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Exercise Referal Course Set Questions > ER Questions FF > Flashcards

ER Questions FF Flashcards

To learn from FF questions

1
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

When working with referral clients/patients all information must be stored electronically

A

Correct option: False

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2
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) The Data Protection Act covers written data only
b) The Data Protection Act covers verbal and written communications

A

Correct option: b

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3
Q

What is the name of the latest (2015) HM Government Sport & Physical activity strategy?

a) Everybody active, Everyday
b) A sporting Future
c) Start Active, stay active
d) none of the above

A

Correct option: b

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4
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

In April 2013 Primary Care Trusts (PCT) replaced Clinical Commissioning Group (CCG) and assumed responsibility for designing local health service to meet the needs of the local population

A

Correct option: False

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5
Q

Which document presents guidelines on the volume, duration, frequency and type of physical activity required throughout life to achieve general health benefits?

a) Start Active, Stay Active: A report on Physical activity from the four home counties’ Chief Medical Officers
b) The Professional and Operational Standards for exercise referral
c) National Service Frameworks
d) None of the above

A

Correct option: a

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6
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Exercise is bodily movement that produced by skeletal muscle and that substantially increases energy expenditure. The more vigorous activities of daily living such as raking the lawn and vacuuming would be classified as exercise.
b) Physical activity is bodily movement that is produced by skeletal muscle and that substantially increases energy expenditure. The more vigorous activities of daily living such as raking the lawn and vacuuming would be classified as physical activity

A

Correct option: b

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7
Q

Is the following statement true or false?
Adults should aim to be active daily. Over a week, activity should add up to at least 75 minutes of moderate intensity activity in bouts of 10 minutes or more

A

Correct option: False

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8
Q

In objective studies in which accelerometers were used to independently measure physical activity, what percentage of men and women achieved the recommended levels of physical activity?

a) 6% of men and 4% of women
b) 10% of men and 15% of women
C) 4% of men and 6% of women
d)c39% of men and 27% of women

A

Correct option: a

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9
Q

How is health defined?

a) Absence of disease
b) Physically active
c) No medications
d) Physical, mental and social well-being

A

Correct option: d

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10
Q

What intensity should most people should exercise at?

a) 40-50 % HRR
b) 30-40% HRR
c) 50-60% HRR
d) 40-85% HRR

A

Correct option: d

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11
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Moderate intensity exercise should be performed for at least 30 minutes on five or more days per week to a total of at least 150 minutes

A

Correct option: true

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12
Q

Depending on a client’s adaptation to the programme and their health status, an appropriate overload would be an increase in duration of approximately how much per week?

a) 1%
b) 3%
c) 10%
d) 50%

A

Correct option: c

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13
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Sedentary, deconditioned clients can improve by only 5% because they are closer to their genetic limit

A

Correct option: true

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14
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Exercise referral clients should perform 2-4 sets of 8-12 reps per muscle group to the point of approximate momentary muscular fatigue.
b) Exercise referral clients should perform 1-2 sets of 6-8 reps per muscle group to the point of approximate momentary muscular fatigue.

A

correct option: a

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15
Q

s the following statement true or false?

Clients with high cardiovascular risk or those with chronic disease (hypertension, diabetes) should terminate each exercise at the eccentric phase of the exercise because it becomes difficult while maintaining good form.

A

Correct option: false

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16
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

A disease or condition that co-exists with a primary disease but also stands on its own as a specific disease is known as a comorbidity

A

Correct option: true

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17
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

You will often need to reduce the length of the warm-up with referral clients with certain medical conditions, as they are not fit enough to perform the full warm-up

A

Correct option: false

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18
Q

As a general guideline, what level of RPE (0-10 scale) would a client typically expect to attain by the end of the warm up?

a) 1-2
b) 2-3
c) 5-6
d) 3-4

A

Correct option: b

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19
Q

As a general guideline, what temperature should a fitness facility be?

a) 10-15°C
b) 25-28°C
c) 20-22°C
d) 15-18°C

A

Correct option: c

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20
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

