Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ChE Review > ER S1 > Flashcards

ER S1 Flashcards

1
Q

HEAT TRANSFER

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which mode of heat transfer relies on the movement of fluid due to density differences caused by temperature variations?
    A) Conduction
    B) Convection
    C) Radiation
    D) Evaporation
A

B) Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which law of heat transfer states that the rate of heat transfer through a material is directly proportional to the temperature difference across the material and inversely proportional to the material’s thermal resistance?
    A) Fourier’s Law
    B) Newton’s Law of Cooling
    C) Stefan-Boltzmann Law
    D) Fick’s Law
A

A) Fourier’s Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which device is commonly used for simultaneous heat and mass transfer operations, such as cooling and dehumidification?
    A) Heat exchanger
    B) Distillation column
    C) Absorption tower
    D) Reactor vessel
A

C) Absorption tower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What is the primary mechanism of heat transfer in a vacuum flask (thermos)?
    A) Conduction
    B) Convection
    C) Radiation
    D) Vaporization
A

C) Radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which principle is utilized in evaporative cooling systems to reduce air temperature?
    A) Dalton’s Law
    B) Raoult’s Law
    C) Henry’s Law
    D) Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures
A

D) Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which type of heat exchanger maximizes surface area for efficient heat transfer by utilizing multiple parallel flow paths for fluids?
    A) Shell and tube heat exchanger
    B) Plate heat exchanger
    C) Double-pipe heat exchanger
    D) Spiral heat exchanger
A

B) Plate heat exchanger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which factor affects the rate of convective heat transfer between a solid surface and fluid medium?
    A) Surface area of the solid
    B) Thermal conductivity of the solid
    C) Density of the fluid
    D) Temperature difference between the solid and fluid
A

D) Temperature difference between the solid and fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which mass transfer process involves the separation of components in a mixture based on differences in vapor pressure at a specific temperature?
    A) Distillation
    B) Absorption
    C) Extraction
    D) Filtration
A

A) Distillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. What is the primary driving force for mass transfer in an absorption process?
    A) Temperature difference
    B) Pressure difference
    C) Concentration difference
    D) Surface area
A

C) Concentration difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which unit operation is commonly used to remove contaminants from air or gas streams using a liquid solvent?
    A) Distillation
    B) Filtration
    C) Absorption
    D) Crystallization
A

C) Absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

PARTICLE TECHNOLOGY

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What is the term used to describe the process of converting a liquid into small droplets or particles dispersed in a gas medium?
    A) Evaporation
    B) Condensation
    C) Atomization
    D) Filtration
A

C) Atomization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which property of a powder material determines its resistance to flow under gravitational forces?
    A) Particle size
    B) Bulk density
    C) Porosity
    D) Angle of repose
A

D) Angle of repose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which separation technique is based on the settling velocity of particles in a fluid medium under the influence of gravity?
    A) Filtration
    B) Sedimentation
    C) Cyclone separation
    D) Centrifugation
A

B) Sedimentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What is the primary purpose of using cyclones in particle technology?
    A) Particle size reduction
    B) Particle size enlargement
    C) Particle size classification
    D) Particle size distribution
A

C) Particle size classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which unit operation involves the agglomeration of fine particles to form larger particles or granules for easier handling and processing?
    A) Sieving
    B) Milling
    C) Filtration
    D) Granulation
A

D) Granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which property of particles affects their ability to scatter light and appear opaque in suspension?
    A) Surface area
    B) Particle size
    C) Density
    D) Porosity
A

B) Particle size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which mechanism is primarily responsible for the adhesion of fine particles to surfaces in processes such as powder coating and aerosol deposition?
    A) Electrostatic attraction
    B) Van der Waals forces
    C) Capillary action
    D) Hydrogen bonding
A

B) Van der Waals forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which type of filtration is used to separate particles based on size using a porous medium?
    A) Centrifugal filtration
    B) Vacuum filtration
    C) Microfiltration
    D) Electrostatic filtration
A

C) Microfiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. What is the purpose of using milling operations in particle technology?
    A) To reduce particle size
    B) To increase particle density
    C) To enhance particle porosity
    D) To improve particle surface area
A

A) To reduce particle size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which technique is commonly used to measure the size distribution of particles in a powder sample?
    A) X-ray diffraction
    B) Scanning electron microscopy (SEM)
    C) Dynamic light scattering (DLS)
    D) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR)
A

C) Dynamic light scattering (DLS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

SEPARATION PROCESSES

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Which separation technique is commonly used to separate components in a liquid mixture based on differences in boiling points?
    A) Filtration
    B) Distillation
    C) Crystallization
    D) Absorption
A

B) Distillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What is the primary driving force for mass transfer in an absorption process?
    A) Temperature difference
    B) Pressure difference
    C) Concentration difference
    D) Surface area
A

C) Concentration difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Which separation process is used to separate suspended solids from a liquid by passing the mixture through a porous medium?
    A) Distillation
    B) Filtration
    C) Extraction
    D) Crystallization
A

B) Filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which technique is used to separate a liquid mixture into its individual components based on differences in solubility in a solvent?
    A) Distillation
    B) Crystallization
    C) Extraction
    D) Chromatography
A

C) Extraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which separation process is used to purify a solid compound by converting it from its dissolved state back to its solid form?
    A) Distillation
    B) Crystallization
    C) Filtration
    D) Absorption
A

B) Crystallization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Which separation technique is used to separate components in a gas mixture based on differences in diffusion rates through a semi-permeable membrane?
    A) Distillation
    B) Filtration
    C) Dialysis
    D) Reverse osmosis
A

C) Dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. What is the purpose of using chromatography in separation processes?
    A) To separate components based on boiling points
    B) To separate components based on solubility
    C) To separate components based on molecular size and affinity
    D) To separate components based on density differences
A

C) To separate components based on molecular size and affinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Which separation technique is used to separate components in a mixture based on differences in vapor pressure and condensation properties?
    A) Filtration
    B) Absorption
    C) Distillation
    D) Crystallization
A

C) Distillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Which separation process is commonly used to remove dissolved salts from seawater to obtain fresh water for drinking purposes?
    A) Filtration
    B) Distillation
    C) Reverse osmosis
    D) Crystallization
A

C) Reverse osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Which unit operation involves the separation of particles based on differences in settling velocities in a liquid medium under gravity?
    A) Sedimentation
    B) Centrifugation
    C) Filtration
    D) Distillation
A

A) Sedimentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CHEMISTRY FOR ENGINEERS

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. When considering the phase behavior of a substance, the critical point is characterized by:
    A) Maximum vapor pressure
    B) Minimum vapor pressure
    C) Zero vapor pressure
    D) No change in vapor pressure
A

A) Maximum vapor pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a colligative property of a solution?
    A) Boiling point elevation
    B) Freezing point depression
    C) Osmotic pressure
    D) Specific heat capacity
A

D) Specific heat capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. In a chemical equilibrium involving gases, if the volume of the container is decreased at constant temperature, what will happen to the equilibrium position?
    A) Shift towards the reactants
    B) Shift towards the products
    C) No change
    D) Become indeterminate
A

B) Shift towards the products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
    A) H2O
    B) NaCl
    C) AICI3
    D) NH3
A

C) AICI3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 × 10^-3 М?
    A) 3
    B) 5
    C) 7
    D) 9
A

A) 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Which of the following is a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure?
    A) Ice melting at 0°C and 1 atm
    B) Water boiling at 100°C and 1 atm
    C) Iron rusting
    D) Dissolving sugar in water
A

D) Dissolving sugar in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. What is the oxidation state of sulfur in H2SO4?
    A) +2
    B) +4
    C) +6
    D) +8
A

