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FINALS BAWI SEASON > ERGO FINALS > Flashcards

ERGO FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

OVAKO WORKING POSTURE ASSESSMENT SYSTEM is developed by what company?
Where?
When?

A

Ovako Oy.
Finland
mid-1970s

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2
Q

OWAS posture Classification system includes:

A

Neck,
Trunk,
Lower Body
Arms

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3
Q

_____ Measure exposure for dose-response models

A

Epidemiology

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4
Q

Weakness of OWAS (4)

A

▪ Posture categories are rather broad for the trunk and shoulders.
▪ No information on duration of postures.
▪ Method does not separate left and right arms.
▪ Method gives no information for the elbow or wrist

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5
Q

developed to evaluate the exposure of individual workers to ergonomic risk factors associated with upper extremity MSD.

A

RULA

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6
Q

The RULA ergonomic assessment tool considers biomechanical and postural load requirements of job tasks/demands on the ___, ____ , and _______.

A

Neck, trunk, upper extremities

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7
Q

The RULA worksheet is used to evaluate required ________, ______, and
______.

A

BODY POSTURE, FORCE, REPETITION

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8
Q

RULA steps to be taken by the evaluator in preparing for the assessment are as follows? (2)

A

◼ Evaluated to gain an understanding of the jobs tasks and demands
◼ Observing the worker’s movements and postures during several work cycles

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9
Q

Selection of the postures to be evaluated should be based on: (3)

A
  • Difficult Postures
  • Sustained Postures
  • Highest force loads
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10
Q

RULA worksheet is divided into 2 body segment sections on labeled A and B. A for __________ and B for _______

A

A = ARm and Wrist
B for Neck trunk and Legs.

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11
Q

In RULA, the evaluator should score the _________ and _______ first. then _____, __, ______ posutres.

A

Arm and Wrist first.

Then, Neck, trunk and Legs

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12
Q

This ergonomic assessment tool uses a systematic process to evaluate
“whole body postural” MSD and risks associated with job tasks.

A

REBA

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13
Q

REBA’s single page worksheet is used to evaluate required or selected____, -_____, ______, ______, and ________.

A

– body posture,
– forceful exertions,
– type of movement or action,
– repetition,
– and coupling

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14
Q

Using the REBA worksheet, the evaluator will assign a score for each of the following body regions: (Give 8 body parts)

A

– Neck
– Shoulders
– Trunk
– Back
– Elbows
– Wrist
– Knees
– Legs

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15
Q

The REBA worksheet is divided into two body segment sections on the labeled A and B.
– Section A (left side) covers the ______, ______, and _____.
– Section B (right side) covers the ______ and ______.

A

A = Neck, Trunk, Leg
B = Arm and Wrist

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16
Q

In REBA, Score _____, _____, ____ first.
Then Score ______, ____, _______

A

– Trunk, Neck, Legs. FIRST
– Upper Arms, Lower Arms, Wrists Second

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17
Q

_________ is a tool used by occupational health and safety professionals to assess the manual material handling risks associated with lifting and lowering tasks in the workplace.

A

Revised NIOSH Lifting Equation

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18
Q

__________ defined as the act of manually grasping an object with two hands, and vertically moving the object without mechanical assistance.

A

Lifting task

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19
Q

________ is widely accepted as valid in the field of occupational ergonomics, providing occupational health and safety professionals an objective ergonomic risk assessment tool for manual material handling tasks.

A

The NIOSH Lifting Equation

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20
Q

WHAT IS THE NIOSH LIFTING EQUATION?????????????? ANONG FORMULA????

A

𝑹𝑾𝑳 = 𝑳𝑪 𝒙 𝑯𝑴 𝒙 𝑽𝑴 𝒙 𝑫𝑴 𝒙 𝑨𝑴 𝒙 𝑭𝑴 𝒙 𝑪𝑴

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21
Q

____________- defines the maximum acceptable weight (load) that nearly all healthy employees could lift over the course of an 8-hour shift without increasing the risk of musculoskeletal disorders (MSD) to the lower back

A

RWL = Recommended Weight Limit
Is this weight too heavy?