As a general rule, warm-up activities should not exceed an intensity of 40% HRR

A

Correct option: false

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21
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) In terms of health, external locus of control refers to the extent to which someone believes that that they are responsible for their own health
b) In terms of health, internal locus of control refers to the extent to which someone believes that that they are responsible for their own health

A

Correct option: b

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22
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

When clients move into preparation they have made a commitment to change and may be engaging in some physical activity

A

Correct option: true

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23
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Change must be self-initiated

A

Correct option: true

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24
Q

Self-efficacy scores of less than what percentage are associated with a reduced likelihood of a successful behaviour change?

a) 98%
b) 90%
c) 80%
d) 70%

A

Correct option: d

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25
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Ideally you always want to use closed body language when interacting with your clients

A

Correct option: false

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26
Q

Select the correct statement;

a) Clients who have their goals set by their exercise professional generally demonstrate better adherence to a programme compared with those who select their own flexible goals
b) Clients who select their own flexible goals generally demonstrate better adherence to a programme compared with those whose goals are rigidly set by the trainer

A

Correct option: b

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27
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Many variables have been shown to affect a client’s adherence to exercise, with perhaps the single most important variable being the exercise professional

A

Correct option: true

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28
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

If a client answers ‘no’ to all the questions on a PAR-Q, their blood pressure is less than 140/90 and their heart rate is regular and less than 100 beats per minute, the risk of exercise is low

A

Correct option: true

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29
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) According to the Morgan and Irwin risk stratification tool, medium risk clients should remain within the exercise referral service and may undertake a wide range of activities, programmed but not necessarily supervised by, the exercise referral instructor
b) According to the Morgan and Irwin risk stratification tool, medium risk clients must be entered into an individualised, supervised exercise programme relevant to their condition

A

Correct option: b

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30
Q

Choose the correct option to complete the statement below:

Clients with absolute contraindications should ___________

a) not exercise until such conditions are stabilised or adequately treated
b) be entered into an individualised, supervised exercise programme relevant to their condition
C)undertake a wide range of activities, programmed but not necessarily supervised by, the xercise referral instructor

A

Correct option: a

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31
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

According to the Morgan and Irwin risk stratification tool, high risk clients with cardiac disease must be referred back to the original healthcare professional

A

orrect option: true

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32
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

When measuring blood pressure, the diastolic pressure is the measurement at which sound is first heard

A

Correct option: false

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33
Q

Which questionnaire is used to evaluate clients’ quality of life?

a) IPAQ
b) EQ-5D
c) Both
d) Neither

A

Correct option: b

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34
Q

Clients should complete the IPAQ and EQ-5D questionnaires at the start of the programme and again at what time intervals?

a) 6-12 weeks later
b) 2-4 months later
c) 6 and 12 months later
d) 12-18 months late

A

Correct option: c

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35
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Hypertension is typically defined as a systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg or greater and diastolic blood pressure of 90mmHg or greater

A

Correct answer: True

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36
Q

What percentage of cases of hypertension cannot be attributed to any identifiable cause?

A

Correct answer: 90-95%

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37
Q

The NHS recommends that total cholesterol levels should be less than:

a) 5 mmol/L
b) 5.5 mmol/L
c) 5.6 mmol/L
d) 6.8 mmol/L

A

Correct option: a

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38
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

High levels of HDL-C and low levels of LDL-C place a client at a high risk for coronary artery disease

A

Correct option: false

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39
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Dietary cholesterol has little effect on blood cholesterol

A

Correct option: true

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40
Q

By how much can beta-blockers typically reduce a client’s maximal heart rate?

