Equine Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What is Addison’s Disease?

A

A disease in which an insufficient amount of corticosteroids are secreted by the adrenal gland; also known as hypoadrenocorticism.

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2
Q

What is Azoturia?

A

An excessive amount of muscle tissue breakdown. Causes pain, swelling, and a reluctance to move. Also known as tying-up (exercise-induced myositis) and Monday Morning sickness, because the condition most often appears in fit horses that were vigorously exercised following a period of rest. May also result in increased nitrogen in the urine.

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3
Q

What is Broken Winded?

A

Term used to describe horses having an abnormal breathing pattern due to Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). Also known as heaves.

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4
Q

What is Botulism?

A

A rare disease caused by a neurotoxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum; it targets the neuromuscular nerve endings; often occurs from eating decayed material that contains the toxin.

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5
Q

What is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Diesease? Also known as COPD

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Brought on by allergies and characterized by abnormal breathing pattern and reduced tolerance to exercise; also known as heaves.

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6
Q

What is a Coggins test?

A

A blood test for Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA). Horses that test positive may be required by the state of occupancy to be destroyed or permanently quarantined. See also EIA.

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7
Q

What is Colic?

A

General term describing abdominal pain in the horse. Ranges in severity from mild to life threatening. A veterinarian should always be consulted in case of suspected colic.

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8
Q

What is Congential?

A

An abnormal condition that an animal possesses at birth, such as hernia.

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9
Q

What are Cracked Heels?

A

Inflammation of the heels, resulting in cracked skin and discharge of pus.

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10
Q

What is Curb?

A

Thickening of the tendon or ligament below the point of the hock, resulting from a strain.

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11
Q

What is Cushings Disease?

A

A disease in which an excessive amount of corticosteroids are secreted by the adrenal gland, representing the most common endocrine disorder of horses.

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12
Q

What is Degenerative Joing Disease (DJD)?

A

Also known as Degenerative Arthritis. Term for a group of disorders resulting in progressive deterioration of the articular cartilage of a joint, accompanied by bone proliferation around the joint margins and thickening of the soft tissues of the joint; also called degenerative arthritis.

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13
Q

What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

A

A bleeding disorder characterized by the excessive utilization of blood-clotting factors, due to widespread clotting within blood vessels; the resultant excessive bleeding can cause death. This can occur as a complication in a number of diseases.

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14
Q

What is Distemper?

A

Highly contagious disease caused by the bacteria Streptococcus equi; also known as Strangles.

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15
Q

What is a Dropped Sole?

A

Downward rotation of toe of coffin bone inside hoof due to chronic founder or laminitis

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16
Q

What is Dryland Distemper?

A

Disease, also known as Pigeon Fever which causes abscesses on the chest and belly.

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17
Q

What is Eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis (EEE)

A

Viral disease causing inflammation of the brain and spinal cord, caused by eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis (EEE) virus, Western Equine Encephalomyelitis (WEE) virus, or Venezuelan Equine Encephalomyelitis (VEE) virus; also known as sleeping sickness.

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18
Q

What is E.I.A?

A

One of the most important viral diseases of horses, caused by a retrovirus; it is a chronic infection resulting in a persistent (lifelong) carrier state with periodic exacerbations of anemic illness; also called swamp fever. See also Coggins test.

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19
Q

What is EPM?

A

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis. Neurological disorder caused by a protozoa that invades the spinal cord, causing a variety of symptoms attributed to nerve damage - stumbling, loss of coordination, muscle atrophy, etc.

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20
Q

What is EPSM?

A

Equine Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy. Muscle wasting condition seen in Draft horses and other breeds.

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21
Q

What is Equine Influenza?

A

Highly contagious viral respiratory disease of horses caused by subtypes (A1 and A2) of equine influenza virus. Can be transmitted by aerosol from horse to horse over distances as far as 30 yards (for example, by snorting or coughing).

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22
Q

What is Equine Monocytic Ehrlichiosis?

A

Bacterial disease, often fatal; also known as Potomac horse fever.

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23
Q

What is Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis?