C) +6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of an exothermic reaction?
    A) Ice melting
    B) Water boiling
    C) Combustion of methane
    D) Dissolution of ammonium nitrate in water
A

C) Combustion of methane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. What is the primary method of reducing NOx emissions in combustion processes?
    A) Scrubbing
    B) Catalytic cracking
    C) Selective catalytic reduction (SCR)
    D) Hydrocracking
A

C) Selective catalytic reduction (SCR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. What type of bonding is typically observed in metallic solids?
    A) lonic
    B) Covalent
    C) Metallic
    D) Hydrogen
A

C) Metallic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Which of the following techniques is most suitable for determining the concentration of a specific ion in a solution?
    A) Gas Chromatography
    B) High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
    C) Ion Chromatography
    D) Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy
A

C) Ion Chromatography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. When performing a titration, the equivalence point is reached when:
    A) The pH of the solution becomes neutral
    B) The indicator changes color
    C) The reaction stops
    D) Stoichiometric amounts of reactants have reacted
A

D) Stoichiometric amounts of reactants have reacted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Which analytical technique is used to identify and quantify elements in a sample based on the measurement of light absorption at specific wavelengths?
    A) Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)
    B) X-ray Diffraction (XRD)
    C) Fourier Transform Infrared (FTIR) Spectroscopy
    D) Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)
A

D) Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy (AAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a common application of spectrophotometry in analytical chemistry?
    A) Quantifying the concentration of a solute in a solution
    B) Monitoring the growth of microorganisms
    C) Identifying unknown compounds
    D) Determining the purity of a substance
A

B) Monitoring the growth of microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. In gas chromatography, what does the retention time of a compound indicate?
    A) The concentration of the compound in the sample
    B) The boiling point of the compound
    C) The identity of the compound
    D) The molecular weight of the compound
A

C) The identity of the compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Which method is commonly used to separate and analyze complex mixtures based on differences in their boiling points?
    A) Thin-Layer Chromatography (TLC)
    B) Gas Chromatography (GC)
    C) High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
    D) Distillation
A

D) Distillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Which technique is suitable for determining the molecular weight and structure of organic compounds?
    A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) Spectroscopy
    B) Mass Spectrometry (MS)
    C) Ultraviolet-Visible (UV-Vis) Spectroscopy
    D) Infrared (IR) Spectroscopy
A

A) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) Spectroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. What is the purpose of using a calibration curve in analytical chemistry?
    A) To estimate the purity of a sample
    B) To determine the concentration of an unknown sample
    C) To identify unknown compounds
    D) To measure the absorbance of a solution
A

B) To determine the concentration of an unknown sample

54
Q
  1. What type of reaction is commonly utilized in volumetric analysis (titrations)?
    A) Precipitation reaction
    B) Acid-base neutralization reaction
    C) Oxidation-reduction reaction
    D) Esterification reaction
A

B) Acid-base neutralization reaction

55
Q
  1. Which analytical technique is particularly useful for identifying functional groups in organic compounds?
    A) Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry (GC-MS)
    B) Infrared (IR) Spectroscopy
    C) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) Spectroscopy
    You sent
    D) X-ray Crystallography
A

B) Infrared (IR) Spectroscopy

56
Q

ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

A
57
Q
  1. Which of the following functional groups is present in both aldehydes and ketones?
    A) Hydroxyl (-OH)
    B) Carboxyl (-COOH)
    C) Carbonyl (>C=0)
    D) Amine (-NH2)
A

C) Carbonyl (>C=0)

58
Q
  1. Which reaction mechanism is typically observed in the hydrolysis of esters to form carboxylic acids and alcohols?
    A) Substitution
    B) Elimination
    C) Addition
    D) Transesterification
A

A) Substitution

59
Q
  1. What is the major product formed when ethylbenzene is treated with a strong oxidizing agent like potassium permanganate (KMnO4) in acidic conditions?
    A) Phenol
    B) Benzoic acid
    C) Toluene
    D) Acetophenone
A