10-15 bpm
15-20 bpm
20-40 bpm
50-60 bpm

A

Correct option: c

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41
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Alpha blockers do not tend to affect exercising heart rate

A

Correct option: true

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42
Q

What are ACE inhibitors typically prescribed for?

a) Hypotension
b) High LDL cholesterol
c) Low HDL cholesterol
d) Hypertension

A

Correct option: d

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43
Q

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause dehydration?

a) Statins
Diuretics
Calcium channel blockers
Alpha blockers

A

Correct option: b

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44
Q

which of the following medications has been associated with muscle damage and weakness?

a) Statins
b) Alpha-blockers
c) ACE inhibitors
d) Diuretics

A

correct option: a

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45
Q

Approximately how long should the warm-up be for clients with cardiovascular disease?

a) 5 minutes or more
b) 10-15 minutes
c) 15-20 minutes
d) 3-5 minutes

A

Correct option: b

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46
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Postural or orthostatic hypotension is a rise in blood pressure that may occur when a client moves from lying to standing

A

Correct option: false

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47
Q

Due to the effects of medication on clients’ cardiovascular response to exercise, which is the most appropriate and practical method of monitoring their exercise intensity?

a) Heart rate
b) Blood lactate levels
c) Rate of perceived exertion
d) Percentage of VO2 reserve

A

Correct option: c

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48
Q

What should clients do to avoid invoking the Valsalva maneuver?

a) Breathe normally throughout the lift
b) Count to 10 as they lower the weight
c) Breathe in through pursed lips as they lift the weight
d) Hold the weight at the fully contract position for a count of 3

A

Correct option: a

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49
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) During resistance training and isometric exercise there is an increase in the resistance to blood flow within the active muscles. This results in an increase in both systolic and diastolic blood pressure in an attempt to overcome the resistance and restore blood flow
b) During resistance training and isometric exercise there is an increase in the resistance to blood flow within the active muscles. This results in an increase in systolic blood pressure and a decrease in diastolic blood pressure in an attempt to overcome the resistance and restore blood flow

A

Correct option: a

50
Q

To be classified as obese, what would a person’s BMI be?

a) 20
b) 25
c) 29
d) 30

A

Correct option: d

51
Q

What is the primary cause of obesity?

a) Hormone imbalance
b) Energy imbalance
c) Genetics
d) Sedentary lifestyle

A

Correct option: b

52
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Obesity increases the risk of developing osteoporosis

A

Correct option: false

53
Q

Regardless of how much weight they ultimately need to lose, a client’s weight loss goal should be to reduce their body weight by:

a) 1-2 %
b) 5-15%
c) 15-20 %
d) 50-60%

A

Correct option: b

54
Q

What would an appropriate rate of weight loss typically be?

a) 0.5-1 Kg per week
b) 1-2 Kg per week
c) 5-6 Kg per week
d) As much as possible

A

Correct option: a

55
Q

What repetition range is typically recommended for resistance training exercises

a) 1-5
b) 6-8
c) 8-12
d) 20-25

A

Correct option: c

56
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Type 1 diabetics often have a surplus of insulin

A

Correct option: false

57
Q

In the UK approximately what percentage of the cases of diabetes are type 2?

a) 5-15%
b) 30-50%
c) 60-70%
d) 85-90%

A

Correct option: d

58
Q

The symptoms listed below relate to what form of diabetes?

Excessive urine production, excessive thirst, excessive eating

a) Type 1
b) Type 2
c) Both
d) Neither

A

Correct option: c

59
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Type 1 diabetes is up to six times more common in people of South Asian descent and up to three times more common among people of African and African-Caribbean origin than the white population
b) Type 2 diabetes is up to six times more common in people of South Asian descent and up to three times more common among people of African and African-Caribbean origin than the white population

A

Correct option: b

60
Q

If a client’s fasting blood glucose concentration is at or above 7.0mmol/L,
what would this would indicate?

a) They have normal control of their blood glucose levels
b) They have diabetes
c) They have impaired fasting glycaemia
d) None of the above

A

Correct option: b

61
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Even with the blood tests, it can be difficult to tell if a client has type1 or type 2 diabetes. In such cases the doctor will carry out at test which checks for the presence of antibodies which attack the body, the presence of which indicate type 2 diabetes.