A

Inflammatory disorder of the brain and spinal cord, caused by a protozoan organism.

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24
Q

What is Equine Viral Arthritis?

A

Contagious viral disease of horses causing fever, ocular and respiratory signs, fluid distension or swelling of the limbs, and abortion.

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25
Q

What us Equine Viral Encephalomyelitis?

A

Viral disease causing inflammation of the brain and spinal cord, caused by eastern Equine Encephalomyelitis (EEE) virus, Western Equine Encephalomyelitis (WEE) virus, or Venezuelan Equine Encephalomyelitis (VEE) virus; also known as sleeping sickness.

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26
Q

What is Favor?

A

To limp slightly

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27
Q

What is Firing?

A

Treatment in which the skin over a leg injury is burned with a hot iron to produce scar tissue.

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28
Q

What is Fistulous Withers?

A

Inflammation of the bursa at the height of the withers. May become infected and result in foul-smelling discharge.

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29
Q

What is Founder?

A

Inflammation of the laminae of the foot, which serve to attach the coffin bone to the hoof wall; also known as laminitis

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30
Q

What is Go Short?

A

To take short steps, indicative of lameness

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31
Q

What is Grease?

A

Inflammation of the skin at the back of the fetlock and pasterns. Seldom seen now, but does occur in horses pastured on wet grass. Can be likened to diaper or nappy rash in babies.

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32
Q

What are Heaves?

A

Term used to describe the abnormal breathing pattern seen in horses with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), or broken winded. Also a common name for COPD.

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33
Q

What are Hives?

A

Allergic reaction characterized by bumps or wheals on the skin. More properly called Urticaria.

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34
Q

What is HYPP?

A

Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis. Genetic muscular disorder causing muscle weakness and tremors, sweating and difficulty in breathing. Can be traced back to the Quarter Horse stallion, Impressive.

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35
Q

What is an Impaction Colic?

A

Colic resulting in blockage of the intestine; can result from excessive consumption of grain or lush pasture, or ingestion of foreign material.

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36
Q

What is Joint III

A

Disease in foals caused by bacteria that enter the body through the navel, resulting in infection that spreads to the joints and causes inflammation, pain and heat.

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37
Q

What is Lameness?

A

A defect detected when the animal favors the affected foot when standing. The load on the ailing foot in action is eased and a characteristic bobbing of the head occurs as the affected foot strikes the ground.

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38
Q

What is Lamintis?

A

Inflammation of the laminae (the inside lining of the hoof) of the foot, which serve to attach the coffin bone to the hoof wall; also known as founder.

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39
Q

What is Lampas?

A

Swelling of the hard palate in a horse’s mouth. Sometimes seen in young horses as they transition to hard feed and grain.

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40
Q

What is Laryngeal Hemiplegia?

A

Partial paralysis of the larynx causing difficulty in breathing and a characteristic noise, known as roaring as the horse breathes.

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41
Q

What is Lyme Disease?

A

Disease caused by the spirochetal (corkscrew shaped) bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. It is most commonly transmitted by the bite of deer ticks.

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42
Q

What is Lymphangitis?

A

Condition in which the lymphatic system, usually in the hind legs, becomes swollen and painful. Seen in working horses on full feed that have to be confined to their stall for some reason, such as severe weather or illness.

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43
Q

Whats is Monday Morning Sickness?

A

Common name for Azoturia, or Tying Up

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44
Q

What is Melanoma?

A

Growth or tumor often seen in gray or white horses. May or may not be malignant.

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45
Q

What is Navicular Disease?

A

Degeneration of the navicular bone, usually on the back surface where the deep flexor tendon passes over the bone. Causes pain and lameness.

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46
Q

What is a Nerve Block?

A

Diagnostic tool in which the veterinarian progressively blocks the nerves of the hoof and leg in order to determine the seat of a lameness.

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47
Q

What is Neurectomy?

A

Cutting of nerves supplying sensation to the foot. Also known as de-nerving. Used as a treatment in cases of navicular disease.

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48
Q

What is Potomac Horse Fever?