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22
Q

_________ is calculated to provide a relative “estimate of the level of physical stress” and
MSD risk associated “with the manual lifting” tasks evaluated.

A

Lifting Index.

How significant is the risk?

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23
Q

A Lifting Index value of ___________ indicates a NOMINAL RISK TO HEALTHY employees

A

1.0 or less

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24
Q

A Lifting Index of value __________ denotes that the
the task is high risk for some fraction of the population.

A

greater than 1.0

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25
Q

True or False:
As the LI increases, the level of injury risk increases correspondingly.

A

True, duh

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26
Q

Individual Multipliers that determine _______ can be used to identify specific weaknesses in the design.

A

RWL

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27
Q

The _____ can be used to estimate the relative physical stress and injury risk for a task or job.

A

LI

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28
Q

The NIOSH Lifting Equation always uses a load constant (LC) of ______ pounds

A

51 pounds or 23 kg

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29
Q

TRUE or FALSE

From that starting point, the equation uses several task variables expressed as coefficients or multipliers (In the equation, M = multiplier) that serve to “increase” the load constant and calculate the RWL for that lifting task.

A

False. DECREASE dapat

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30
Q

Task variables needed to calculate the RWL:

A

H = Horizontal location of the object relative to the body
V = Vertical location of the object relative to the floor
D = Distance the object is moved vertically
A = Asymmetry angle or twisting requirement
F = Frequency and duration of lifting activity
C = Coupling or quality of the worker’s grip on the object
L = Average & maximum Load or weight of the object

acronym para madali imemorize:
—- Happy Virtth Day Alleluya For Christ Lord

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31
Q

NIOSH as a load that, under ideal conditions, is safe for _____% of females and ______% of males.

A

75 % of females
90% of males

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32
Q

Additional task variables needed to calculate LI: (2)

A

▪ Average weight of the objects lifted
▪ Maximum weight of the objects lifted

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33
Q

The FIRWL is calculated by using a frequency multiplier (FI) of ___ along with the other task variable multipliers.

A

1.0

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34
Q

The ___________ is calculated by dividing the weight lifted by the FIRWL. It can help identify problems with infrequent lifting tasks if it exceeds the value of _______

A

—– Frequency-Independent Lifting Index (FILI).
—– 1.0

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35
Q

Measure and record the horizontal location of the hands at both the start (origin) and end (destination) of the lifting task.

A

Horizontal Location of the Hands (H)

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36
Q

the distance between the point projected on the
floor directly below the _____ of the hands grasping the object (load center), and the _____ of a line between the inside ________ as pictured on the right side.

A

– Midpoint
– Midpoint
– Ankle Bones

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37
Q

The vertical location is measured from the_______ (or standing surface) to the vertical mid-point between the hand grasps as defined by the _________of the hand.

A

large middle knuckle (3rd MCP joint)

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38
Q

Measure the degree to which the body is required to twist or turn during the lifting task. in what unit?

measures the __ and ___ rotation

A

— Asymmetric Angle (A)
— IN Degrees. namention na sa questions.
— Trunk and Shoulder rotation

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39
Q

A good coupling will ______ (increase or reduce) the maximum grasp forces required and _______ (increase or reduce) the acceptable weight for lifting,.

A

—- Reduce
—- Increase

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40
Q

While a poor coupling will generally require (higher or lower) _____ maximum grasp forces and ______ the acceptable weight for lifting.

A

— Higher
— Lower

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41
Q

Determine the average number of lifts per _______ of the lifting task being evaluated, this is the lifting frequency.

A

minute

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42
Q

The lifting frequency information can often be verified by asking for average production
rates from a________ , ______, or _________.

A

Group leader, Supervisor, Production Manager

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43
Q

NIOSH recommends a _______ minute sampling or observation period

A

15 minutes

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44
Q

The Frequency (F) value will be between _____ lifts/minute and ______ lifts/minute.