A

Correct option: false

62
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Oral medications for the treatment of diabetes include insulin

A

Correct option: false

63
Q

As a basic guide, what would an appropriate blood glucose level be for a type 1 diabetic before meals:

a) 4- 7mmol/L
b) 6-9 mmol/L
c) less than 9 mmol/l
d) less than 8.5mmol/L

A

Correct option: a

64
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Hyperinsulinism is a condition in which blood glucose levels rise above normal. This typically happens as a result of injecting too much insulin
b) Hyperinsulinism is a condition in which blood insulin levels rise above normal. This typically happens as a result of injecting too much insulin
c) Hyperinsulinism is a condition in which blood insulin levels drop below normal. This typically happens as a result of injecting too much insulin

A

Correct option: b

65
Q

What percentage of diabetic clients have at least three comorbid chronic diseases?

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%

A

Correct option: d

66
Q

Which stage of retinopathy is described below?

Microaneurysms in the retina’s tiny blood vessels occur

a) Mild nonproliferative retinopathy
b) Moderate nonproliferative retinopathy
c) Severe nonproliferative retinopathy
d) Proliferative retinopathy

A

Correct option: a

67
Q

Choose the correct option to complete the statement below Nephropathy is a disease of

a) The peripheral nervous system
b) The autonomic nervous system
c) The kidneys
d) The liver

A

Correct option: c

68
Q

Is the following statement true or false?
Clients with autonomic neuropathy are more sensitive to low blood glucose levels and tend to show more pronounced symptoms of hypoglycaemia

A

Correct option: false

69
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Hyperglycaemia is the term used to describe a low blood glucose level of less than 4 mmol/L, which is too low to provide sufficient energy to support the body’s functions.

A

Correct option: false

70
Q

Which of the following is not a symptom of hypoglycaemia?

a) Feeling hungry
b) Trembling or shakiness
c) Sweating
d) Acetone breath

A

Correct option: d

71
Q

If a diabetic client becomes unconscious, what is the appropriate course of action?

a) Put a sugar solution in their mouth
b) Let them sleep
c) Place them in the recovery position and dial 999 to call an ambulance immediately
d) Inject them with insulin

A

Correct option: c

72
Q

f a diabetic eats more sugary or starchy foods than usual, which of the following is more likely to happen?

a) Hyperglycaemia
b) Hypoglycaemia
c) No change in blood glucose levels
d) Any of the above

A

Correct option: a

73
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Diabetic clients should always try to eat diabetic food

A

Correct option: false

74
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) At each meal diabetic clients should consume starchy carbohydrate
At each meal diabetic clients should consume simple sugars
At each meal diabetic clients should consume two portions of oily fish
At each meal diabetic clients should consume monounsaturated fat

A

Correct option: a

75
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Exercise can help a diabetic to reduce the amount of insulin they take

A

Correct option: true

76
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication to exercise?

a) Blood glucose level is below 13 mmol/L
b) Blood glucose level above 5.5 mmol/L
c) Recent laser therapy for retinopathy
d) Blood sugar levels of between 6 and 10mmol/L

A

Correct option: c

77
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

The main symptom of emphysema is a productive cough. This means a cough that brings up excessive mucus

A

Correct option: false

78
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Forced vital capacity (FVC) is the maximum volume of air that a person can exhale from their lungs in one second following a maximal inhalation
b) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1 ) is the maximum volume of air that someone can exhale after a maximum inhalation
c) Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1 ) is the maximum volume of air that a person can exhale from their lungs in one second following a maximal inhalation

A

Correct option: c

79
Q

Fill in the blank to complete the statement below:

COPD can be diagnosed only if a patient’s FEV1 is less than __ of predicted

a) 60%
b) 80%
c) 90%
d) 30%

A

Correct option: b

80
Q

Which of the following is most likely to cause COPD?

a) Environmental air pollution

b) Occupational exposure to dusts, such as coal dust and gases
c) Genetic factors

d) Smoking

A

Correct option: d

81
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

The cure for COPD principally involves stopping smoking. Once a patient stops smoking the damage already done to their airways will gradually be reversed

A

Correct option: false

82
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Asthma is a respiratory condition that is characterised by intermittent airway inflammation and a irreversible narrowing of the airways, causing difficulty in breathing
b) Asthma is a respiratory condition that is characterised by chronic airway inflammation and a reversible narrowing of the airways, causing difficulty in breathing

