Equine End Sem 2 Exam

Question 1

Where is the label correctly placed on a radiograph relative to the limb?
- Medially & dorsally
- Laterally & caudally
- Laterally & dorsally
- Medially & caudally

Answer 1

• Laterally & dorsally

Question 2

Hallmarks of chronic laminitis include:
- Reduction of the solar magin-distal phalanx angle, remodelling of the extensor process of the distal phalanx, dorsal distal hoof wedge formation & osteolysis of the tip of the distal phalanx
- Increase of the solar margin-distal phalanx angle, dorsal hoof wedge formation, osteolysis of the extensor process of the distal phalanx & rotation of the distal phalanx relative to the dorsal hoof wall
- Dorsal distal hoof wedge formation, remodelling of the palmar processes of the distal phalanx, reduction of the solar margin-distal phalanx angle & rotation of the distal phalanx relative to the dorsal hoof wall
- Osteolysis of the tip of the distal phalanx, rotation of the distal phalanx relative to the dorsal hoof wall, increase of the solar margin-distal phalanx angle & dorsal hoof wedge formation

Answer 2

• Osteolysis of the tip of the distal phalanx, rotation of the distal phalanx relative to the dorsal hoof wall, increase of the solar margin-distal phalanx angle & dorsal hoof wedge formation

Question 3

Which two projections of the carpus give you the best assessment of the third carpal bone?
- The flexed Dorsal 30 degree proximal-dorsal distal oblique & DLPMO
- The DMPLO & flexed lateral
- The flexed Dorsal 30 degree proximal-dorsal distal oblique & DMPLO
- The flexed dorsal 45 degree proximal-dorsal oblique & flexed lateral

Answer 3

• The flexed Dorsal 30 degree proximal-dorsal distal oblique & DLPMO

Question 4

Of the following which is more accurate regarding a time dependent antimicrobial?
- It has better bactericidal effects than concentration dependent antimicrobials
- Doubling the dose (e.g. from 10mg to 20mg) will significantly increase the rate of microbial killing
- Doubling the frequency of drug administration (e.g. from q12h to q6h) will likely increase the rate of microbial killing
- It has worse bactericidal effects than concentration dependent antimicrobials

Answer 4

• Doubling the frequency of drug administration (e.g. from q12h to q6h) will likely increase the rate of microbial killing

Question 5

Which of the following options describes the chronological order & initial treatment of an acutely burned horse best?
- Cooling of affected area for 5 min & IV fluid therapy
- Cooling of affected area for 20 min & ice boot application
- Cooling of affected area for 15 min & systemic analgesia
- Cooling of affected area for 10 min & IV clenbuterol administration

Answer 5

• Cooling of affected area for 20 min & ice boot application

Question 6

A 2 day old colt was diagnosed with a bilateral stage II flexural deformity of the metacarpophalangeal joint. Which of the following statements is correct?
- Stall rest & heel extensions will likely correct the deformity
- Controlled exercise & stable bandages will correct the deformity within 2 weeks
- Medical management using oxytetracycline & NSAIDs has a good prognosis
- Inferior check ligament desmotomy has to be considered for the best outcome

Answer 6

?

Question 7

Please indicate the false statement about impingement of the dorsal spinous process (“kissing spine”).
- Surgical resection of one out of two processes is the only long-term treatment available
- Is it a true arthropathy
- It is more frequent between T12 & T18
- It is the most frequent abnormality found on radiographs of the back

Answer 7

• Is it a true arthropathy

Question 8

Please indicate the correct statement about the etiopathogenesis of osteoarthritis.
- Since the articular cartilage is fully capable to repair itself, wear & tear is rarely the cause of osteoarthritis
- Only when left untreated septic arthritis can cause significant damage to the cartilage & lead to osteoarthritis
- Ligament damage resulting in major joint instability will certainly lead to osteoarthritis
- Malnutrition is a common cause of osteoarthritis, thus ensuring adequate nutrition can practically eliminate osteoarthritis

Answer 8

• Ligament damage resulting in major joint instability will certainly lead to osteoarthritis

Question 9

You diagnose a 4 year old intact male, TB race horse of 520kg with a complete, displaced, closed, comminuted fracture of the first phalanx of the right forelimb after he came out 5/5 lame off the racetrack.

Answer 9

After immobilising the leg in a splinted Robert Jones bandage you refer the horse & recommend transporting him in a float with the partitions & with the rear legs facing the trailers’ front side

Question 10

Please indicate the correct statement about what would be considered a negative response to diagnostic analgesia (both palmar & digital nerves - lateral & medial - in the left front limb are blocked) in a horse with a left front lameness.
- The left front lameness can no longer be seen after the nerve block
- The left front lameness becomes more evident after the nerve block
- The left front lameness goes away after the nerve block & the horse now shows a right front lameness
- The left front lameness markedly improves after the nerve block

Answer 10

• The left front lameness becomes more evident after the nerve block

Question 11

Which of the following procedures would most specifically localise pain to the fetlock joint?
- Metacarpo-phalangeal joint block
- Abaxial sesamoid nerve block
- Carpo-metacarpal joint block
- Low four point (volar) nerve block

Answer 11

• Metacarpo-phalangeal joint block

Question 12

A 3 year old TB racehorse filly has just returned from an intense work out & is exhibiting signs of colic (pawing, biting at her sides). The filly is anxious & sweating. Palpation of the hindlimb musculature reveals a painful response. What is the most appropriate initial therapy indicated for this horse?
- Cool the horse with iced water
- Fluid therapy (IV or enteral)
- NSAIDs administration (IV)
- Buscopan administration (IV)

Answer 12

• Fluid therapy (IV or enteral)

Question 13

A horse developed acute neurologic signs consistent with spinal ataxia after falling over during a competition. The horse has normal mentation, normal cranial nerve examination & is showing signs of ataxia & proprioceptive deficits on all 4 limbs (more pronounced in the hindlimbs). What is the most likely region for neurolocalisation?

Answer 13

• C1-C6

Question 14

Ventrolateral strabismus can be related to a deficit in which cranial nerve?
- VI abducent
- IV trochlear
- III oculomotor
- V trigeminal

Answer 14

• III oculomotor

Question 15

Which of the following propositions is false in a case of septic arthritis?
- Local treatment is much more likely to achieve a resolution of the infection
- Without local treatment there are less chances to get a control on the infection
- Identifying the causing agent helps in defining the correct antibiotic protocol
- Without arthroscopic joint lavage, the sepsis has no chances to be controlled

Answer 15

• Without arthroscopic joint lavage, the sepsis has no chances to be controlled

Question 16

Please indicate the correct statement about osteochondrosis in horses.
- The proximal interphalangeal joint is the most commonly affected joint
- Despite the age of the horses, lesions always progress (get larger) or stay the same overtime
- It can be asymptomatic & diagnosed incidentally when the horse is radiographed for sale or any other reason
- It is rarely bilateral so radiographing the contralateral joint is not recommended unless there are external signs of bilateral involvement e.g. bilateral lameness, bilateral joint effusion

Answer 16

?

Question 17

After a training session a TB colt presents a mild lameness & the swelling illustrated on the picture. On palpation, the affected area is warm & mildly painful. Which of the following is true?
- This is desmitis of the suspensory ligament & the horse will need to rest 7-8 months
- This is a desmitis of the palmar annular ligament & the horse needs to rest 4-6 months
- This is a tendinitis of the superficial digital flexor tendon & the horse needs to rest 4-6 months
- This is a digital flexor tendon sheath tenosynovitis & the horse should recover in 6-8 weeks

Answer 17

• This is a tendinitis of the superficial digital flexor tendon & the horse needs to rest 4-6 months

Question 18

Which of the following statements about foot problems in horses is most correct?
- Thrush is uncommon & in almost all cases causes severe lameness
- Solar penetrating puncture wounds need to be worked up using ultrasonography
- Navicular disease is more commonly seen in older horses (>10 years old) & frequently affects both front feet
- Foot abscesses typically cause severe lameness which markedly improves within 24 hours with or without treatment

Answer 18

• Navicular disease is more commonly seen in older horses (>10 years old) & frequently affects both front feet

Question 19

A horse with a skin laceration over the lateral mid-diaphyseal region of its radius is examined: the bleeding has stopped, the wound is contaminated with soil & wood shavings. Which of the following is most important as initial step int he management of this wound?
- Topical or systemic corticosteroids
- IV antimicrobial administration
- Careful & thorough debridement
- Application of a sterile bandage

Answer 19

?

Question 20

Which of the following statements about skin grafting is most correct?
- Full thickness grafts will not re-innervate
- An epithelial ring will be visible 1 week after grafting
- Inoculation nourishes the skin graft for the first 24 hours
- Plasmatic imbibition nourishes the skin graft for the first 24-48 hours

Answer 20

• Plasmatic imbibition nourishes the skin graft for the first 24-48 hours

Question 21

Which of the following statements regarding wound management is most correct?
- Haemostasis & debridement are part of the first aid
- Tetanus is only a concern with distal limb wounds
- Radiography is always a compulsory tool to assess wounds
- Chemical debridement is the ideal wound cleaning technique

Answer 21

• Haemostasis & debridement are part of the first aid

Question 22

Ophthalmic stains can be used to help identify corneal disease. Choose the option below that best describes fluorescein & Rose Bengal stains.

Answer 22

Fluorescein stain does not stain corneal eptihelium or Descemet’s membrane, but is absorbed by exposed stroma.
Rose Bengal assesses the integrity of the mucin layer of the pre-corneal tear film & also stains devitalised corneal epithelial cells.

Question 23

Please indicate the option with the correct names of the anatomical structures indicated by the tip of each arrow in the images above

Answer 23

1 = metacarpo-phalangeal joint, 2 = proximal sesamoid bone, 3 = suspensory ligament, 4 = distal sesamoidean ligament, 5 = 3rd metacarpal bone

Question 24

Which of the following is the most important complication to be ruled out when assessing the puncture wound of the sole show in the image (nail penetrating bottom of sole near frog).
- Laminitis
- Foot abscess
- Septic navicular bursitis and/or distal inter-phalangeal joint
- Pedal osteitis
- Sub solar bruise

Answer 24

• Septic navicular bursitis and/or distal inter-phalangeal joint

Question 25

A horse is presented with a laceration to the distal limb. There was obvious leakage of fluid through the wound when the distal interphalangeal joint was injected with sterile isotonic electrolyte solution under pressure. Which of the following statements is most correct?
- Daily joint lavage with a powerful antiseptic would likely reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness
- Prolonged systemic administration of broad spectrum antibiotics (e.g. amikacin & penicillin) would be enough to eliminate the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness
- Enrofloxacin would be a good antimicrobial choice for intra-articular administration in order to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness
- Regional limb perfusion with gentamicin would be a relatively inexpensive treatment to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness

Answer 25

• Enrofloxacin would be a good antimicrobial choice for intra-articular administration in order to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness

Question 26

A 15 year old horse is presented with a nodule on the left thorax (see image). The owner noted that it has been present for months & it hasn’t really changed. During examination, you find additional nodules on the penis & sheath. The nodules range in diameter from 1-4cm. What is the most likely clinical staging of the deramal melanomas & most appropriate treatment advice?

Answer 26

Staging: stage 3
Treatment: surgical excision & intralesional…

Question 27

The dorsal 45 degree proximal distal oblique radiograph of the foot highlights?

Answer 27

The proximal margin of the navicular…

Question 28

Radiograph of hoof with rotation of P3. The likely diagnosis of this horse is?

Answer 28

Laminitis with rotation of the distal…

Question 29

Which standard radiographic projection of the tarsus highlights the most common site of osteoarthritis of the distal intertarsal & tarsometatarsal joints?

Answer 29

The DLPMO

Question 30

Radiograph of tarsus. This projection of the tarsus is most useful for examinatin of?

Answer 30

The distal intermediate ridge of the tibia & the lateral trochlear ridge of the talus

Question 31

When ruling out synovial involvement after a deep heel bulb laceration which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques would be most appropriate?

Answer 31

Contrast radiography

Question 32

When is cryotherapy used as treatment for laminitis?

Answer 32

During the acute phase to maintain the lamellar temperature below 10 degrees celsius for at least 48hrs

Question 33

Choose the best definitive diagnostic test for a horse with suspected polysaccharide storage myopathy-1 (PSSM-1).

Answer 33

Genetic test for the GYS1 variant on hair or blood samples

Question 34

Which of the following describes upper motor neuron & lower motor neuron deficits most accuratly?