B) Benzoic acid

60
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds is an example of an aromatic hydrocarbon?
    A) Cyclohexane
    B) Ethylene
    C) Toluene
    D) Propanal
A

C) Toluene

61
Q
  1. When a primary alcohol undergoes oxidation, it typically forms:
    A) An aldehyde
    B) A ketone
    C) A carboxylic acid
    D) An ester
A

C) A carboxylic acid

62
Q
  1. What is the IUPAC name for the compound СН3СН2СООН?
    A) Propanol
    B) Butanoic acid
    C) Ethanol
    D) Acetic acid
A

B) Butanoic acid

63
Q
  1. Which type of polymerization process involves the elimination of a small molecule like water during the formation of polymer chains?
    A) Addition polymerization
    B) Condensation polymerization
    C) Radical polymerization
    D) Cross-linking polymerization
A

B) Condensation polymerization

64
Q
  1. What is the primary functional group present in an amide compound?
    A) Carbonyl group (>C=0)
    B) Hydroxyl group (-OH)
    C) Amino group (-NH2)
    D) Ester group (-COO-)
A

A) Carbonyl group (>C=0)

65
Q
  1. Which reaction type is involved in the formation of a glycosidic bond between two monosaccharides?
    A) Esterification
    B) Dehydration synthesis
    C) Hydrolysis
    D) Reduction
A

B) Dehydration synthesis

66
Q
  1. What is the product formed when acetic acid reacts with ethanol in the presence of a strong acid catalyst?
    A) Ethyl acetate
    B) Acetaldehyde
    C) Acetic anhydride
    D) Ethylene
A

A) Ethyl acetate

67
Q

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY FOR ENGINEERS

A
68
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a state function?
    A) Enthalpy
    B) Entropy
    C) Work
    D) Internal Energy
A
69
Q
  1. According to the First Law of Thermodynamics, which of the following statements is true?
    A) Energy cannot be created or destroyed
    B) Energy always flows from hot to cold objects
    C) Entropy of an isolated system always decreases
    D) Heat and work are interchangeable
A
70
Q
  1. Which gas law describes the relationship between pressure (P), volume (V), and temperature (T) of an ideal gas when moles (n) are constant?
    A) Boyle’s Law
    B) Charles’s Law
    C) Gay-Lussac’s Law
    D) Ideal Gas Law
A
71
Q
  1. What does the term “activation energy” refer to in the context of chemical reactions?
    A) The energy released during a reaction
    B) The minimum energy required for a reaction to occur
    C) The change in enthalpy of a reaction
    D) The entropy change during a reaction
A
72
Q
  1. At what temperature will the average kinetic energy of gas molecules be equal to zero on the Celsius scale?
    A) 0°C
    B) - 273.15°C
    C) 100°C
    D) 273.15°C
A
73
Q
  1. Which phase transition is characterized by a change from a solid directly to a gas without passing through the liquid phase?
    A) Deposition
    B) Condensation
    C) Sublimation
    D) Evaporation
A
74
Q
  1. Which property of a solution is influenced by the van’t Hoff factor (i)?
    A) Vapor pressure
    B) Boiling point
    C) Freezing point
    D) Osmotic pressure
A
75
Q
  1. Which statement describes Hess’s Law of Heat Summation?
    A) The enthalpy change of a reaction is equal to the sum of the enthalpy changes of its individual steps
    B) Heat always flows from a higher temperature to a lower temperature
    C) The entropy of the universe is always increasing
    D) The standard enthalpy of formation of an element in its most stable form is zero
A
76
Q
  1. Which term describes the phenomenon where a solute’s solubility decreases with increasing temperature?
    A) Henry’s Law
    B) Le Chatelier’s Principle
    C) Raoult’s Law
    D) Ostwald’s Dilution Law
A
77
Q
  1. Which principle states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of non-reacting gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each gas?
    A) Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures
    B) Boyle’s Law
    C) Charles’s Law
    D) Gay-Lussac’s Law
A
78
Q