A

0.2 and 15

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45
Q

True or False

For lifting tasks with a frequency less than .2 lifts per minute (>1 lift every 5 minutes), you will use the minimum frequency of .2 lifts/minute.

A

TRUEEEEEEE

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46
Q

True or False

If the weight of the load varies from lift to lift, you should record the “average” weights lifted.

A

FALSE. Average and MAximum weights lifted dapat ang rinerecord

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47
Q

Determine the lifting duration as classified into one of three categories: Enter 1 for ________, 2 for ________ and 8 for________ as follows:

For how many hours yung 1, 2, and 8? (Lifting with Recovery Time)

A

— 1 = Short dur ( Lifting ≤ 1 hour) (recovery time ≥ 1.2 X work time)
— 2 = Moderate Duration (Between 1 and 2 hours) (recovery time ≥ 0.3 X lifting time)
— 8 = long duration (Between 2 and 8 hours) w/ Standard industrial allowances)

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48
Q

Visual Capabilities?

MAACVCP

A

Mobility
Accommodation
Adaptation
Color Discrimination and Perception
Visual Acuity
Contrast Sensitivity
Perception

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49
Q

4 most rotational movement in mobility

A

— Left, right (yaw)
— Up, down (pitch)
— roll
— forward, backward

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50
Q

succession of fast movements in jumps to catch up to the visual target

A

Saccades

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51
Q

Reverse movements

A

Regressions

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52
Q

s the area, measured
in degrees within which the form
and color of the objects can be
seen by both FIXATED eyes

A

Visual Field

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53
Q

is the eye pitch angle with regard to the
head.

A

LOSA, LINE OF SIGHT ANGLE

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54
Q

______ is The ability of the lens of the eye to focus on targets at various distances.

What are the 3 types

A

Accommodation

3 types
normal focus
Nearsighted focus
Farsighted focus

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55
Q

Ability of the eyes to change in the sensitivity to light?

2 types?

A

Adaptation

Light Adpatation
dark adaptation

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56
Q

________Defines not Not all areas of the retina are equally sensitive to color.

_____ is the Diagram used for this

A

COLOR DISCRIMINATION

Chromaticity Diagram

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57
Q

can figure the degree of your visual impairment other than your eye shape, myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism. The degree will also be the basis to measure
your correct vision.

A

The refraction test

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58
Q

3 colors perceived with 50 degrees (ano yung pinaka most)

60 degrees for what color?

90 degrees for what color

A

Green, red, yellow (traffic light)
Green mostly

Blue

White

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59
Q

3 types of color perception

A

3 colors = Trichromats
1 = Monochromats
2 = Dichromats

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60
Q

The ability to discriminate the fine detail and differentiate small objects.

A

Visual Acuity

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61
Q

The smallest space between the parts of a target that the eye can detect.

A

Minimum Separable Acuity

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62
Q

Ability to differentiate the lateral displacement
of one line from another.

A

Vernier ACuity

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63
Q

Ability to detect a spot (such as a round dot) from its background.

A

Minimum Perceptible Acuity

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64
Q

Formula for Visual Angle in degreesssss

A

= Tan^-1 (Size / Distance)

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65
Q

captured by the human eye and processed into an image by the brain.

A

Light

66
Q

t is a fairly complicated process with the light rays passing through the ____, an opening in the eye, and through the ______ and _____.

A

pupil
Cornea
Lens

67
Q

The ______ is composed of photosensitive receptors,

the ______, which are sensitive to black and white, especially at night, but have poor visual acuity,

and the ______, which are sensitive to colors in daylight and have good visual acuity.

A

Retina
Rods
Cones

68
Q

________ are concentrated in the fovea, while the rods are spread out over the retina.

A

Cones

69
Q

Electrical signals from the photoreceptors are collected and passed by the __________ to the brain where the light from external illumination is processed and interpreted

A

Optic Nerve

70
Q

______is the basic theory of illumination
applies to a point source of light
(such as a candle) of a given
luminous intensity, measured in
___________.