A

Correct option: b

83
Q

At which age can asthma first develop?

a) As an infant
b) During childhood
c) During a person’s seventies and eighties
d) At any time

A

Correct option: d

84
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Laughing can trigger an asthma attack

A

Correct option: true

85
Q

What should a person do first when an asthma attack occurs?

a) Dial 999 and call an ambulance
b) Perform some gentle exercise, such as walking, to open the airways
c) Use their reliever inhaler
d) Wrap themselves in blanket to prevent cooling of their airways

A

Correct option: c

86
Q

What are beta-2 agonist inhalers, such as salbutamol, used for?

a) To reduce the long-term inflammation in the lungs
b) To open the airways to reduce the symptoms of breathlessness and wheezing
c) To make the sputum less thick and sticky
d) To control water retention

A

Correct option: b

87
Q

What type of medication is typically in a preventer inhaler?

a) Corticosteroid
b) loop diuretic
c) Mucolytic medicine
d) Bronchodilator

A

Correct option: a

88
Q

What type of medication is associated with the following potential side effects?

Osteoporosis muscle wasting, myopathy immunosuppression, weight gain, gastrointestinal ulcers and adrenal suppression

a) Diuretics
b) Anticholinergic or antimuscarinic inhalers
c) Corticosteroids
d) Antidepressants

A

Correct option: c

89
Q

When a short-acting beta-agonist inhaler is used, approximately how long does it take for symptoms of wheezing and breathlessness to improve?

a) 30-40 minutes
b) 2-3 minutes
c) 10-30 seconds
d) 5-15 minutes

A

Correct option: d

90
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Care should be taken with upper extremity modes of cardiovascular training, such as arm cycles or ergometers, as these tend to result in increased levels of dyspnoea compared to leg exercise
b) Care should be taken with lower extremity modes of cardiovascular training, such as cycles, as these tend to result in increased levels of dyspnoea compared to arm exercise

A

Correct option: a

91
Q

To what level of dyspnoea should clients with respiratory disease be encouraged to work when using the modified Borg 10 point category ratio scale?

a) 3-4
b) 5-6
c) 2-3

A

Correct option: a

92
Q

What is the recommended duration of a cardiovascular exercise session?

a) 20 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 5-10 minutes
d) 20-60 minutes

A

Correct option: b

93
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Osteoporosis is a condition that affects post-menopausal women only

A

Correct option: false

94
Q

Select the correct statement (Osteoporosis)

a) The bones at greatest risk of fracture include the spine, hip and radius
b) Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) between 1 and 2.5 standard deviations below the mean density for young adults

A

Correct option: a

95
Q

Which of the following is risk factor for osteoporosis?

a) Obesity (BMI 30+)
b) Male gender
c) High levels of oestrogen and testosterone
d) A body mass index (BMI) of 19 or less

A

Correct option: d

96
Q

Which of the following are often supplemented in the treatment of osteoporosis?

a) Zinc and vitamin C
b) Calcium and vitamin D
c) Zinc and vitamin A
d) Calcium and vitamin C

A

Correct option: b

97
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Dynamic exercises that involve trunk extension such as back extensions and lateral flexion should be avoided
b) Dynamic exercises that involve trunk flexion such as abdominal crunches and curls as well as rotation should be avoided

A

Correct option: b

98
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Pain is referred to as mechanical when it does not change with and cannot be relieved by movement
b) Pain is referred to as mechanical when it changes with and can be relieved by movement

A

Correct option: b

99
Q

Back pain is considered chronic when it persists for:

a) Longer than 1 week
b) Less than 6 weeks or less
c) 12 weeks or less
d) 12 weeks or longer

A

Correct option: d

100
Q

Which of the following is considered to be ‘red flag’?

a) Pain restricted to lumbosacral region, buttocks or thighs
b) Pain radiates into foot or toes
c) Saddle anaesthesia
d) The client demonstrates fear avoidance behaviour and has reduced activity levels