FUNDAMENTALS OF MATERIAL SCIENCE

A
79
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a primary bonding type in materials?
    A) lonic
    B) Covalent
    C) Metallic
    D) Van der Waals
A
80
Q
  1. What is the primary crystal structure of pure iron at room temperature?
    A) Body-centered cubic (BCC)
    B) Face-centered cubic (FCC)
    C) Hexagonal close-packed (HCP)
    D) Simple cubic (SC)
A
81
Q
  1. Which property of a material is primarily affected by the arrangement of its atoms and its bonding type?
    A) Density
    B) Hardness
    C) Electrical conductivity
    D) Thermal expansion
A
82
Q
  1. What is the primary strengthening mechanism in aluminum alloys?
    A) Grain boundary strengthening
    B) Solid solution strengthening
    C) Precipitation hardening
    D) Cold working
A
83
Q
  1. Which of the following is a typical polymerization technique used to produce polyethylene and polypropylene?
    A) Condensation polymerization
    B) Radical polymerization
    C) Ring-opening polymerization
    D) Step-growth polymerization
A
84
Q
  1. What type of defect in a crystalline material involves the presence of an extra atom positioned between atomic planes? A) Vacancy defect
    B) Interstitial defect
    C) Frenkel defect
    D) Schottky defect
A
85
Q
  1. Which type of ceramic material typically exhibits covalent bonding and is known for its high melting points and excellent chemical resistance?
    A) Oxides
    B) Carbides
    C) Nitrides
    D) Silicates
A
86
Q
  1. What type of corrosion occurs at the interface between dissimilar metals in contact with an electrolyte?
    A) Pitting corrosion
    B) Galvanic corrosion
    C) Crevice corrosion
    D) Intergranular corrosion
A
87
Q
  1. Which mechanical property of a material describes its ability to absorb energy and deform plastically before fracture?
    A) Hardness
    B) Elastic modulus
    C) Toughness
    D) Yield strength
A
88
Q
  1. What is the primary reason for adding carbon as an alloying element to iron to produce
    A) To increase hardness
    B) To enhance ductility
    C) To improve corrosion resistance
    D) To strengthen and harden the material
A
89
Q

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

A
90
Q
  1. Which of the following pollutants is a greenhouse gas primarily responsible for global warming?
    A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
    B) Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
    C) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
    D) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
A
91
Q
  1. What is the main purpose of a biological wastewater treatment plant?
    A) To remove heavy metals from wastewater
    B) To neutralize acidic wastewater
    C) To biologically degrade organic pollutants
    D) To remove suspended solids from wastewater
A
92
Q
  1. What is the main purpose of a biological wastewater treatment plant?
    A) To remove heavy metals from wastewater
    B) To neutralize acidic wastewater
    C) To biologically degrade organic pollutants
    D) To remove suspended solids from wastewater
A
93
Q
  1. Which air pollution control device is most effective for removing particulate matter from industrial exhaust gases?
    A) Electrostatic precipitator
    B) Scrubber
    C) Baghouse filter
    D) Catalytic converter
A
94
Q
  1. What is the primary mechanism responsible for the formation of acid rain?
    A) Release of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx)
    B) Combustion of methane (CH4)
    C) Emission of volatile organic compounds (VOCs)
    D) Discharge of heavy metals into water bodies
A
95
Q
  1. Which water treatment process involves the removal of dissolved salts using a semipermeable membrane?
    A) Coagulation
    B) Filtration
    C) Reverse osmosis
    D) Chlorination
A
96
Q
  1. What is the purpose of using catalytic converters in automobiles?
    A) To reduce carbon dioxide emissions
    B) To convert nitrogen oxides (NOx) into nitrogen gas (N2)
    C) To oxidize carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrocarbons (HC) into carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H20)
    D) To capture particulate matter from exhaust gases
A
97
Q
  1. What is a common method used to control odor emissions from wastewater treatment plants?
    A) Adsorption
    B) Chemical oxidation
    C) Biofiltration
    D) Ultraviolet (UV) disinfection
A
98
Q
  1. Which of the following is a major greenhouse gas released from agricultural activities
    such as rice cultivation and livestock tarming?
    A) Methane (CH4)
    B) Carbon monoxide (CO)
    C) Nitrous oxide (N20)
    D) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
A
99
Q
  1. What is the primary objective of soil remediation techniques?
    A) To increase soil erosion
    B) To improve soil fertility
    C) To remove contaminants and restore soil quality
    D) To enhance groundwater pollution
A
100
Q
  1. Which of the following is a renewable energy source that can be harnessed to generate electricity without emitting greenhouse gases?
    A) Natural gas
    B) Coal
    C) Wind
    D) Petroleum
A
101
Q