Answer 34

UMN = spasticity normal to increased

Question 35

What is the best treatment for a horse with cranial trauma (traumatic brain injury)?

Answer 35

Hypertonic saline IV

Question 36

What is the most likely diagnosis of a horse with protrusion of the third eyelid, a ‘saw horse stance’ & elevated tail head?

Answer 36

Tetanus

Question 37

Image of large oval shaped crystal / stone.

Answer 37

It consists of calcium carbonate…

Question 38

Please indicate the correct statement about the etiopathogenesis of osteoarthritis.

Answer 38

Muscle damage leading to joint damage & OA

Question 39

A 6 year old horse has fallen violently in its paddock 2 hours before you evaluate it for the complaints of dullness, stumbling & “not knowing where his feet are.” The owners are scared because he appears unsteady & they call you. Which of the following describes best the chronology for your initial approach?

Answer 39

You administer a sedative & anti-inflammatories & perform PE & start the horse on osmotic fluids & gather information

Question 40

A horse showing hind-limb ataxia, bladder paresis, perineal hypalgesia but normal mentation & no muscle tremors is most likely to have been infected by which virus?

Answer 40

Equine Herpes Virus 1

Question 41

Which of the following terms describes best the “passive absorption of nutrients” & is occurring within the appropriate time frame following skin grafting?

Answer 41

Plasmatic imbibition - 1-3 days after grafting

Question 42

Which option best describes how NSAIDs cause nephron damage?

Answer 42

… prostaglandin E2

Question 43

A horse is presented with signs of acute ataxia. The horse has 12hrs of turn-out to pasture per day as it is the early summer months. The horse shows Grade 4 ataxic in the hindlimbs & Grade 2 on the forelimbs, with cranial nerve deficits of the facial nerve only. You notice mild muscle fasciculations on the face & shoulders. Which of the following diseases is the most likely primary differential diagnosis?

Answer 43

Kunjin virus infection

Question 44

A 2 day old colt was diagnosed with a bilateral stage contracture of the distal interphalangeal joint. Which of the following statements is correct?
- Medical management using oxytetracycline & NSAIDs should be attempted first
- Stall rest & heel extensions will likely correct the deformity
- Superficial digital flexor tendon tenotomy has to be considered for a timely resolution

Answer 44

• Medical management using oxytetracycline & NSAIDs should be attempted first

Question 45

A 5 year-old-horse presents with bilateral epistaxis, approximately 2 weeks after having pyrexia, nasal discharge and a cough for 3 days duration.
Physical examination reveals: HR 44bpm, RR 16bpm, rectal temperature 37.8C, CRT 2 sec and petechiation of the oral mucosa. Prolonged bleeding after venepuncture is noticed. CBC reveals: PCV 30%, TS 56g/L, totally leukocyte count 5.4 x 10^9/L and thrombocyte count 26 x 10^9L. There were no platelet clumps seen on blood smear and the clotting times (PT and aPTT) were within normal reference ranges. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?
a. Myeloproliferative disease
b. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
c. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
d. Chronic haemorrhage

Answer 45

c. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)

Question 46

Which of the following options is an unacceptable method of euthanasia when used on its own, because it will induce loss of muscle tone prior to loss of consciousness?
a. Intracardiac barbiturate injection
b. Succinylcholine IM injection
c. Intrathecal lignocaine
d. Exsanguination
e. Barbiturate IV injection

Answer 46

d. Exsanguination

Question 47

Which of the following statements regarding enteroliths in horses is CORRECT?
a. Most commonly found in the right dorsal colon, Lucerne hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic
b. Most commonly found in the right dorsal colon, grass hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic.
c. Most commonly found in the left dorsal colon, grass hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic.
a. Most commonly found in the left dorsal colon, Lucerne hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic

Answer 47

a. Most commonly found in the right dorsal colon, Lucerne hay is a predisposing factor and horses often present with intermittent colic

Question 48

A 2-day-old foal is straining, tail flagging and occasionally in dorsal recumbency. The foal is not nursing but has passed meconium with yellow faeces present on the perineum. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate plan for this foal?
a. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, faecal egg count, digital rectal examination
b. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, replace fluid deficits, enteral mare’s milk
c. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, faecal egg count, replace fluid deficits, enteral mare’s milk
d. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, abdominal ultrasound, abdominal fluids, replace fluid deficits

Answer 48

c. Complete physical examination, blood word including PCV/TP/lactate/glucose, faecal egg count, replace fluid deficits, enteral mare’s milk

Question 49

Ideally, euthanasia methods should result in rapid loss of (blank), followed by (blank) or (blank) arrest and the subsequent loss of (blank) function

Answer 49

o Consciousness, respiratory, cardiac, neurological

Question 50

One of the hallmark radiographic signs of pleural effusion is that the lung is retracted from the thoracic wall and the material outside of the lung is more lucent than the lung itself. True / false?

Answer 50

True

Question 51

You are scheduled to perform a general anaesthesia on a horse for field castration. Which of the following anaesthesia maintenance techniques would be LEAST appropriate?
a. An IV infusions of midazolam, ketamine and medetomidine for up to 40-60minutes
b. An IV infusion of guaifenesin, ketamine and xylazine for up to 40-60 minutes
c. Inhalation anaesthesia with isoflurane and O2 for up to 40-60minutes
d. Additional doses of ketamine and xylazine (1/2 to ¼ of original premedication induction doses) given every 10-15 minutes for up to 40-60 minutes.

Answer 51

c. Inhalation anaesthesia with isoflurane and O2 for up to 40-60minutes

Question 52

A 14 yo Quarter Horse gelding presents with lethargy & a 2 day history of decreased appetite. The initial blood work & a picture of the blood sample are shown below. Which of the following statements regarding the increase in total bilirubin is correct?
a. Likely due to anorexia leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin
b. Likely due to anorexia leading to an increase in conjugated bilirubin
c. Likely due to haemolysis leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin
d. Likely due to haemolysis leading to an increase in conjugated bilirubin

Answer 52

a. Likely due to anorexia leading to an increase in unconjugated bilirubin

Question 53

Which of the following dental conditions is most frequently associated with a marked limitation in lateral excursion of the mandible?
a. Chisel mouth
b. Shear mouth
c. Wave mouth
d. Step mouth

Answer 53

b. Shear mouth

Question 54

Pleuropneumonia and pleural effusion cases often require thoracic drainage. Which of the following statements regarding pleural effusion and thoracic drainage in horses is CORRECT?
a. The best way to determine if the chest drain can be removed is to observe the amount of fluid flowing through the drain
b. It is important to perform an ultrasound examination in order to estimate continued pleural effusion and accumulation and timing of drain removal.
c. In horses it is only necessary to perform thoracic drainage on one side of the thorax
d. Pleural effusion should not be drained as it is often a septic effusion with fibrin build up with can result in draining tract cellulitis.

Answer 54

b. It is important to perform an ultrasound examination in order to estimate continued pleural effusion and accumulation and timing of drain removal.

Question 55

Image of horse with large bloody wound below its eye.
- An open fracture & laceration into the rostral maxillary sinus
- The prognosis for a full recovery is poor
- An open fracture & laceration into the ethmoid turbinates
- A full thickness laceration into the oral cavity
- Drainage & second intention healing are indicated

Answer 55

• Drainage & second intention healing are indicated

Question 56

Foals should ideally have their serum IgG concentration assessed at (blank) age to allow prompt treatment with (blank) or (blank) if failure of transfer of passive immunity has been detected.
a. 12-24 hours: IV plasma, systemic antimicrobials
b. >36 hours: IV plasma, systemic antimicrobials
c. >36 hours; stored per oral colostrum, IV plasma
d. 12-24 hours; stored per oral colostrum, IV plasma

Answer 56

d. 12-24 hours; stored per oral colostrum, IV plasma

Question 57

The pleural space always contains fluid to a degree that is visible on a radiograph to reduce lung friction against the body wall during respiration. True or False?

Answer 57

True

Question 58

Which statement concerning small colon impactions is CORRECT?
a. If treated surgically there is a low risk of postoperative salmonella shedding
b. The aim of medical management is to soften the impaction, but diarrhoea may be a presenting sign
c. Can be localised to small colon based on the lack of a antimesenteric band
d. NSAID coverage and pain control are the most important aspects of treatment
e. Affected patients typically present with nasogastric reflux

Answer 58

b. The aim of medical management is to soften the impaction, but diarrhoea may be a presenting sign

Question 59

Which of the following lists best describes the initial assessment of the cardiovascular system of a horse with colic, in the field?
a. Palpate peripheral pulse; auscultate the heart; evaluate the mucous membranes and skin tent; assess the temperature of the extremities
b. Auscultate the heart and lungs; rectal temperature; evaluate the mucous membranes and skin tend; assess temperature pf the extremities
c. Palpate peripheral pulse; auscultate the heart; evaluate MMs; rectal temperature and auscultate the abdomen
d. Auscultate the heart and lungs; auscultate the abdomen; evaluate the MMS; check PCV, TS and lactate.

Answer 59

a. Palpate peripheral pulse; auscultate the heart; evaluate the mucous membranes and skin tent; assess the temperature of the extremities

Question 60

A 4-year-old horse presents with a poor body condition (score 2/9) is dull and lethargic with watery diarrhoea. Blood analysis reveals albumin 16g?L (ref range 28-39g/L) globulin 44g/L (ref range 20-38g/L), urea 16mmol/L (ref range 3.2-8.1mmol/L), creatinine 0.22,,p;/L (ref range 0.08-0.16 mmol/L) and neutrophils 12.9g/L (ref range 2/8-8g/L).
Faecal analysis revealed no specific pathogens on culture and no helminth eggs.
Which of the following is the first and most important treatment for this horse?
a. IV fluid therapy
b. Antimicrobial treatment with trimethoprim sulphonamide
c. Withdraw food but offer fresh drink water with electrolytes
d. Supplement food with psyllium and Biosponge.

Answer 60

a. IV fluid therapy

Question 61

Which of the following statements regarding air bronchograms is CORRECT?
a. An air bronchogram is a normal finding that has developed due to the increased contrast resolution that occurred when we shifted to digital imaging detectors
b. Air bronchograms are a sign of bronchial wall thickening and are indicative of bronchitis
c. Air bronchograms are the hallmark sigh of pleural effusion
d. Air bronchograms are air filled airways that become more visible in the lung periphery due to increased contrast when surrounded by the soft tissue opacity of alveolar pulmonary infiltrates.

Answer 61

d. Air bronchograms are air filled airways that become more visible in the lung periphery due to increased contrast when surrounded by the soft tissue opacity of alveolar pulmonary infiltrates.

Question 62

Endoscopy image with white frothy mucus / liquid. Which of the following options describes the best sample to collect & the best diagnostic test (based on the most likely disease affecting this horse)?
- Nasal swab for PCR
- Needle aspirate of the retropharyngeal lymph node abscess for PCR
- Nasopharyngeal lavage for bacterial culture
- Needle aspirate of the retro-pharyngeal lymph node abscess for culture

Answer 62

• Nasal swab for PCR

Question 63

Which of the following upper respiratory tract obstructive disorders can be diagnosed on a resting endoscope examination?
a. Epiglottal retroversion
b. Lateral pharyngeal wall collapse
c. Dorsal displacement of the soft palate
d. Recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

Answer 63

b. Lateral pharyngeal wall collapse

Question 64

Which of the following options include the most common clinical signs of Equine Gastric Ulcer Syndrome (EGUS)?
a. Colic, poor performance and poor haircoat
b. Diarrhoea, poor performance and weight loss
c. Partial anorexia, bruxism and colic
d. Partial anorexia, colic and changed behaviour

Answer 64

d. Partial anorexia, colic and changed behaviour

Question 65

What is the most important muscle of an inguinal hernia?

Answer 65

Vaginal ring

Question 66

The lung will naturally look more opaque in expiration as compared to inspiration. True / False?