A

— Intensity
— Candelas (cd)

71
Q

The amount of light striking a
surface, or a section of this sphere, is termed _____________. Measured in __________

A

— illumination or illuminance
— Footcandles

72
Q

illuminance decreases as the light source increases.

A

Angle of Incidence

73
Q

Formula for Illumincance

A

(LI / d^2)(cos angle)

if PERPENDICULAR sa surface, its 0. so cos 0 = 1.

74
Q

The amount of light reflected from the surface.

Measured in

A

Luminance

Measured in Foot Lamberts (fL)

MAGKAIBA luminance and illuminance

75
Q

3 factors affecting luminance

A

— Amount of light
– Color
— Texture of Surface

76
Q

formula for luminance

A

Illuminance x Reflectance

76
Q

da science and technology of sound including its production, transmission, and effects

A

Acoustics

77
Q

Describe how we perceive sounds in relation to ther physical properties (pitch, timbre, loudness, noise, and speech comprehension)

A

psycho - acoustics

78
Q

Any vibration that stimulates an auditory sensation

A

Sound

79
Q

3 major parts of ear anatomy

A

Outer ear, middle ear, inner ear

80
Q

Physical sound associated with the human sensation of pitch

A

Frequency

81
Q

associated with the human sensation of loudness

A

sound intensity

82
Q

Frequency is measured in _____,, equivalent to _______

A

herts (Hz)
Cycles per second

83
Q

Young people can hear about ____ to ____ hz

Adult can rarely hear frequencies above _____ hz

A

young = 16 to 20 hz
adult = rarely above12 hz

84
Q

Middle C in piano is ____ hz

A

256 Hz

85
Q

The human ear is sensitive to frequencies between ____ to _______ Hz

A

20 to 20,000 Hz

86
Q

Sound intensity is measure in _____….

Ration between _____ and _____

A

Decibels

—- ratio of Reference Pressure level and Pressure of Interest

87
Q

how much deciblels are harmful to human? (yung maingay)

A

85 dBA

88
Q

Exposure to excessive sound contributes to the risk of ____)

A

Noise Induced Hearing Loss

89
Q

Hazaradous amount of noise pero yung sobrang tahimik

A

below 30 decibels

90
Q

Exposure to high noise levels can lead to either________ or ________

A

TTS Temporary threshold Shift
PTS Permanent Threshold shift

91
Q

Noise Exposure Regulations in both OSHA and Europe

A

OSHA
16 hours – 85 dBA
8 hours – 90 dBA
4 hours – 95 dBA
* Should not be exposed to noise levels exceeding 115 dBA.

Europe
16 hours – 87 dBA
8 hours – 90 dBA
4 hours – 93 dBA

92
Q

sensory system responsible for providing our brain with information about body position.

A

Vestibular System

93
Q

It provides sense of balance and spatial orientation for normal movement and equilibrium.

A

Vestibular System

94
Q

Functions of Vestibular System

A

Provides info concerning gravity, rotation, and acceleration

95
Q

Abnormality in the association
of the otoconia to the cupula within the membranous labyrinth.

A

BENIGN POSITIONAL VERTIGO

96
Q

Leads to a sudden profound
loss in auditory and vestibular
function.

A

LABYRINTHINE INFARCTION

97
Q

Sudden episode of vertigo
without hearing loss in an
otherwise healthy person.

A

VESTIBULAR NEURONITIS

98
Q

Inflammatory process occurring
within the membranous
labyrinth that may have a
bacterial or viral etiology.

A

LABYRINTHITIS

99
Q

Inner ear disorder characterized
by episodic vertigo attacks,
sensorineural hearing loss,
tinnitus, and pressure or
fullness in the involved ear

A

MENIERE’S DISEASE

100
Q

Visual auras are the most
frequent type, and may come in
a wide variety of phenomena or
hallucinations

A

Migraine

101
Q

Performance and well-being of an individual is influenced by? (Give 4)

A

▪ Individual Characteristics
▪ Physical Design of Workspaces
▪ Larger Environment
▪ Many non-physical Factors

102
Q

Sociotechnical system that transforms inputs into outputs

A

Organization

103
Q

Role of Human Factors” Optimize _______ and _______ performance within the overall system context_

A

– Human
– System

104
Q

What are 4 Competencies for Work Organization?

A

– Job Analysis and Design
– Employee Selection
– Training
– Performance Appraisal

104
Q

Worker’s satisfaction is influenced by:

A

▪ Job
▪ Work Schedules
▪ Skill
▪ Degree of participation in policy decisions
▪ Avenues of communication
▪ Social interactions with colleagues and
supervisors

JWS DAS

105
Q

It’s Well-defined and rigorous procedure. it is also Task information and job requirement

A

Job Analysis

106
Q

“By itself, __________ has nothing to say about the best way to do a job (job design), how well it is
being done currently (performance appraisal), or what it is worth to the organization to have this job
done (job evaluation)”.

A

Job Analysis

107
Q

Most Profound effect on an employee’s activities

A

Job Analysis

108
Q

Talks more of the tasks and responsibilities to be done by the individual

A

Job Description

109
Q

Talks more of the skills, training, and individual characteristics required for a person holding a specific job

A

Job Specification

109
Q

2 types of Job Analysis?

A

Job Description
Job Specification

109
Q

Eliminate Problems, Maximize Efficiency in work.

Also Involves decisions about the tasks that will be performed by the workers and how these tasks are to
be grouped together and assigned to individual jobs (Davis and Wacker, 1987)

A

Job design

110
Q

__________ considers the manner in which individuals within the organization will relate to each
other and how individuals will be compensated and rewarded.

A

JOb design

111
Q

3 process of employee selection

A

Recruitment
Screening
Selection

112
Q

Goal of employer is to _________________ (Phrase)

A

Select the most qualified individual

113
Q

Develop job description, target desired pool of applicants, advertise and communicate to qualified
individuals.

A

Recruitment

114
Q

2 types of Recruitment

A

Internal Recruitment
External Recruitment

115
Q

Type of Recruitment that reduces expenses and focus on psychological advantages (

A

Internal Recruitment

116
Q

Type of recruitment that has larger pool of applicants - more selectivity

A

External Recruitment

117
Q

3 forms of screening?

A

– Application Form
– Personal Interview
– Standardized Tests

118
Q

▪ Measure ability and personality
▪ Work Sample

A

Standardized Tests

118
Q

▪ Neither a reliable nor a valid indicator of future job performance
▪ Influenced by interviewer bias

A

Personal Interview

118
Q

▪ Equip employees with necessary skills
▪ Employees’ level of skill vs. job analysis

A

Training

118
Q

True or False
More training for more skilled applicants (higher salaries)

A

FALSE
LESS TRAINING NA SILA

119
Q

Type of training
- Immediately productive
▪ No special training facilities needed
▪ Informal
▪ Direct contribution to productivity
▪ Mistakes on the job may have serious consequences

A

On the Job Training

120
Q

Type of Training
▪ Periodic movement from one job to another
▪ Produces flexible workforce – critical jobs

A

JOb Rotation

121
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Job rotation is appropriate if task requires high degree of skill

A

FALSE
IT IS INAPPROPRIATE

122
Q

Type of Training
▪ Special Facility – entails cost
▪ More controlled and systematic
▪ No direct contribution to productivity

A

ON SITE TRAIINING

123
Q

Type of Training
▪ Provided by external organization
▪ Workshops
▪ Schooling

A

Off site Training

124
Q

What is:
▪ Formal evaluation of employee performance
▪ Conducted in a structure and systematic way
▪ Provide feedback to employee and management
▪ Areas for improvement
▪ Administrative decisions

A

Performance Appraisal

125
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Negative performance appraisal motivates employees to work harder