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS

A
102
Q
  1. What is the definition of mass balance in chemical engineering?
    A) The conservation of energy within a system
    B) The conservation of momentum in fluid flow
    C) The conservation of mass in a process
    D) The calculation of reaction rates
A
103
Q
  1. Which equation is commonly used to calculate the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance?
    A) Gibbs free energy equation
    B) Clausius-Clapeyron equation
    C) First law of thermodynamics
    D) Heat capacity equation (Q = mcAT)
A
104
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a material balance in chemical processes?
    A) To calculate the economic feasibility of a process
    B) To determine the optimal operating conditions
    C) To ensure conservation of mass in process design
    D) To predict reaction kinetics
A
105
Q
  1. Which term describes the ratio of the actual yield of a reaction to the theoretical yield, expressed as a percentage?
    A) Purity
    B) Conversion
    C) Efficiency
    D) Yield
A
106
Q
  1. What does the term “stoichiometry” refer to in chemical engineering calculations?
    A) The study of reaction kinetics
    B) The calculation of energy balances
    C) The relationship between reactants and products in a chemical reaction
    D) The design of process equipment
A
107
Q
  1. Which equation is used to calculate the volumetric flow rate of a fluid through a pipe?
    A) Bernoullis equation
    B) Reynolds number equation
    C) Darcy’s law
    D) Continuity equation (Q = A * V)
A
108
Q
  1. What does the term “mass transfer” refer to in chemical engineering?
    A) The movement of heat within a system
    B) The movement of molecules from one phase to another
    C) The conversion of mass into energy
    D) The removal of impurities from a solution
A
109
Q
  1. Which thermodynamic property is defined as the heat absorbed or released by a substance during a phase change at constant temperature and pressure?
    A) Enthalpy
    B) Entropy
    C) Internal energy
    D) Gibbs free energy
A
110
Q
  1. Which unit is commonly used to express the rate of flow of liquids in chemical engineering?
    A) Liters per minute (L/min)
    B) Cubic meters per second (m^3/s)
    C) Pounds per square inch (psi)
    D) Newtons per meter (N/m)
A
111
Q
  1. What is the purpose of conducting energy balances in chemical processes?
    A) To optimize material usage
    B) To minimize waste generation
    C) To ensure efficient use of energy resources
    D) To calculate reaction rates
A
112
Q