Answer 66

True

Question 67

Which of the following statements regarding “epidermal inclusions cysts (atheromas) is CORRECT?
a. Typically diagnosed using upper airway endoscopy
b. Can be treated using minimal invasive techniques in the field
c. Requires surgical intervention and is typically malignant
d. Typically affects older horses
e. Affects the dorsal conchal meatus

Answer 67

b. Can be treated using minimal invasive techniques in the field

Question 68

Which of the following are the most common pathogens associated with acute watery diarrhoea in horses?
a. Salmonella spp, Clostridium difficile and Rotavirus
b. Clostridium perfrinagens (Types A and C) Clostridium difficile and Corona virus
c. Clostridium difficile, Clostridium perfringens (A and C) and Clostridium septicum
d. Salmonella spp, clostridium difficile and clostridium perfingens (A and C)

Answer 68

d. Salmonella spp, clostridium difficile and clostridium perfingens (A and C)

Question 69

A horse with colic has the following in-house lab results: PCV 50%, TS 55g/L, serum lactate 5mmol/L. Which of the following options is the most likely interpretation of these results?
- The lab results are normal
- Dehydration & splenic contraction
- 10% dehydration hypoproteinaemia
- Splenic contraction & organ hypoperfusion

Answer 69

• 10% dehydration hypoproteinaemia

Question 70

Which of the following options provides the cause of “high blowing” in the horse, the phase of respiration it occurs in and its clinical significance correctly?
a. Vibration of the nares during expiration, a normal finding
b. Vibration of the alar folds during inspiration, a normal finding
c. Vibration of the nares during inspiration, an abnormal finding causing airway obstruction
d. Vibration of the alar folds during expiration, an abnormal finding causing airway obstruction

Answer 70

d. Vibration of the alar folds during expiration, an abnormal finding causing airway obstruction

Question 71

Which of the following treatments is most effective for exercise induced pulmonary haemorrhage (EIPH)?
a. Oral administration of non-steroid anti-inflammatories to reduce airway inflammation
b. Application of nasal dilator strip during exercise
c. IV administration of a pro-coagulant such as aminocaproic acid to strenuous exercise
d. Intravenous administration of furosemide before strenuous exercise

Answer 71

d. Intravenous administration of furosemide before strenuous exercise

Question 72

Pneumo-peritoneum (free air in the abdomen) has multiple findings on radiographs. Which of the following statements does NOT describe a typical finding of pneumo-peritoneum?
a. There is increased visibility of the intestinal walls
b. Severe segmental dilation of the small intestine develops (two populations of bowel).
c. Odd, angular gas bubbles are noted amongst the abdominal contents
d. A diaphragmatic stripe sign is present

Answer 72

b. Severe segmental dilation of the small intestine develops (two populations of bowel).

Question 73

Which of the following statements is NOT correct with respect to development of ‘sharp points’ in the molar/premolar region of the equine mouth?
a. Are exacerbated by reduced grazing of coarse roughage
b. Occur on the lingual aspect of the maxillary arcade and the buccal aspect of mandibular arcade
c. Are the main reason regular routine dentistry is required
d. Can cause buccal ulceration
e. Occur on the buccal aspect of the maxillary arcade and the lingual aspect of the mandibular arcade

Answer 73

e. Occur on the buccal aspect of the maxillary arcade and the lingual aspect of the mandibular arcade

Question 74

Myopathy and neuropathy are well-recognised potential complications of anaesthesia in horses. Which of the following is LEAST likely to prevent this complication from occurring?
a. Monitoring arterial blood pressure and maintain mean arterial blood pressure >70 mmHg
b. Use of appropriate padding and positioning of the limbs (e.g. down leg forward if in lateral recumbency).
c. Use of appropriate padding and positioning of the limbs (e.g. down leg forward if in lateral recumbency).
d. Removal of halters once the horse is recumbent

Answer 74

d. Removal of halters once the horse is recumbent

Question 75

A horse presents with an extended head and neck carriage, intermittent nasal discharge, parotid region swelling and enlargement of the parotid and submandibular lymph nodes. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis and most appropriate diagnostic testing respectively?
a. Guttural pouch mycosis; radiography of skull and cranial neck and ultrasonographic evaluation of the swollen regions
b. Guttural pouch empyema; radiography of skull and cranial neck and ultrasonographic evaluation of the swollen regions
c. Guttural pouch empyema; upper respiratory tract endoscopy and guttural pouch lavage for culture and sensitivity
d. Guttural pouch mycosis; upper respiratory tract endoscopy and guttural pouch lavage for culture and sensitivity testing

Answer 75

c. Guttural pouch empyema; upper respiratory tract endoscopy and guttural pouch lavage for culture and sensitivity

Question 76

Which of the following is the most important in the after care of an emergency tracheotomy?
a. providing broad spectrum antimicrobials to prevent surgical site infection
b. daily cleaning and replacement of the tracheostomy tube and providing incisional care
c. providing broad spectrum antimicrobials to prevent lower airway infection
d. nebulizing the horse with bronchodilators to prevent further lower airway collapse

Answer 76

b. daily cleaning and replacement of the tracheostomy tube and providing incisional care

Question 77

Which of the following findings on blood work would be present in a horse with a severe acute bacterial colitis?
a. leukopenia
b. hyperfibrinogenemia
c. Anaemia
d. Leucocytosis

Answer 77

d. Leucocytosis

Question 78

A grade 3 holo-diastolic, decrescendo murmur with the point of maximal intensity over the left heart base is auscultated in a 16-year old eventer. Which of the following options is the most likely origin of this murmur?
a. tricuspid regurgitation
b. aortic regurgitation
c. physiological pulmonary ejection murmur
d. mitral regurgitation

Answer 78

b. aortic regurgitation

Question 79

Fill in the blanks… Radiographic signs of broncho-pneumonia are usually a(an) (blank) pattern distributed (blank). Which of the following answer combinations is most CORRECT?
a. Interstitial, dorsally
b. Alveolar, ventrally
c. Alveolar, diffusely
d. Alveolar, dorsally
e. Bronchial, diffusely
f. Bronchial, cranio-dorsally
g. Interstitial, diffusely
h. Bronchial, cranio-ventrally

Answer 79

c. Alveolar, diffusely

Question 80

Thoracic radiographs performed after trauma can be confusing because multiple common lesions can occur simultaneously. I taught you to consider a list of five traumatically induced lesions that occur with thoracic blunt trauma to assist your interpretation. Which of the following lesions is NOT included in this list because it does not commonly occur with trauma?
a. Rib fracture
b. Pericardial effusion
c. Diaphragmatic hernia
d. All of the above
e. Pulmonary contusions
f. Pneumothorax
g. None of the above
h. Pleural effusion

Answer 80

b. Pericardial effusion

Question 81

During total intravenous anaesthesia, assessing anaesthesia depth can be difficult in horses. Which of the following variables provide you with the LEAST valuable information regarding depth of anaesthesia?
a. Muscle tone
b. Arterial blood pressure
c. Heart rate
d. Presence of nystagmus

Answer 81

a. Muscle tone

Question 82

Which combination of clinical and laboratory findings would be MOST supportive of the need for fluid therapy, in a horse you suspect is hypovolaemic?

Answer 82

Increased HR, increased PCV, increased blood lactate, increased capillary refill time

Question 83

Which of the following are the morphological and possible physiological characteristics of a premature/dysmature foal?
a. Morphological: overgrown foal, floppy ears, domed forehead and short and fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, normal GI tract, poor thermoregulation, wear or normal suckle reflex, entropion.
b. Morphological: thin, floppy ears, cleft palate and short fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, immature Gi tract, poor thermoregulation, weak or normal suckle reflex, normal eyes.
c. Morphological: thin, floppy ears, domed head and short and fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, immature GI tract, poor thermoregulation, weak or normal suckle reflex, entropion.
d. Morphological: thin, floppy ears, cleft palate and short and fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, immature Gi tract, poor thermoregulation, weak or normal suckle reflex, normal eyes.

Answer 83

c. Morphological: thin, floppy ears, domed head and short and fine hair coat. Physiological: immature lungs, immature GI tract, poor thermoregulation, weak or normal suckle reflex, entropion.

Question 84

Which of the following cell types are most likely to be elevated in the respiratory secretions of a horse with moderate equine asthma?
a. eosinophils
b. macrophages
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils

Answer 84

d. neutrophils

Question 85

Image of tear in the rectal mucosa (from rectal exam) with some haemorrage. What is the recommended treatment?
- Antimicrobials, laxatives, daily inspection & evacuation of rectum
- Immediate euthanasia due to grave prognosis
- Antimicrobials, NSAIDs, rectal enema & referral
- Antimicrobials, NSAIDs, suture of tear & rectal packing
- Antimicrobials, laxatives, rectal liner, daily inspection & evacuation of rectum

Answer 85

• Antimicrobials, NSAIDs, rectal enema & referral

Question 86

A 48hr old colt is dull & not nursing well. Haematology reveals a moderate leukopenia with a left shift neutropenia, moderate toxic change & an IgG concentration of 5g/L. What is the most likely differential diagnosis & diagnostic test to help you confirm your suspicion?

Answer 86

Differential diagnosis: failure of passive transfer
Diagnostic test: Antibody Test (IgG)

Question 87

A neonatal foal hasn’t been observed to urinate since foaling (approximately 24 hours ago) and a ruptured bladder is suspected. Which of the following diagnostic findings confirms the diagnosis of a uroperitoneum?
a. Transabdominal ultrasonography and with evidence of an increase in free peritoneal fluid
b. Urine analysis and culture
c. Systemic creatinine two times higher than peritoneal fluid creatinine
d. Peritoneal fluid creatinine two times higher than systemic creatinine.

Answer 87

d. Peritoneal fluid creatinine two times higher than systemic creatinine.

Question 88

What is the main cause of hypoxaemia in horses undergoing colic surgery?
- Anaemia
- Lung oedema
- Hypoventilation
- Lung atelectasis

Answer 88

• Hypoventilation

Question 89

Which of the following is the most likely life threatening side effect in horses medicated with phenylbutazone?
- Proximal enteritis
- Right dorsal colitis
- Gastric ulceration
- Anaphylaxis

Answer 89

• Gastric ulceration

Question 90

NSAIDs exert their anti-inflammatory effect through inhibition of:
- The cyclo-oxygenase pathway
- Neither the cyclo-oxygenase & lipo-oxygenase pathway
- Both the cyclo-oxygenase & lipo-oxygenase pathway
- The lipo-oxygenase pathway

Answer 90

• The cyclo-oxygenase pathway

Question 91

Which of the following measures is an appropriate treatment method of post castration haemorrhage?
- Forced exercise
- Topical hydrogen peroxide
- Clamping testicular artery
- Systemic antimicrobials
- Hosing

Answer 91

• Clamping testicular artery

Question 92

Identify the most common complication of equine castration:
- Septic funiculitis
- Oedema
- Omental prolapse
- Intestinal evisceration
- Hydrocele

Answer 92

• Oedema

Question 93

Which of the following emasculator type allows for a separate crushing & cutting of the spermatic cord using a separate handle?
- Serra
- White
- Reimers
- Haussman
- Henderson

Answer 93

• Reimers

Question 94

A hydrocele formation is associated with the following…
- More frequent in mules & donkeys
- Closed castration technique
- Painless swelling over scrotal area
- Firm & painful scrotal swelling

Answer 94

• Painless swelling over scrotal area

Question 95

Eruption of permanent incisor 203 has occurred by what age in the horse?

Answer 95

5 years

Question 96

A 500kg TB mare has had profuse watery diarrhoea for 2 days & is now estimated to be 6% dehydrated. What volume of fluid is needed to correct the fluid deficit?

Answer 96

30L

Question 96

What clinical feature is the most sensitive indicator of adequate fluid replacement in profoundly dehydrated horses?
- 50% reduction in serum lactate concentration
- Increasing arterial blood pressure
- Normalisation of PCV & total serum protein concentration
- Resumption of normal urine output

Answer 96

• Resumption of normal urine output

Question 97

You have decided to administer IV fluids to a horse for management of dehydration. Which one of the following findings would indicate to you that your fluid replacement plan had been successful?
- The horse starts drinking from its water bucket
- The horse starts urinating
- The horse’s rectal temperature returns to normal
- The horse’s appetite returns

Answer 97

• The horse starts urinating

Question 98

How can hypovolaemia be best distinguished from dehydration when performing a clinical examination?
- The horse is depressed, CRT 2-3s & cold extremities
- The horse is mildly depressed, skin turgor 2 sec & heart rate 52 bpm
- The horse is depressed, mucous membranes are tacky & CRT 2 sec
- The horse is depressed, tacky mucous membranes & skin turgor 1 sec

Answer 98

• The horse is depressed, CRT 2-3s & cold extremities

Question 99

Which is the most appropriate type & route of fluid administration to an adult horse with profuse, watery diarrhoea & signs of hypovolaemia?
- Synthetic colloid given orally
- Water with 5% dextrose given orally
- Isotonic bicarbonate fluid given IV
- Isotonic crystalloid fluid given IV

Answer 99

• Isotonic crystalloid fluid given IV

Question 100

What is the most appropriate fluid therapy regimen for a cardiovascularly stable 500kg horse with an uncomplicated impaction of the left ventral colon?
- Encourage access to free water containing salt solution
- Repeat fluid boluses 8-10L isotonic fluid given via nasogastric tube
- Continuous rate enteric fluid therapy with hypotonic fluids at a rate of 5L/h via an indwelling nasogastric tube
- Repeat administration of 20L fluid bolus of IV crystalloid solution

Answer 100

• Repeat fluid boluses 8-10L isotonic fluid given via nasogastric tube

Question 101

A horse is presented with a laceration to the distal limb. There was obvious leakage of fluid through the wound when the distal inter-phalangeal joint was injected with sterile saline under pressure. Which of the following statements is most correct?
- Prolonged systemic administration of gentamicin & penicillin would prevent the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness
- Regional limb perfusion with gentamicin would be a relatively inexpensive treatment to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness
- Intra-articular gentamicin administration is a good choice to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness
- Joint lavage with 0.1% iodine solution would likely reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness

Answer 101

• Regional limb perfusion with gentamicin would be a relatively inexpensive treatment to reduce the risk of osteoarthritis & permanent lameness

Question 102

Radiograph of joint in one day old foal. Lots of individual little bones which look like they’re floating. What is the diagnosis?

Answer 102

Incomplete ossification of carpal bones

Question 103

What is a false statement regarding the intra-articular use of glucocorticoids in the management of degenerative joint disease?
- They prevent “post-injection flares”
- They are statistically associated with an increased risk of laminitis
- They don’t cause detrimental effects on inflamed or abnormal joints when used judiciously
- They must be used with caution as they are regulated drugs

Answer 103

• They prevent “post-injection flares”

Question 104

What is the correct statement about a negative response to diagnostic palmar digital nerves anaesthesia of the left front limb in a horse with a left front limb lameness.
- The left front lameness is less severe
- The left front lameness is as severe
- The left front lameness shifts to a right front lamaness
- The left front lameness is more severe

Answer 104

• The left front lameness is as severe

Question 105

You have performed a low 4 point nerve block. There is no improvement in lameness & you are suspicious that the nerve block has not worked effectively. Which of the following is not a reason for failure to respond to diagnostic analgesia?
- Source of lameness located proximal to the site of anaesthesia
- Subchondral bone pain
- Inaccurate needle placement
- Proximal diffusion of the local anaesthetic

Answer 105

• Proximal diffusion of the local anaesthetic

Question 106

What is the correct affirmation about the management of septic arthritis in an adult horse?
- Arthroscopic joint lavage performed on the patient under general anaesthesia increases the success rate by 80%
- Regional limb perfusion with antimicrobials performed on a standing sedated patient provides an inexpensive & often successful alternative
- Joint lavage performed on the patient under general anaesthesia is essential to a successful control on the infection
- A prolonged general antimicrobial therapy can be expensive but often leads to a positive control of the infection

Answer 106

• Regional limb perfusion with antimicrobials performed on a standing sedated patient provides an inexpensive & often successful alternative

Question 107

A 3 year old mare developed sudden onset of stiffness, sweating & is very anxious after training. The HR is 58bpm, RR36bpm, MM are pink but sticky, gut sounds are decreased & rectal temp is 37.9. 2 hours later the serum biochemistry reveals a CK of 480,000 IU/L& AST 666 IU/L. What is the tentative diagnosis?

Answer 107

Exertional rhabdomyolysis

Question 108

Radiograph of proximal inter-phalangeal joint with wispy / furry looking bone. How do you describe in radiology terms the remodeling shown?

Answer 108

Subchondral bone sclerosis

Question 109

A 6 month old SB colt is presented with effusion of the left stifle & 1/5 left hind limb lameness with no apparent trauma. What is the most appropriate diagnostic procedure & likely diagnosis?

Answer 109

A latero-medial (LM) radiograph of the stifle to identify an OCD of the lateral ridge of the trochlea of the femur

Question 110

Which of the following options is the common reason for graft failure & wound dehiscence?
- Infection
- Excessive pressure from bandage
- Inadequate NSAID therapy
- Inadequate antimicrobial therapy
- Exuberant granulation tissue

Answer 110

• Infection

Question 111

Which of the following procedures would most specifically localise pain to the fetlock joint cavity?
- Abaxial sesamoid nerve anaesthesia
- Carpo-metacarpal joint anaesthesia
- Metacarpo-phalangeal joint anaesthesia
- Low 4 point palmar anaesthesia

Answer 111

• Metacarpo-phalangeal joint anaesthesia

Question 112

Which of the following diagnostic procedures is not indicated for the investigation of a lameness that resolved after a palmar digital nerve block?
- Distal interphalangeal joint anaesthesia
- Ultrasonographic examination of the collateral ligaments of the fetlock joint
- Radiographic examination of the podotrochlear apparatus
- MRI of the distal interphalangeal joint

Answer 112

• Distal interphalangeal joint anaesthesia

Question 113

Which of the following steps is most critical when dealing with a lower limb laceration of a horse?
- Systemic antimicrobial coverage
- Debridement of all non-vital & contaminated tissues
- Immobilisation of the limb using a Robert Jones bandage
- Rule out any synovial structure involvement

Answer 113

• Rule out any synovial structure involvement

Question 114

Which of the following statements about fracture immobilisation by a splint is true? The splint should:
- Be placed at the palmar aspect of the limb to stabilise a distal forelimb fracture
- Be placed at the dorsal aspect of the limb to stabilise a distal hindlimb fracture
- Not be placed to stabilise an open fracture
- Be placed at the dorsal aspect of the limb to stabilise a distal forelimb fracture

Answer 114

• Be placed at the dorsal aspect of the limb to stabilise a distal forelimb fracture

Question 115

A 2yo SB filly is presented with a semi-circumferential laceration of the right front leg with a complete section of the common digital extensor tendon. Which prognosis can be given to the owner?
- 20% chance to survive & euthanasia is recommended
- 80% change to survive but her racing career is over
- 80% change to survive & to fully recover for racing
- 50% chance to survive & 50% change to be sound for racing

Answer 115

• 80% change to survive & to fully recover for racing

Question 116

Inclement weather (low temperatures, wind & rain) may lead to weight loss because:
- It increases the competition for food among herd mates
- Horses are unable to digest & absorb nutrients as efficiently
- It increases the digestible energy requirements
- It induces partial anorexia

Answer 116

• It increases the digestible energy requirements

Question 117

A 7yo show jumping horse presents an acute lameness of the left front limb & a painful warm effusion of the left front fetlock joint 6 days after an intra-articular injection with 5mg of triamcinilone. What lab test will 100% confirm an infection of this joint?
- Elevated serum amyloid A (SAA) in synovial fluid sample
- A positive culture of synovial fluid sample
- Elevated cell count & total protein in synovial fluid sample
- Reduced glucose & pH in synovial fluid sample

Answer 117

• Elevated serum amyloid A (SAA) in synovial fluid sample

Question 118

Laminitis caused by endocrinopathic or metabolic dysfunction is associated with which of the following pathophysiological processes?
- Hyperglycaemia
- Triglyceride dysregulation
- Insulin dysregulation
- Hypercortisolaemia

Answer 118

• Insulin dysregulation

Question 119

Dysphagia & muscle fasciculations in a horse without fever is most likely caused by:
- Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)
- Hendra virus infection
- Exertional rhabdomyolysis
- Kunjin encephalitis virus infection

Answer 119

• Kunjin encephalitis virus infection

Question 120

Which form of ataxia is related to a horse that demonstrates ataxia without intention tremor or head tilt?
- Cerebellar
- Trigeminal
- Spinal
- Vestibular

Answer 120

• Spinal

Question 121

A horse showing hind-limb ataxia, bladder paresis, perineal hypalgesia but normal mentation & no muscle tremors is most likely to have been infected by which virus?
- Kunjin virus
- Equine herpes virus 1
- Rabies virus
- Ross river virus

Answer 121

• Equine herpes virus 1

Question 122

Which of the following tests is most beneficial in determining whether a neurologic horse is demonstrating signs of paresis?
- Obstacle course
- Tail pull while walking
- Blindfolding
- Standing tail pull

Answer 122

• Tail pull while walking

Question 123

Which of the following methods would be the most appropriate & fastest way of preparing a healthy granulation bed for skin grafting when presented with a chronic, fully granulated “degloving” wound over the dorsal aspect of the third metatarsal bone?
- Wound lavage using sterile saline at a pressure of 18psi
- Trim excess epithelial lining
- Cleaning & chemical debridement using 50% hydrogen peroxide
- Bone rasping & blunt debridement
- Trim excess granulation tissue

Answer 123

• Trim excess granulation tissue

Question 124

In relation to the detection of a patent adult tapeworm infestation in an individual horse, the McMasters faecal egg count can be considered as having:

Answer 124

High sensitivity & low specificity

Question 125

Which of the following skin grafting techniques represents a full thickness island graft that is associated with a high success rate?
- Punch graft
- Mesh graft
- Pinch graft
- Tunnel graft
- Sheet graft

Answer 125

• Punch graft

Question 126

Which of the following anthelmintic drugs is effective against encysted larval stages of the Cyathostome nematodes?
- Ivermectin
- Praziquantel
- Oxfendazole
- Moxidectin

Answer 126

• Moxidectin

Question 127

A horse presents with a penetrating soft tissue injury & an unknown vaccination history. What is the appropriate recommendation regarding tetanus prophylaxis at this time?
- Administer tetanus toxoid now, with a second dose given 4-6 weeks later
- Administer tetanus toxoid now & wait 7 days to administer tetanus antitoxin
- Administer both tetanus antitoxin & toxoid now followed by a second dose of toxoid 4-6 weeks later

Answer 127

• Administer both tetanus antitoxin & toxoid now followed by a second dose of toxoid 4-6 weeks later

Question 128

In which of the following phases of the wound healing process does wound contraction occur?
- Inflammation phase
- Debridement & remodeling phase
- Inflammation & debridement phase
- Proliferation & maturation phase
- Debridement phase

Answer 128

• Proliferation & maturation phase

Question 129

Which of the following factors will delay formation of exuberant granulation tissue significantly?
- Exposed muscle fascia
- Bandaging
- Topical antimicrobials
- Exposed bone
- Wound contraction

Answer 129

• Exposed bone

Question 130

What is the most important technical aspect of an episioplasty on a maiden-mare to ensure a long breeding career?
- Perform a wide breeding stitch
- Excise only as thin muscle layer
- Use an absorbable suture material
- Excise only a thin muco-cutaneous layer

Answer 130

• Excise only a thin muco-cutaneous layer

Question 131

Which 2 disease categories account for ~50% of cases of weight loss in adult horses?
- Parasites & dental disorders
- Hepatopathy & neoplasia
- Digestive disorders & renal disease
- Abdominal infection & PPID / Cushing’s

Answer 131

• Parasites & dental disorders

Question 132

Which would be the most economical first approach to a weight loss case, without any localising signs of disease?
- Rectal exam, abdo US, abdominocentesis, CBC & biochem
- Dental exam, rebreathing exam, feacal egg count, CBC & biochem
- Dental exam, rectal exam, faecal egg count, abdo US & abdominocentesis
- Abdo radiographs, rectal exam, rebreathing exam, faecal egg count & gastroscopy

Answer 132

• Dental exam, rebreathing exam, feacal egg count, CBC & biochem

Question 133

Which of the following statment is true about the perineal laceration of the above illustrated degree?
- It should be repaired after 10-15 days to minimise the risk of dehiscence
- It should be repaired within 48 hours to minimise the risk of dehiscence
- It should be repaired with the mare under general anaesthesia
- If not repaired can lead to persistent contamination of the vagina & infertility

Answer 133

• It should be repaired after 10-15 days to minimise the risk of dehiscence

Question 134

How many days after wounding would you expect to see first evidence of granulation tissue formation?
- 3-4 days
- 1-2 days
- 14-21 days
- 10-12 days
- 6-7 days

Answer 134

• 14-21 days

Question 135

What 2 structures are anastomosed during surgical correction of a priapism in a stallion?
- Corpus spongiosum & ischeocavernosus
- Corpus spongiosum & bulbospongiosum
- Corpus cavernosum & corpus spongiosum
- Corpus cavernosum & tunica albuginea

Answer 135

• Corpus cavernosum & corpus spongiosum

Question 136

Which of the following neoplastic conditions is most common on the equine penis?
- Squamous cell carcinoma
- Sarcoid
- Habronema
- Adenoma
- Melanoma

Answer 136

• Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 137

Which statement is true about urolithiasis in horses?
- Uroliths can’t be efficiently dissolved or prevented with an alkalinizing diet
- Uroliths can be efficiently dissolved or prevented with an acidifying diet
- Type II uroliths are less common but occur at several other locations of the urinary tract in 50% cases
- Type I uroliths are yellow green colour, spiculated & more common

Answer 137

• Type I uroliths are yellow green colour, spiculated & more common

Question 138

Which of the following antimicrobial drugs is effective when administered via the oral route in horses?
- Penicillin
- Amikacin
- Gentamicin
- Ceftiofur
- Trimethoprim sulfonamide

Answer 138

• Trimethoprim sulfonamide

Question 139

In regards to compounding antimicrobials please select the most accurate statement.
- Compounded medications are considerably cheaper than labelled formulations & their affordable cost outweight the risks
- If purchased from a reliable company, there are no disadvantages in using this cheaper formulation, in comparison to the labelled formulation
- Compounded medications are not subject to rigorous assessment for product quality, efficacy & safety & should be avoided
- Compounded medications should never be used

Answer 139

• Compounded medications are not subject to rigorous assessment for product quality, efficacy & safety & should be avoided

Question 140

Which fo the following drug combinations administered systemically is LEAST likely to increase the risk of renal damage due to NSAID toxicity?
- Oxytetracycline & phenylbutazone
- Furosemide & flunixin
- Gentamicin & phenylbutazone
- Penicillin & phenylbutazone
- Amikacin & flunixin meglumine

Answer 140

• Penicillin & phenylbutazone

Question 141

Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial activity is true?
- Gentamicin is a time-dependent drug
- Ceftiofur is a time-dependent drug
- Enrofloxacin is a time-dependent drug
- Amikacin is a time-dependent drug
- Penicillin is a concentration dependent drug

Answer 141

• Ceftiofur is a time-dependent drug

Question 142

Which of the following dietary management protocols is most appropriate for treatment of equine metabolic syndrome?
- Provide a diet primarily of long-stemmed fibre & provde carbs at 15-20% of daily intake
- Limit soluble carbs & soak hay prior to feeding to limit the amount of carbs ingested
- Feed primarily lucerne hay but recommend a grazing muzzle to limit the amount of fresh grass consumed during pasture turn-out
- Feed grass hay & allow no more than 50% of the day for grazing fresh grass in pasture

Answer 142

• Limit soluble carbs & soak hay prior to feeding to limit the amount of carbs ingested

Question 143

What is the mechanism of action of pergolide in relation to the treatment for pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID)?
- A GABA agonist
- A serotonin agonist
- A dopamine agonist
- A POMC agonist

Answer 143

• A dopamine agonist

Question 144

A 3 month old foal is presented with pyrexia, cough & nasal discharge. The foal & its mother are housed in a dry lot with 3 other mares & their foals. Clinical examination of the foal shows increased resp rate & increased bronchovesicular sounds. Lab studies show leucocytosis with neutrophilia. Radiographs show a prominent alveolar pattern characterised by ill-defined regional consolidation. The most likely cause is?

Answer 144

Rhodococcus equi

Question 145

Photo of horse with arrow pointing to side of face (upper cheekbone area). Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?
- V trigeminal
- VII facial
- III oculomotor
- I olfactory

Answer 145

• VII facial

Question 146

An endurance horse has just finished a 160km ride & is presented with colic signs & a high body temp (40.8 degrees celsius). What is the preferred treatment?
- Cooling
- Enteral fluid therapy
- Flunixin meglumine
- Detomidine

Answer 146

• Cooling

Question 147

At least what percentage of their bodyweight in forage (dry matter) does a horse need to consume daily in order to maintain appropriate GI health?

Answer 147

1%

Question 148

Which of the following is the least likely explanation for a positive bacterial culture from a tracheal wash, taken via endoscopy from a horse with severe equine asthma?
- Contamination of the sample due to non-aseptic technique
- Primary bacterial infection
- Normal upper respiratory tract flora
- Opportunistic secondary bacterial infection

Answer 148

• Primary bacterial infection

Question 149

Which of the following is the most likely source of bleeding in a horse with exercise induced pulmonary haemorrhage?
- Pulmonary vasculature; cranioventral lung lobes
- Pulmonary vasculature; caudodorsal lung lobes
- Bronchial vasculature; cranioventral lung lobes
- Bronchial vasculature; caudodrsal lung lobes

Answer 149

• Pulmonary vasculature; caudodorsal lung lobes

Question 150

Which diagnostic tool is most useful to confirm a definitive diagnosis of equine asthma?
- Tracheal wash
- Endoscopy
- Bronchoalveolar lavage
- Nasopharyngeal swab

Answer 150

• Bronchoalveolar lavage

Question 151

Which of the following is the most common cause of systolic murmurs on the right side of the thorax in the horse?
- Ventricular septal defect
- Aortic regurgitation
- Tricuspid regurgitation
- Mitral regurgitation

Answer 151

• Tricuspid regurgitation

Question 152

Which of the following best represents normal equine urine?

Answer 152

Cloudy, pH 8.0, urine dipstick 1+ protein

Question 153

Which of the following is the most likely cause of a dorsally radiating holosystolic murmur auscultated over the left apex of the heart?

Answer 153

Mitral valve regurgitation

Question 154

During a routine clinical examination of a 10 year old eventer you note an early grade 2 systolic murmur that does not extend to S2 & is localised over the heart base. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

Answer 154

It is likely a murmur of aortic valve insufficiency; the horse should have an echocardiogram

Question 155

Which of the following statements about GI macromolecule absorption in the neonate is most accurate?

Answer 155

Intestinal macromolecule absorption is greatest before 6hr age & reduces to zero by 24-36hr

Question 156

The periocular lesions (shown in the image) have been present for the past 6-9 months but the owner has recently noticed additional nodules. What is the most likely diagnosis & most appropriate treatment?
- Verrucous sarcoid; cryotherapy
- Occult sarcoid; intra & perilesional BCG injections
- Nodular sarcoid; intra & peri-lesional BCG injections
- Nodular sarcoid; intra & perilesional cisplatin injections

Answer 156

• Nodular sarcoid; intra & perilesional cisplatin injections

Question 157

Gastric reflux is considered significant in horses when the pH is more (blank) & (blank) of net reflux is obtained at anytime.

Answer 157

Alkaline
>4

Question 158

During a routine rectal exam in a horse what will be palpable in the left dorsal & right dorsal abdominal quadrants respectively?

Answer 158

• Spleen, kidney, nephrosplenic space; caecum with one taenial bands

Question 159

A variety of techniques should be used to ensure a nasogastric tube is correctly placed within the oesophagus. Which of the following options is NOT a consistent method?

Answer 159

The horse will cough when you pass the tube into the trachea. Therefore absence of a cough ensures correct placement

Question 160

During a rectal exam of a horse with mild to moderate colic you feel a structure with dough-like ingesta in the left ventral abdominal quadrant extending towards the right. Choose the most likely diagnosis:
- Pelvic flexure & left ventral colon impaction
- Left dorsal displacement of the large colon
- Right dorsal displacement of the large colon
- Caecal impaction
- Ileal impaction

Answer 160

• Caecal impaction

Question 161

A 36hr old foal has a history of not nursing & progressive weakness. On presentation the foal is recumbent & dull. Physical exam reveals a rectal temp of 36.8, HR of 140bpm, resp rate 38bpm, congested mucous membranes with CRT of 3 sec, serum lactate of 4mmol/L & glucose of 4.2mmol/L. CBC & biochem revealed a moderate leucopenia with a left shift neutrophilia & presence of cytoplasmic vacuolation of neutrophils as well as mild azotaemia. Appropriate treatment plan?

Answer 161

Measure IgG concentrations, ultrasound abdomen, start on maintenance IV fluids using 0.45% NaCl & 5% dextrose

Question 162

Which of the following is a key advantage of field exercise testing compared with treadmill exercise testing?
- Environmental conditions can be easily controlled
- Horses can be exercised to fatigue
- Competition or racing conditions can be easily replicated
- Resp measurements including breathing frequency, tidal volume & minute ventilation can be easily performed

Answer 162

• Competition or racing conditions can be easily replicated

Question 163

Energy regulation involves a complex interaction of various body systems. Dysregulation of any of the regulatory systems in neonates commonly results in:
- Hypothermia
- Hypotension
- Hypoglycaemia
- Hypoproteinaemia

Answer 163

• Hypoglycaemia

Question 164

A 4 day old foal is evaluated for being dull & not nursing well. Physical exam reveals slightly injected MM, a rectal temp of 39.5 & effusion of the tarsocrural joint. Septicaemia is suspected secondary to failure of passive transfer of immunity. What is the most appropriate action prior to referral?

Answer 164

Replace fluid deficits including a 1L plasma transfusion & treat with Na penicillin & gentamicin

Question 165

During a rectal exam of a horse with severe colic you feel a severely distended colon just cranial to the pelvis, coursing in a horizontal direction. Choose the most likely diagnosis from the list below.
- Pelvic flexure & left ventral colon impaction
- Left dorsal displacement of the large colon
- Right dorsal displacement of the large colon
- Large colon volvulus
- Caecal impaction

Answer 165

• Large colon volvulus

Question 166

Oxygen insufflation in a neonate should be instituted when the PaO2 is:

Answer 166

<60mmHg

Question 167

The normal resp & HR range in a neonatal foal <12hr of age is:
- 20-30 breaths per min, 100-120 bpm
- 40-50 breaths per min, 80-100 bpm
- 30-40 breaths per min, 80-120 bpm
- 10-20 breaths per min, 60-80 bpm

Answer 167

• 40-50 breaths per min, 80-100 bpm

Question 168

Which of the following is NOT a cause of neonatal pneumonia?
- Rhodococcus equi
- Equine herpes virus 1
- Chlamydia psittaci
- Mixed bacterial population including anaerobes

Answer 168

• Rhodococcus equi

Question 169

Which of the following cardiac findings are most likely to affect athletic performance negatively in a TB racehorse?
- Grade 3/6 tricuspid regurgitation
- Persistent atrial fibrillation
- 2nd degree AV block at rest
- Grade 2/6 mitral regurgitation

Answer 169

• Persistent atrial fibrillation

Question 170

Which of the following therapies is associated with the development of acute tubular necrosis in horses?

Answer 170

Amikacin

Question 171

A 3yo racehorse is presented for investigation of poor performance during his last race. Clinical exam reveals a HR of 32 with occasional dropped beats & a grade 2/6 systolic murmur over the right heart base. The resting resp rate is 12 breaths per min & he has a 1/5 left forelimb lameness during trot in a straight line. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to perform next?
- Echocardiography
- A more detailed lameness exam
- Endoscopic examination of the airways
- A resting electrocardiogram (ECG)

Answer 171

• A more detailed lameness exam

Question 172

Choose the most appropriate practical method to assess a horse with suspected polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM):

Answer 172

Serum CK & AST concentrations, 4-6 hours after 15 min of exercise

Question 173

Which of the following are the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis?
- Hypoperfusion, NSAID use, aminoglycoside antimicrobial use
- Severe rhabdomyolysis, NSAID use, ascending bacterial infection
- Severe rhabdomyolysis, NSAID use, beta lactam antimicrobial use
- Ascending bacterial infection, NSAID use, aminoglycoside antimicrobial use
- NSAID use, aminoglycoside antimicrobial use, immune-complex disease

Answer 173

• Hypoperfusion, NSAID use, aminoglycoside antimicrobial use

Question 174

The repeated episodes of uveal inflammation that characterise equine recurrent uveitis are associated with what inciting factor?
- The presence of intraocular neoplastic tissue
- Dysregulation of the host immune system resulting in abnormal responses to uveal autoantigens
- Recurrent bouts of systemic inflammation
- The activity of bacterial & leukocyte antiproteases degrading uveal tissue

Answer 174

• Dysregulation of the host immune system resulting in abnormal responses to uveal autoantigens

Question 175

Choose the correct description for the ocular abnormalities present in photo A & the abnormality identified by the arrow in photo B.

Answer 175

A = right sided ptosis
B = hypopyon

Question 176

Choose the most suitable treatment and prognosis for the ulcerative keratitis depicted below.
- Topical chloramphenicol ointment q4-6h, topical atropine ointment q24-48hr, systemic NSAIDs; good prognosis likely to heal in 5-7 days
- No treatment required, just keep the eye covered using a fly mask; good prognosis likely to heal in 5-7 days
- Place a subpalpebral lavage system, topical chloramphenicol drops q2hr, systemic NSAIDs; guarded prognosis likely to require long term intensive treatment
- Topical triple antimicrobial ointment q6-8hr, topical atropine ointment q24-48hr, systemic NSAIDs; good prognosis likely to heal in 5-7 days

Answer 176

• Topical triple antimicrobial ointment q6-8hr, topical atropine ointment q24-48hr, systemic NSAIDs; good prognosis likely to heal in 5-7 days

Question 177

A 14yo horse is examined because of weight loss & partial anorexia. Clinical exam is normal except for severe dental tartar & oral erosions. Which of the following results confirms the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in this horse?

Answer 177

An elevation of serum creatinine & BUN in combination with a USG between 1.008-1.012

Question 178

Please indicate the correct statement about management of septic arthritis.
- Arthroscopic lavage of the joint increases the chances for full recovery by 80%
- Prolonged systemic antimicrobial therapy can control the infection
- Regional limb perfusion with antimicrobials is inexpensive & can easily be performed on a standing horse
- Joint lavage is essential but requires general anaesthesia

Answer 178

• Regional limb perfusion with antimicrobials is inexpensive & can easily be performed on a standing horse

Question 179

The most common causes of icterus in adult horses are:
- Haemolysis, liver disease & anorexia
- Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), blood loss anaemia & haemolysis
- Sepsis, hyperlipaemia & anorexia
- Hyperbilirubina, phototoxins & lymphoma

Answer 179

• Haemolysis, liver disease & anorexia

Question 180

Please indicate the correct statement about osteochondrosis in horses.
- OCD is rarely bilateral, therefore, after OCD is diagnosed in one joint, radiographic examination of the contralateral joint is not recommended
- OCD can be asymptomatic & diagnosed incidentally when the horse is radiographed for sale or any other reason
- Despite the age of the horse, OCD lesions may progress (get larger) or stay the same overtime
- The proximal interphalangeal joint is the most commonly affected joint

Answer 180

• OCD can be asymptomatic & diagnosed incidentally when the horse is radiographed for sale or any other reason

Question 181

Choose the most appropriate method to assess a horse with suspected polysaccharide storage myopathy (PSSM):
- Serum CK & AST concentrations, 4 to 6 hours after 15 min of exercise
- Serum CK & AST concentrations when showing signs of muscle pain at rest
- Serum CK & AST concentrations, half hour after 15 min of exercise
- Serum CK concentration 4 hours after 15 min of exercise & serum AST concentration 2 weeks after exercise

Answer 181

• Serum CK & AST concentrations, 4 to 6 hours after 15 min of exercise

Question 182

Please indicate the correct statement regarding angular limb deformities (ALD) in foals
- Growth retardation techniques would occur on the short (concave) side of the bone & would not overcorrect
- ALD of the fetlock can be treated conservatively within the first 3 months of age
- Carpal / tarsal valgus & fetlock varus are most common
- Conservative therapy would include forced exercise of the foal

Answer 182

• Carpal / tarsal valgus & fetlock varus are most common

Question 183

Please indicate the correct statement about horse gaits
- Gallop is a four beat symmetric gait with a suspension phase
- Walk is a four beat symmetric gait with a suspension phase
- Canter is a three beat assymetric gait with a suspension phase
- Trot is a two beat symmetric gait without a suspension phase

Answer 183

• Canter is a three beat assymetric gait with a suspension phase

Question 184

Which of the following statements would best describe a horse with chronic kidney disease?
- Weight loss, anuria, hyponatraemia, azotaemia & hyposthenuria
- Weight loss, anuria, hyponatraemia, azotaemia & isosthenuria
- Weight loss, polyuria, anaemia, azotaemia & isosthenuria
- Weight loss, polyuria, anaemia, azotaemia & hyposthenuria

Answer 184

• Weight loss, polyuria, anaemia, azotaemia & isosthenuria

Question 185

Please indicate the most distal nerve block that would likely anaesthetise the whole foot
- Low 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves in the distal half of the canon)
- Palmar digital nerve blocked at the level of the proximal sesamoid bones (abaxial nerve block)
- Palmar digital (PD) nerve block at the level of the pastern
- High 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves close to the carpometacarpal joint)

Answer 185

• Palmar digital nerve blocked at the level of the proximal sesamoid bones (abaxial nerve block)

Question 186

Please indicate the correct option regarding the interpretation of the radiograph of a one-day old foal (bones which are floating in space / look like ice cubes)
- Asymmetric growth of metaphysis & epiphysis
- Septic arthritis, collapsed carpal bones
- Incomplete ossification of carpal bones
- Adequate ossification of carpal bones

Answer 186

• Incomplete ossification of carpal bones

Question 187

A newborn foal is presented with a patent urachus which developed 4 days after birth. Which of the following is an indicator for surgical ablation of the umbilical remnants?
- The foal is a male & the urachus is unlikely to close spontaneously
- The foal has a leukocytosis & elevated serum amyloid A (SAA) concentration
- The ultrasound examination of the umbilicus revealed an abnormal enlargement of the umbilical vein
- During urination more urine is passed from the urachus than the urethra

Answer 187

• The ultrasound examination of the umbilicus revealed an abnormal enlargement of the umbilical vein

Question 188

A show jumper is presented for investigation of poor performance. He is reported to rush at fences & is reluctant to work with the head & neck flexed. A resting examination was unremarkable & the horse appears to be sound at walk & trot in a straight line & during lunged exercise. What would be the most appropriate next step?
- Full blood profile
- Exercising electrocardiogram
- Further lameness examination using a Lameness Locator
- Endoscopic examination of the respiratory tract

Answer 188

• Endoscopic examination of the respiratory tract

Question 189

After an intense training session a TB colt presented with mild lameness & swellin over the palmar mid-metacarpal soft tissue area of his left foreleg. On palpation, the affected mid-metacarpal area is warm & mildly painful. Which of the following is true about this case?
- Immediate cold therapy, support bandage & anti-inflammatory therapy are indicated
- This is likely a lesion within the digital flexor tendon sheath & the horse should recover in 2 weeks
- Desmotomy of the palmar annular ligament is indicated & the colt should be back in training in 4 months
- This is likely desmitis of the suspensory ligament (M. interosseous) & may be treated with stem cell injections

Answer 189

• Immediate cold therapy, support bandage & anti-inflammatory therapy are indicated

Question 190

A 1 year old horse suddenly started exhibiting right hind lameness & right hock effusion. Radiographic evaluation revealed a loose osteochondral fragment in the tarsocrural (i.e. tibiotarsal joint). Please indicate the most likely disease & the best therapeutic approach for this horse.
- Septic arthritis, antibiotic therapy plus immobilisation
- Osteochondrosis, anti-inflammatories plus stall rest
- Septic arthritis, antibiotics & arthroscopic surgery
- Osteochondrosis, arthroscopic surgery

Answer 190

• Osteochondrosis, arthroscopic surgery

Question 191

24 hours post insemination a mare was examined. She received 1.25mg of deslorelin at insemination. On palpation per rectum the cervix was relaxed, uterus relaxed, left ovary had a 42mm soft follicle & on the right ovary follicles were palpated. Per rectum ultrasound showed the following. What action plan is recommended for this mare?

Answer 191

Re-examine the mare the next day to confirm ovulation

Question 192

Fractional excretion (FE) of electrolytes is a sensitive method for evaluation of overall nephron function. Which of the following FE combinations is most likely in a horse with acute kidney injury?
- FEna - 2.5%, FEcl - 3%, Fek - 45%, FEca - 0.5%
- FEna - 0.3%, FEcl - 1%, FEk - 73%, FEca - 3%
- FEna - 2.5%, FEcl - 3%, FEk - 45%, FEca - 11%
- FEna - 0.3%, FEcl - 1%, FEk - 8%, FEca - 3%

Answer 192

• FEna - 2.5%, FEcl - 3%, FEk - 45%, FEca - 11%

Question 193

A mare that aborted yesterday is presented to the clinic with foetid vaginal discharge. On physical examination her temperature was 38.5, respiration was 20 breath/min, HR was 40bpm. MM were pink & moist, CRT 2 seconds. Palpation of the forelimbs showed an increase in digital pulses. No injuries were noticed on perineal area examination & foetal membranes palpated within the vagina. What treatment will be recommended for this mare?
- Administer broad spectrum antibiotics for 10 days
- Administer broad spectrum antibiotics, flunixin meglumine & oxytocin, perform uterine lavages, apply ice boots & provide a stall or paddock with cushioned surface
- Initiate an oxytocin drip, infuse the uterus with antibiotics & provide a stall or paddock with cushioned surface
- Administer oxytocin every 2h until she expels the foetal membrane

Answer 193

• Administer broad spectrum antibiotics, flunixin meglumine & oxytocin, perform uterine lavages, apply ice boots & provide a stall or paddock with cushioned surface

Question 194

Please indicate the factor that has the most negative impact on the prognosis in horses with long bone fractures in the proximal limbs.
- 6 hours travel to the nearest referral centre
- Diagnosed & referral 8 days after the fracture
- Horse age >8 years
- Bodyweight more than 250-300kg

Answer 194

• Bodyweight more than 250-300kg

Question 195

Provide 2 advantages & 2 disadvantages of arthroscopic lavage to manage septic synovitis.

Answer 195

Advantages:
- Higher success rate
- Better visualisation of the joint

Disadvantages:
- Requires specialist surgeon
- Expensive

Question 196

Please indicate the correct statement about the morphology & physiology of synovial joints
- In mature horses, the articular cartilage is supplied by vessels & nerves which explains why arthritis causes so much pain
- Synovial fluid is produced mostly by the chondrocytes
- The subchondral bone provides physical support & nutrition to the deep layers of the articular cartilage
- The only function of the synovial fluid is lubrication of articular cartilages

Answer 196

• The subchondral bone provides physical support & nutrition to the deep layers of the articular cartilage

Question 197

Please indicate the correct statement about the aetiopathogenesis of osteoarthritis
- Septic arthritis can only cause significant damage to the articular cartilage & lead to osteoarthritis if left untreated
- Malnutrition leading to growth retardation is a very common cause of osteoarthritis, thus adequate nutrition can markedly reduce the prevalence of osteoarthritis
- Major joint instability due to ligament damage will lead to osteoarthritis
- Because articular cartilage is capable of self repair, wear & tear is rarely the cause of osteoarthritis

Answer 197

• Major joint instability due to ligament damage will lead to osteoarthritis

Question 198

A horse with an obvious (AAEP grade 3) left front lameness was subjected to a palmar digital (PD) nerve block of the left forelimb. Please watch the videos below showing the horse trotting before & after the nerve block & indicate the correct statement about the response to the block.
- After the block the horse started exhibiting even more severe left front lameness (AAEP grade 5)
- After the block the horse exhibited marked improvement of the left front limb lameness
- The block resolved the left front limb lameness & the horse started exhibiting obvious right front lameness (AAEP grade 3)
- The block did not change anything & after the block the horse exhibited a very obvious left front lameness similar to what the horse was exhibiting before the block

Answer 198

• After the block the horse exhibited marked improvement of the left front limb lameness

Question 199

Please indicate the correct statement about surgical ankylosis (arthrodesis)
- It is a good method to relieve pain in low motion joints with end-stage degenerative joint disease
- It means the end of the sport career of the horse in all cases
- It is the method of choice to restore the function of the metacarpophalangeal joint of sport horses with end-stage degenerative joint disease
- It is the only option to relieve pain associated with end-stage degenerative joint disease

Answer 199

• It is a good method to relieve pain in low motion joints with end-stage degenerative joint disease

Question 200

A 2yo filly is being treated with penicillin & phenylbutazone for a respiratory infection. After 7 days she develops mild anaemia, peripheral oedema & petechiation of mucous membranes. Which option would be the most logical decision?
- Vaccinate against Streptococcus equi equi
- Continue penicillin treatment since a Streptococcus equi equi infection is suspected
- Postpone performing a skin biopsy
- Administer a high dose of corticosteroids

Answer 200

• Administer a high dose of corticosteroids

Question 201

Please indicate the correct answer about the surgical procedure illustrated in the drawing below (vagina being sutured closed)
- Reconstruction of the perineal body; indicated in mares with pneumovagina; better if performed with epidural anaesthesia
- Caslick procedure; indicated in mares with pneumovagina; easy to perform with local anaesthesia
- Caslick procedure; indicated in mares with pneumovagina and/or urovagina; better if performed with epidural anaesthesia
- Reconstruction of the perineal body; indicated in mares with pneumovagina and/or urovagina; easy to perform with local

Answer 201

• Caslick procedure; indicated in mares with pneumovagina; easy to perform with local anaesthesia

Question 202

What is the most appropriate treatment regime for a horse with recurrent airway obstruction (RAO)?
- Low dust environment, bronchodilator and corticosteroids
- Low dust environment, bronchodilator and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
- Low dust environment, antibiotics and corticosteroids
- Low dust environment, antibiotics and bronchodilator

Answer 202

• Low dust environment, bronchodilator and corticosteroids

Question 203

How can RAO be best distinguished from inflammatory airway disease during the clinical examination?
- Based on bronchoalveolar lavage findings. Horses with RAO will have a higher proportion of neutrophils
- Horses with RAO will cough, whilst horses with IAD will not
- Horses with RAO will have evidence of increased respiratory effort at rest, whilst horses with IAD will not
- Based on tracheal wash findings. Horses with RAO will have a higher proportion of neutrophils

Answer 203

• Horses with RAO will have evidence of increased respiratory effort at rest, whilst horses with IAD will not

Question 204

What is the most likely diagnosis for a horse that is presented with bilateral purulent nasal discharge and fever without a cough?
- Strangles disease
- Pleuropneumonia
- Recurrent Airway Obstruction (RAO)
- Bronchopneumonia

Answer 204

• Strangles disease

Question 205

A 2-year old horse develops acute swelling of the head two weeks after drainage of a submandibular abscess. Your tentative diagnosis is purpura haemorrhagica. What are the two most important components of the treatment of equine purpura haemorrhagica?
- Immunosuppressive corticosteroid treatment (IV or IM) and IV fluids
- IV fluids and antimicrobial treatment (procaine penicillin IM)
- Immunosuppressive corticosteroid treatment (IV or IM) and diuretics (furosemide IV)
- Immunosuppressive corticosteroid treatment (IV or IM) and antimicrobial treatment (procaine penicillin IM)

Answer 205

• Immunosuppressive corticosteroid treatment (IV or IM) and antimicrobial treatment (procaine penicillin IM)

Question 206

What is the aetiology of strangles and how is the disease spread?
- Streptococcus equi subspecies equi, which is transmitted either by direct or indirect contact
- Streptococcus equi subspecies zooepidemicus, which is transmitted only by direct contact
- Streptococcus equi subspecies equi, which is transmitted only by direct contact
- Streptococcus equi subspecies zooepidemicus, which is transmitted either by direct or indirect contact

Answer 206

• Streptococcus equi subspecies equi, which is transmitted either by direct or indirect contact

Question 207

Which rules should be included in the isolation protocol once strangles is diagnosed at a stable yard:
- Isolation of horses up to 3 weeks after the diagnosis of strangles disease and clean the environment
- Isolation of horses up to 3 weeks after the diagnosis of strangles disease and 2 weeks treatment of the horses with clinical signs
- Isolation of horses up to 6 weeks after the diagnosis of strangles disease and endoscopy of the guttural pouch of horses to indicate carrier status of horses
- Isolation of horses up to 3 weeks after resolution of clinical signs of strangles disease and negative culture of nasal-pharyngeal swabs

Answer 207

• Isolation of horses up to 3 weeks after resolution of clinical signs of strangles disease and negative culture of nasal-pharyngeal swabs

Question 208

Examine the following endoscopic image taken during exercise. What form of dynamic airway collapse is shown? (hourglass figure)

Answer 208

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds (“hourglass” shape)

Question 209

In a horse with recurrent laryngeal neuropathy, which muscle is implicated in the failure to abduct the arytenoid cartilage?
- Thyroarytenoideus
- Cricothyroideus
- Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis
- Cricoarytenoideus lateralis

Answer 209

• Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

Question 210

Examine the endoscopic image taken from a racehorse during strenuous exercise. Which treatment option would be most appropriate in this horse?
- Prosthetic laryngoplasty and ventriculocordectomy
- Laser Ventriculectomy
- Ventriculocordectomy
- Partial arytenoidectomy

Answer 210

• Prosthetic laryngoplasty and ventriculocordectomy (RACEHORSE)

Question 211

Which of the following forms of dynamic airway collapse is most likely to be associated with abnormal respiratory sounds during expiration?
- Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds
- Vocal fold collapse
- Pharyngeal wall collapse
- Dorsal displacement of the soft palate

Answer 211

• Dorsal displacement of the soft palate

Question 212

Which of the following diagnostic techniques is the most appropriate for making a definitive diagnosis of dynamic upper airway collapse in the horse?
- Sound analysis
- Exercising endoscopy
- Resting endoscopy
- Laryngeal ultrasound

Answer 212

• Exercising endoscopy

Question 213

Which of the following statements best describes the situation in a normal horse during exercise?
- Soft, blowing sounds are normal during expiration but not during inspiration
- Loud respiratory noises are audible throughout the respiratory cycle
- There should be no audible respiratory sounds during inspiration or expiration
- Soft, blowing sounds are audible during inspiration but not during expiration

Answer 213

• Soft, blowing sounds are normal during expiration but not during inspiration

Question 214

A deficiency of which of the following electrolytes is a possible risk factor for development of atrial fibrillation?
- Sodium
- Calcium
- Potassium
- Chloride

Answer 214

• Potassium

Question 215

You diagnose atrial fibrillation in a Dutch warmblood dressage horse. It was previously auscultated one month ago and found to be in normal sinus rhythm with no murmurs. What are the chances of successfully converting this horse to sinus rhythm using quinidine sulphate and what is the likelihood of recurrence?
- 25% chance of conversion, 95% chance of recurrence
- 95% chance of conversion, 65% chance of recurrence
- 95% chance of conversion, 25% chance of recurrence
- 65% chance of conversion, 95% chance of recurrence

Answer 215

• 95% chance of conversion, 25% chance of recurrence

Question 216

Which of the following is likely to be a common side effect following the administration of quinidine for treatment of atrial fibrillation?
- Tachycardia
- Colitis
- Laminitis
- Bradycardia

Answer 216

• Tachycardia

Question 217

The most common type of urolith found within the equine urinary tract is:
- Calcium-phosphate nephrolith
- Calcium-oxalate cystolith
- Calcium-struvite cystolith
- Calcium-oxalate nephrolith

Answer 217

• Calcium-oxalate cystolith

Question 218

Which of the following regarding acute renal failure (ARF) is true?
- Typical electrolyte changes in ARF include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia & hyperphosphatemia
- ARF is usually caused by a single overdose of aminoglycosides
- ARF is usually caused by a primary disease process affecting the kidneys
- The most common risk factors for ARF in horses include age of the horse, horse breed & general anaesthesia

Answer 218

• ARF is usually caused by a single overdose of aminoglycosides

Question 219

A diagnosis of nephroliths in horses is usually confirmed by which diagnostic modality?
- Rectal palpation
- A transrectal ultrasonography of both right & left kidneys
- Transabdominal ultrasonography of both kidneys
- Biospy of the kidney

Answer 219

• Transabdominal ultrasonography of both kidneys

Question 220

Which of the following is the most common clinical sign associated with chronic renal failure in the horse?
- Hypercalcemia
- Weight loss
- Dental tartar
- PU/PD

Answer 220

• Weight loss

Question 221

A 3yo TB race horse filly has just returned from an intense work-out & is exhibiting signs of colic (pawing, biting at her sides). You arrive & find the filly anxious & sweating. Knowing her genetics, you begin to palpate muscle groups of her hind limbs & find she is quite painful. What are the most important initial therapies indicated for a horse experiencing an acute episode of recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis?
- Immediate dietary modifications to decrease carbohydrate ingestion
- Fluid therapy (IV or oral), judicious NSAID therapy, & sedatives if necessary
- IV flunixin & dantrolene administration
- Aggressive crystalloid & colloid fluid therapy

Answer 221

• Fluid therapy (IV or oral), judicious NSAID therapy, & sedatives if necessary

Question 222

A 14 month old QH filly has had intermittent episodes of sweating, muscle weakness & fasciculations, which have lead to recumbency on 2 occasions. The filly is able to recover & stand within 30 minutes of each episode. You collect a blood sample from the filly & find the following - increased K+, severely increased CK. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this case?

Answer 222

The muscle enzyme creatinine kinase (CK) has a short half-life & will reach peak serum levels within 4 hours of exercise testing

Question 223

Which step will be the most effective in preventing oedema formation & infection?
- Incisional lavage
- Open castration technique
- Double ligation of spermatic cord
- Stretching incision

Answer 223

• Stretching incision

Question 224

Haemorrhage as a castration complication is most often commonly related with…
- Emasculators
- Sutures
- Scrotal ablation
- Open castration

Answer 224

• Emasculators

Question 225

Which of the following is a evisceration prevention measure?
- Older stallions
- Very young colt
- Closed technique
- Standing technique

Answer 225

• Closed technique

Question 226

Which of the following is NOT a suitable first treatment measure when encountering an omental evisceration?
- Rectal examination
- Emasculate contaminated omentum
- Emergency laparotomy
- Suture superficial inguinal ring / scrotum

Answer 226

• Emergency laparotomy

Question 227

What is a pathognomonic sign for a Cl. tetani infection?
- SC gas formation
- Flaccid paralysis
- 3rd eyelid prolapse
- Hypothermia

Answer 227

• 3rd eyelid prolapse

Question 228

Which treatment method is NOT typical utilised for a scirrous cord (septic funiculitis)?
- Cold hosing
- Surgical drainage
- Antimicrobials & drainage
- Resection of infected stump

Answer 228

• Cold hosing

Question 229

What is the best management option in case of Equine Motor Neuron Disease (EMND)?
- Increase the amount of pellets, hay & supplement with Vit E
- Decrease the amount of pellets & supplement with Vit E
- Increase the amount of hay
- Decrease the amount of pellets, hay & corn oil

Answer 229

• Increase the amount of pellets, hay & supplement with Vit E

Question 230

You are asked to examine a Warmblood mare 5yo with an abnormal gait especially while cantering the mare is showing a ‘hopping gait’. You suspect the horse of Australian stringhalt. What are the next abnormal findings during clinical exam & diagnostic testing?
- No abnormalities in history, normal clinical signs & normal findings at electromyograph (EMG) examination
- Normal clinical signs, severely increased muscle activities (CK & AST activities) & normal EMG findings
- Normal clinical signs, no abnormal findings at blood analysis & abnormal findings at electromyography (EMG) examination
- History includes toxic plants in the paddock & decreased appetite; blood analysis shows increased liver enzyme activities (AST & GGT)

Answer 230

• Normal clinical signs, no abnormal findings at blood analysis & abnormal findings at electromyography (EMG) examination

Question 231

A 12yo gelding presents with acute ataxia (incoordination) in all 4 limbs. A nasal swab reveals a positive EHV-1 real time PCR test. Which risk factors are most likely involved in this infection?
- Young horses returning from long distance transport?
- Young female horses during summer time
- Young female ponies following return of a show
- Tall, aged female horses following retun of a horse competition

Answer 231

• Tall, aged female horses following retun of a horse competition

Question 232

A 5 week old Appaloosa foal presents with dysphagia, a stilted gait & muscle tremors. The tail & tongue tone are weak. The vital signs & blood analyses (CBC & serum chemistry) are paresis but reveals no mechanical obstruction. What is the most likely diagnosis & how should the foal be treated?
- This foal has ingested the preformed toxin of Clostridium piliformis & treatment should include polyvalent antiserum & metronidazole
- This foal has white muscle disease & treatment should include Vit A & Selenium
- This foal has the toxico-infectious form of botulism & treatment should include polyvalent antiserum (& metronidazole)
- This foal is infected with Clostridium tetani & treatment should include antitoxin & metronidazole

Answer 232

• This foal has the toxico-infectious form of botulism & treatment should include polyvalent antiserum (& metronidazole)

Question 233

A lesion of cranial nerve IV will cause which of the following:
- Ventrolateral strabismus because the oculomotor nerve innervates the ventral oblique muscle
- Dorsomedial strabismus because the trochlear nerve innervates the dorsal oblique muscle
- Medial strabismus because the trochlear nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle
- Dorsolateral strabismus because the abducens nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle

Answer 233

• Dorsomedial strabismus because the trochlear nerve innervates the dorsal oblique muscle

Question 234

Which of the following tests is most beneficial in determining whether a neurologic horse is demonstrating signs of paresis?
- Blindfolding
- Tail pull
- Any test is useful because all horses with neurologic disease have a component of weakness
- Obstacle course

Answer 234

• Tail pull

Question 235

The afferent and efferent pathways of the menace response are?
- Afferent = the oculomotor nerve & efferent = the ophthalmic branch of nerve V
- Afferent = the optic nerve & efferent = the oculomotor nerve
- Afferent = the oculomotor nerve & efferent = the facial nerve
- Afferent = the optic nerve & efferent = the facial nerve

Answer 235

• Afferent = the optic nerve & efferent = the facial nerve

Question 236

Which of the following statements regarding cervical stenotic myelopathy is correct?
- The most common signalment of affected horses is Quarter horses older than 5 years of age, with dynamic compression of the cord most commonly observed at C2-C3
- Clinical signs most commonly include assymetrical ataxia with the forelimbs typically 1 to 2 grades worse than the hindlimbs
- Diets high in carbohydrates increase the risk of disease in young horses because of the endocrine response that causes abnormal cartilage maturation leading to osteochondrosis
- This disease is most commonly caused by inflammation of the spinal cord due to oxidative damage from diets high in zinc and low in copper

Answer 236

• Diets high in carbohydrates increase the risk of disease in young horses because of the endocrine response that causes abnormal cartilage maturation leading to osteochondrosis

Question 237

A case is presented with the hindlimb deficits present at all times. The neurological examination reveals a stabbing hindlimb gas exacerbated by backing the horse & by elevating the head. Exam on the tight circle reveals pivoting on the hindlimbs. What is your neuroanatomical diagnosis?
- Cervical (C2-T2)
- Central
- Thoracolumbar (T2-S2)
- Sacral - coccygeal

Answer 237

• Thoracolumbar (T2-S2)

Question 238

Which one of the following analgesic drugs & dosages is most appropriate for treating a foal with 5% dehydration & moderate pain due to joint sepsis?
- Phenylbutazone
- Dexamethasone phosphate
- None, I would not administer any anti-inflammatory or analgesic drugs to this foal
- Meloxicam
- Flunixin meglumine

Answer 238

• Meloxicam (has the largest therapeutic index & is the safest option for this foal at this stage)

Question 239

Which of the following antimicrobial agent / combination is MOST appropriate in the first-line treatment of a foal with septicameia?
- Amikacin IV & ceftiofur PO
- Procaine penicillin IM & gentamicin IV
- Enrofloxacin IV
- Trimethoprim sulfonamide PO
- Amikacin IV & crystalline penicillin IV

Answer 239

• Amikacin IV & crystalline penicillin IV

Question 240

Which one of the following drugs is most likely to result in a positive swab in a TB racehorse 14 days after administration?
- Flunixin meglumine IV
- Triamcinilone acetonide intra-articular
- Methylprednisolone acetate intra-articular
- Phenylbutazone IV
- Dexamethasone phosphate IV

Answer 240

• Methylprednisolone acetate intra-articular

Question 241

Which of the following conditions & treatment route is NOT an appropriate use of corticosteroids in the horse?
- Topical ocular therapy for equine recurrent uveitis
- Topical therapy for acute wound management
- Systemic therapy for reactive airway disease
- Systemic therapy for urticaria
- Inhalation therapy for reactive airway disease

Answer 241

• Topical therapy for acute wound management
  (Topical corticosteroids are contraindicated in acute wound management)

Question 242

Which of the following drug combinations administered systemically is LEAST likely to increase the risk of renal damage due to NSAID toxicity?
- Penicillin & phenylbutazone
- Oxytetracycline & phenylbutazone
- Amikacin & flunixin meglumine
- Furosemide & flunixin
- Gentamicin & phenylbutazone

Answer 242

• Penicillin & phenylbutazone
  (Penicillin has no nephrotoxic effects & will not increase the risk for toxicity caused by the NSAID phenylbutazone)

Question 243

What would be the most appropriate type, dose & route of analgesic / anti-inflammatory drug to administer to a horse with an acute, non-displaced P1 (proximal phalanx) fracture prior to referral?
- Ketoprofen 3.3 mg/kg IM
- Phenylbutazone 8.8mg/kg IM
- Phenylbutazone 1.1 mg/kg IV
- Flunixin meglumine 1.1 mg/kg PO
- Phenylbutazone 4.4 mg/kg IV

Answer 243

• Phenylbutazone 4.4 mg/kg IV
  (Phenylbutazone has the most potent analgesic effects, a one-time high dose of 4.4 mg/kg IV is appropriate for this acute, severe orthopaedic injury. Flunixin meglumine will also provide suitable analgesia but should be given IV in this scenario not per os).

Question 244

Which of the following drugs is most likely to have the MOST deleterious effects on the GI mucosa of horses?
- Flunixin
- Dexamethasone
- Phenylbutazone
- Ketoprofen
- Meloxicam

Answer 244

• Phenylbutazone

Question 245

Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial activity is TRUE?
- Klebsiella sp are sensitive to penicillins
- Clostridium sp are sensitive to trimethoprim sulfonamide
- Enterobacter sp are sensitive to cephalosporins
- Escherichia coli are generally sensitive to aminoglycosides
- B haemolytic Streptococcus sp are sensitive to enrofloxacin

Answer 245

• Escherichia coli are generally sensitive to aminoglycosides

Question 246

Which of the following statements regarding antimicrobial activity is TRUE?
- Gentamicin is a time-dependent drug
- Amikacin is a time-dependent drug
- Enrofloxacin is a time-dependent drug
- Ceftiofur is a time-dependent drug
- Penicillin is a concentration dependent drug

Answer 246

• Ceftiofur is a time-dependent drug

Question 247

Which of the following antimicrobial drugs are effective when administered via the oral route in horses?
- Amikacin
- Penicillin
- Trimethoprim sulfonamide
- Ceftiofur
- Gentamicin

Answer 247

• Trimethoprim sulfonamide

Question 248

Which describes the best overall management for a horse with signs of tetanus?
- Turn off lights of stable, muscle relaxants, metronidazole, IV fluid therapy, tetanus anti-toxin
- Place horse in sling, anti-seizure medication, penicillin, IV fluid therapy, booster tetanus toxoid
- Turn off lights of stable, anti-inflammatory medication, penicillin, IV fluid therapy, tetanus anti-toxin
- Place horse in sling, muscle relaxants, metronidazole, IV parenteral nutrition, booster tetanus toxoid

Answer 248

• Turn off lights of stable, muscle relaxants, metronidazole, IV fluid therapy, tetanus anti-toxin

Question 249

Based on the events occurring during any neurological insult (regardless of its classification) which are the main goals for treating neurological disease on animals?
- To reduce the inflammatory response & intracranial pressure, to minimise external stimuli, to ensure supportive care, to be aware of potential residual neurological damage
- To reduce the inflammatory response & intracranial pressure, to provide broad-spectrum coverage with antimicrobials, to ensure supportive care, to offer the latest complementary therapies to clients (e.g. acupuncture, hyperbaric oxygen therapy, stem cell transplant)
- To inform the owners & practice managers in the case of stud farms / equestrian centres that treating neurological disease is unrewarding & there is not much that veterinarians can offer than a necropsy & further testing
- To reduce the inflammatory response & intracranial pressure, to provide anti-oxidant therapies, to ensure supportive care, to start rehabilitation therapies as soon as the animal seems stable

Answer 249

• To reduce the inflammatory response & intracranial pressure, to minimise external stimuli, to ensure supportive care, to be aware of potential residual neurological damage

Question 250

What are signs of vestibular ataxia & examples of diseases causing it?
- Head tilt towards the lesion, circling towards the lsion, base-wide stance, horizontal nystagmus & normal menace response. Guttural pouch disease & otitis media / interna can cause this
- Head tilt towards the lesion, circling towards the lesion, catching own feet, vertical nystagmus & absent menace response. Guttural pouch disease & cerebellar trauma / abiotrophy can cause this

Answer 250

• Head tilt towards the lesion, circling towards the lsion, base-wide stance, horizontal nystagmus & normal menace response. Guttural pouch disease & otitis media / interna can cause this

Question 251

Which of the following combinatino of data gives you the best confidence to confirm that a synovial fluid collection is indicating sepsis:
- The nucleated cell count, % of neutrophils & total proteins
- The turbidity of the synovial fluid, distension of the synovial structure & nucleated cell count
- The degree of lameness of the horse, the culture of the synovial fluid & its macroscopic aspect
- The synovial fluid lactate, the synovial fluid glucose & its pH

Answer 251

• The nucleated cell count, % of neutrophils & total proteins

Question 252

Which set of neurologic diseases warrants isolation of the diseases horses?
- Australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies), equine herpes myeloencephalopathy & hendra virus infection
- Australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies), equine degenerative myelpathy & botulism
- Equine degenerative myelopathy, hendra virus infection & australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies)
- Australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies), kunjin virus encephalitis & botulism

Answer 252

• Australian bat lyssa virus (ABLV, rabies), equine herpes myeloencephalopathy & hendra virus infection

Question 253

Please indicate the correct statement about tendons & ligaments:
- Even in mature horses, healing is fast because of the high metabolism & rapid turnover of tendons & ligaments
- Paratenon is a layer of loose connective tissue surrounding a tendon with the function of facilitating tendon gliding
- Tendon sheath is a synovial structure covering no more than half of the circumference of a tendon
- Tendon & ligament injuries are always caused by a single traumatic episode leading to excessive tension on the ligament

Answer 253

• Paratenon is a layer of loose connective tissue surrounding a tendon with the function of facilitating tendon gliding

Question 254

Please indicate the most distal nerve block that would likely anaesthetise the whole fetlock joint in a forelimb:
- Palmar digital nerve block at the level of the proximal sesamoid bones
- Low 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves in the distal half of the canon)
- High 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves close to the carpometacarpal joint)
- Lateral palmar nerve blocked at the level of the accessory carpal bone

Answer 254

• Low 4-point block (palmar nerves & palmar metacarpal nerves in the distal half of the canon)

Question 255

Please indicate which would be a reasonable therapeutic approach for a valuable 1 month old foal with moderate carpus valgus & secondary fetlock varus affecting the right front limb.
- Confine the foal to a stall, wait & hope that the angular limb deformities will resolve spontaneously overtime
- Wait 5 months & perform transphyseal bridging with a transphyseal screw on the lateral side of the distal radius & on the medial side of the proximal phalanx
- Immediately perform transphyseal bridging with a transphyseal screw on the medial side of the distal radius & wait for the varus deformity of the fetlock to improve overtime
- Immediately perform transphyseal bridging with a transphyseal screw on the medial side of the distal radius & on the lateral side of the proximal phalanx

Answer 255

• Immediately perform transphyseal bridging with a transphyseal screw on the medial side of the distal radius & on the lateral side of the proximal phalanx

Question 256

The photo below shows the front limbs of a 15yo mare with the left front limb lameness that is unable to touch the ground with the heels of the left front foot for the last 4 months. What is the correct statement about the name of the deformity in the left front limb & the likely cause of this deformity?
- Contracted digital flexor tendons attributed to a sudden increase in energy & protein in the diet about 6 months ago
- Laxity of the digital extensor tendons attributed to chronic & severe toe pain
- Contracted digital flexor tendons attributed to chronic & severe heel pain
- Laxity of the digital extensor tendons attributed to chronic & severe heel pain

Answer 256

• Contracted digital flexor tendons attributed to chronic & severe heel pain

Question 257

Please indicate the best therapeutic approach for a 1yo horse with sudden onset of right hind lameness & right hock effusion with radiographic evidence of a loose osteochondral fragment in the right tarsocrural joint
- Arthroscopic surgery
- Prolonged stall rest
- Immobilisation
- Corrective trimming & shoeing

Answer 257

• Arthroscopic surgery