A

false
They will get less motivated, will quit, relationships will worsen, lawsuits may be filed

126
Q

Positive performance Appraisal will
(give 4)

A

– Motivate employee to perform better
– better understanding of the employee
– Clarify job and performance expectancies
– enable fair determination of rewards

127
Q

True or false
Performance Appraisal should not be based on personal traits or characterists that are not relevant to the job

A

True

128
Q

True or False: Performance appraisals should suggest specific suggestions for areas that need improvement

A

True

129
Q

True or false
Choice of appraisal method depends on the purpose

A

True

130
Q

2 possible Appraisal errors?

A

– Rating Instrument
– Rater

131
Q

3 possible appraisal errors in raters are:

A

▪ Misperceptions
▪ Biases
▪ Prejudices

132
Q

4 Possible appraisal errors in rating instruments are:

A

– Ambiguous
– Deficient
– Contaminated
– Invalid

133
Q

Experiment of persons whose sleeping times were
delayed – morning sleeps were only _______ of the
duration of the normal night sleep

A

60%

134
Q

Exogenous Factors affecting Circadian Rhythms are:

(2)

A

– Sunlight
– INcreased noise

135
Q

the ________ describes that for a person to sleep well, the time when a person tries to sleep must be aligned with the sleep phase of a circadian wake –

A

Sleep Cycle

136
Q

Standard work schedule is ____ days, ____ hours a week

A

5 days
40 hours

137
Q

if amount of work exceeds 40 hrs, it is known as ______

A

Overtime

138
Q

True or false
less people prefer fixed shift assignments

A

False.
most people

139
Q

Other studies have shown that complete adaptation
does not occur until approximately________ days after
changing to a new schedule

A

21

140
Q
  • Core time
    ▪ Allows worker to coordinate personal needs
    with work responsibilities
A

Flextime

141
Q

Compressed Work-week results to Less productivity in work beyond ____ hours

A

8

142
Q

Effects of shift work

A

– Sleep factors
– Biological Clock Factors
– Social / Domestic Factors

143
Q

Area surrounding the body that, when entered by another, gives rise to strong emotions.

A

Personal Space

144
Q

4 levels of Space and their distances

A

IPSP

▪ Intimate distance (0 to 45 cm)
- Personal distance (45 to 120 cm)
▪ Social distance (1.2 to 3.5 m)
▪ Public distance (3.5 m or more)

145
Q

Near phase and Far phase of Intimate Distace

A

▪ Near phase (0 to 15 cm) – involves body contact
▪ Far phase (16 to 45 cm) – used by close friends

146
Q

Near phase and Far phase of Personal Distace

A

▪ Near phase (45 to 75 cm) – close friends converse
▪ Far phase (76-120 cm) – interactions between friends and acquaintances

147
Q

▪ Refers to behavior patterns oriented toward occupying and controlling a defined physical space.
▪ Can be extended to ideas and objects.

A

Territoriality

148
Q

owned and controlled on a permanent basis

A

Primary Territory

149
Q

more shared than primary but access is limited to a certain extent

A

Secondary Territory

150
Q

open to everyone although access can be limited by unacceptable behavior or discrimination; rapid turnover of users.

A

Public territory

151
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Individuals who prefer to be farther from other people were not susceptible to stress in high
density situations.

A

FALSE
they are susceptible to stress

152
Q

True or False
Many accounts of crowding perceived loss of control in high density situations – may lead to stopping to cope with the environment but not accepting the conditions (helplessness)

A

False.

they passively accept the conditions

153
Q

The size and physical arrangement of an office is evaluated based on:

A

▪ Purpose of room
▪ Tasks to be performed
▪ Mature and frequency of information
▪ Exchange between people and groups

154
Q

Traditional VS OPen Offices

DEFINE!

A

TRADITIONAL
- Typical cubicle office

Open Offices
- Google office na super open

154
Q
A

FINALS BAWI SEASON (5 decks)

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