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

A
113
Q
  1. Which law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another?
    A) First Law of Thermodynamics
    B) Second Law of Thermodynamics
    C) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
    D) Third Law of Thermodynamics
A
114
Q
  1. Which property of a substance is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one unit mass of the substance by one degree Celsius (or Kelvin)?
    A) Enthalpy
    B) Heat capacity
    C) Entropy
    D) Internal energy
A
115
Q
  1. Which thermodynamic process involves no heat transfer and no work done, resulting in a change in internal energy of the system?
    A) Isobaric process
    B) Isothermal process
    C) Adiabatic process
    D) Isentropic process
A
116
Q
  1. According to the Second Law of Thermodynamics, what is the direction of natural heat transfer between two objects?
    A) Heat flows from a lower temperature object to a higher temperature object
    B) Heat flows from a higher temperature object to a lower temperature object
    C) Heat remains constant regardless of the temperature difference
    D) Heat flows randomly between objects
A
117
Q
  1. Which thermodynamic property is defined as the measure of disorder or randomness in a system?
    A) Enthalpy
    B) Gibbs free energy
    C) Entropy
    D) Internal energy
A
118
Q
  1. Which statement best describes an isothermal process?
    A) Constant volume process
    B) Constant pressure process
    C) Constant temperature process
    D) Adiabatic process
A
119
Q
  1. What does the term “phase equilibrium” refer to in thermodynamics?
    A) The state where two phases coexist in thermal equilibrium
    B) The point where no work is done by the system
    C) The condition where entropy reaches its maximum value
    D) The process of changing from one phase to another
A
120
Q
  1. Which thermodynamic cycle involves the transfer of heat to perform work continuously and is used in steam power plants?
    A) Rankine cycle
    B) Carnot cycle
    C) Brayton cycle
    D) Otto cycle
A
121
Q
  1. What is the standard state condition for calculating thermodynamic properties such as enthalpy and entropy?
    A) 0°C and 1 atm pressure
    B) 25°C and 1 atm pressure
    C) 0 K and 1 atm pressure
    D) 25 K and 1 atm pressure
A
122
Q
  1. Which thermodynamic law establishes the entropy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero to be zero?
    A) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
    B) First Law of Thermodynamics
    C) Second Law of Thermodynamics
    D) Third Law of Thermodynamics
A
123
Q
  1. Which thermodynamic property represents the tendency of a solution to mix spontaneously?
    A) Enthalpy
    B) Entropy
    C) Gibbs free energy
    D) Internal energy
A
124
Q
  1. What is the term used to describe a solution that exhibits maximum entropy and is at equilibrium with its surroundings?
    A) Saturated solution
    B) Supersaturated solution
    C) Ideal solution
    D) Phase equilibrium
A
125
Q
  1. Which factor primarily influences the solubility of a gas in a liquid according to Henry’s Law?
    A) Temperature of the solution
    B) Pressure of the gas above the solution
    C) Molecular weight of the gas
    D) Surface area of the solution
A
126
Q
  1. Which term describes the process where a solid solute directly converts into its gaseous phase without passing through the liquid phase?
    A) Evaporation
    B) Sublimation
    C) Dissolution
    D) Condensation
A
127
Q
  1. What does Raoult’s Law describe regarding ideal solutions?
    A) The relationship between solubility and temperature
    B) The behavior of non-volatile solutes in solutions
    C) The vapor pressure of a solution containing non-volatile solutes
    D) The relationship between vapor pressure and mole fraction of components in a solution
A
128
Q
  1. Which term refers to a solution that deviates significantly from Raoult’s Law due to interactions between solute and solvent molecules?
    A) Ideal solution
    B) Non-ideal solution
    C) Saturated solution
    D) Dilute solution
A
129
Q
  1. What happens to the boiling point of a solution when a non-volatile solute is added?
    A) It decreases
    B) It increases
    C) It remains unchanged
    D) It fluctuates
A
130
Q
  1. Which term describes a solution that contains the maximum amount of solute at a given temperature and pressure?
    A) Supersaturated solution
    B) Unsaturated solution
    C) Saturated solution
    D) Dilute solution
A
131
Q
  1. What factor primarily affects the solubility of a solid solute in a liquid solvent?
    A) Pressure
    B) Temperature
    C) Surface area
    D) Density
A
132
Q
  1. Which term describes the process of separating the components of a solution based on differences in boiling points followed by condensation of the vapor?
    A) Filtration
    B) Distillation
    C) Extraction
    D) Crystallization
A

ChE Review (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions