual reference
  • Lowest allowable DA is normally 50ft AGL
71
Q

What is the gain program in the final stages of an auto land? What situation must the aircraft be in for it to happen? (Ap modes/actual position on the approach)

A
  • Part of the approach mode of AFDS
  • As aircraft approaches DA, localiser becomes more sensitive requiring less control input
  • Expands localiser display to assist pilot in judging appropriate an appropriate control input to maintain localiser course
72
Q

Where does air get taken from in a piston engine air conditioning system?

A

Leading edge air scoop

Engine superchargers

73
Q

What occurs at 300, 200 and 100ft AGL during an auto land?

A

300ft: glideslope sensitivity reduced
200ft: longitudinal axis is aligned with ILS ‘runway’
100ft: AoA protection is inhibited to allow the flare

Part 4 Systems (4 decks)

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