A

Correct option: c

101
Q

How many repetitions of strength exercises should clients over the age of 50 years perform?

a) 6-8
b) 8-12
c) 10-15
d) 15-20

A

Correct option: c

102
Q

Select the correct statement:

Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis in the UK
Rheumatoid arthritis is the most common form of arthritis in the UK

A

Correct option: a

103
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with normal wear and tear of ageing

A

Correct option: false

104
Q

Which of the following medications is not used to treat osteoarthritis?

a) Analgesics (painkillers)

b) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
c) Corticosteroids

d) Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

A

Correct option: d

105
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Hip replacements are most often carried out in children or younger adults whose hips do not develop correctly (hip dysplasia)

A

Correct option: false

106
Q

Which of the following exercise options would be most appropriate for a previously sedentary client who has undergone knee replacement surgery?

a) Jogging
b) Rowing
c) Stationary cycling
d) Speed walking

A

Correct option: c

107
Q

Select the correct option to complete the statement below:

Be aware that some replacement knees only allow ——degrees of flexion, so never force a knee joint

a) 40-60°
b) 30-50°
c) 90-110°
d) 180-360°

A

Correct option: c

108
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

High impact activities, such as running and jumping are generally appropriate for clients who have had hip or knee joint replacement surgery providing they wear supportive shoes and warm up thoroughly.

A

Correct option: false

109
Q

How many different diagnosable mental health conditions are grouped together under the term of mental illness?

a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400

A

Correct option: c

110
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Mental health problems are caused by medical and biological factors, consequently their treatment plans should rely on medication.

ate the symptoms

A

Correct option: false

111
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Exercise can play a valuable role in the management of certain mental health conditions, but unlike physical conditions such diabetes or hypertension, there are no specific exercise prescription guidelines such as a particular exercise intensity that will alleviate the symptoms
b) Exercise can play a valuable role in the management of certain mental health conditions. Like physical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension, there are specific exercise prescription guidelines such as a particular exercise intensity that will alleviate the symptoms

A

Correct option: a

112
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Stressors may be physiological or psychological

A

Correct option: true

113
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Anxiety can be divided into transient feelings that are generally brought on by an acute event or perceived threat, which is referred to as state anxiety, and personality characteristics that determine how prone a person is to perceiving events as threatening, known as trait anxiety
b) Anxiety can be divided into transient feelings that are generally brought on by an acute event or perceived threat, which is referred to as trait anxiety, and personality characteristics that determine how prone a person is to perceiving events as threatening, known as state anxiety

A

Correct option: a

114
Q

Which anxiety disorder is described below?

A long-term condition which causes people tofeel anxious in a more general way, rather than one specific event

a) Phobias
b) Obsessive compulsive disorder
c) General anxiety disorder
d) Panic attacks

A

Correct option: c

115
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

We can inherit a tendency to become anxious through our genes

A

Correct option: true

116
Q

A person is most likely to be diagnosed with general anxiety disorder if they have had the symptoms for at least:

a) 2 weeks
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 6 months

A

Correct option: d

117
Q

What percentage of the UK population suffer from depression in any year?

a) 2-3 %
b) 5-8%
c) 8-12%
d) 15-20

A

Correct option: c

118
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Depression only affects young and middle-aged people

A

Correct option: false

119
Q

From the list below, which potential side effect of a medication has the greatest implication for exercise?

a) Dry mouth
b) Nausea
c) Constipation
d) Postural hypotension

A

Correct option: d

120
Q

Select the correct statement:

a) Studies have shown that mood is enhanced after an acute bout of exercise, with exercise sessions of 20-30 minutes of moderate to intense aerobic exercise being optimal for reducing anxiety, while longer sessions show diminishing returns
b) Studies have shown that mood is enhanced after an acute bout of exercise, with exercise sessions of 20-30 minutes of moderate to intense aerobic exercise being sufficient for reducing anxiety, while longer sessions show greater returns

A

Correct option: a

121
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Clients with mental health conditions should only participate in cardiovascular exercise

A

Correct option: false

Exercise Referal Course Set Questions (1 decks)

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