A

Bacterial disease, often fatal; also known as equine monocytic ehrlichiosis.

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49
Q

What is Rabies?

A

Inevitably fatal viral disease, primarily of bats and carnivores, characterized by neurological dysfunction; caused by a rhabdovirus.

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50
Q

What is Rain Rot?

A

Painful, skin inflammation caused by the Dermatophilus organism, characterized by patches of raised hair and hair loss and crusty exudate.

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51
Q

What is Rhinopneumonitis?

A

Two distinct viruses, equine herpesvirus type 1 (EHV-1) and equine herpesvirus type 4 (EHV-4), cause two different diseases, both of which are known as rhinopneumonitis. Both cause respiratory tract problems, and EHV-1 may also cause abortion, foal death, and paralysis. Infected horses may be feverish and lethargic as well as lose appetite and experience nasal discharge and a cough. Young horses suffer most from respiratory tract infections and may develop pneumonia secondary to EHV-1.

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52
Q

What is Ringbone?

A

Disorder characterized by new bone growth adjacent to either the pastern or coffin joints; caused by tearing of the ligaments stabilizing the joint. High ringbone describes bone growth around the pastern joint, while low ringbone describes bone growth around the coffin joint.

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53
Q

What is Ringworm?

A

Contagious fungal disease characterized by small circular patches in which the hair falls out.

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54
Q

What is Roaring?

A

Characteristic abnormal noise on inhalation, heard in horses with Laryngeal Hemiplegia.

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55
Q

What is Rotavirus A?

A

A infectious viral foal diarrhea?

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56
Q

What is Sand Colic?

A

Colic resulting when horses are fed on the ground in areas where the soil is sandy, or when they develop the vice of eating soil.

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57
Q

What is Scours?

A

Name given to diarrhea in foals

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58
Q

What is Scratches?

A

Scabby, oozing skin inflammation on the back of the pasterns, just above the heel.

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59
Q

What is Seedy Toe?

A

Separation of the hoof wall from the sensitive laminae, often caused by neglecting the feet. Sometimes accompanies laminitis.

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60
Q

What is Shivers?

A

Abnormal hind leg gait seen in draft horses in which the horse flexes one or both hind legs and tremors can be seen in the large muscles in the upper leg. Thought to be caused by EPSM.

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61
Q

What is Sidebone?

A

Ossification of the lateral cartilage on either side of the coffin bone within the hoof.

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62
Q

What is Sleeping Sickness?

A

another name for equine viral encephalomyelitis.

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63
Q

What is a Spavin?

A

Name given to degenerative arthritis of the lower joints of the hock, characterized by a bony swelling that can be felt on the front and inside of the hock.

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64
Q

What are Splints?

A

Injury to one or both of the metacarpal or splint bones, which run up the back of the cannon bone. Stress or strain can cause the ligaments attaching these bones to the cannon bone to pull and tear, causing heat, swelling and lameness. Eventually additional bone is laid down on the site of the injury, leaving behind a bony swelling.

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65
Q

What are Strangles?

A

Extremely important, highly contagious bacterial disease of young horses caused by Streptococcus equi; characterized by inflammation of the throat area, with swelling, inflammation, and abscess formation in the associated lymph nodes; also known as distemper.

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66
Q

What is Swamp Fever?

A

Another name for Equine Infectious Anemia

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67
Q

What is another name for Tetanus?

A

Acute, often fatal disease caused by a neurotoxin from the bacterium Clostridium tetani, and characterized by violent muscle spasms and contractions, hyper reflexive responses, and “lockjaw”; horses are highly sensitive to the action of tetanus neurotoxin.

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68
Q

What is Thrush?

A

Degenerative condition of the frog of the foot, characterized by infection and blackening of the affected area; usually occurs in horses housed under unsanitary conditions.

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69
Q

What is Tying Up?

A

A mild form of Azoturia

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70
Q

What us Urticaria?

A

Allergic reaction characterized by bumps or wheals on the skin. More commonly called hives.

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71
Q

What is Venezuelan Equine Encephalomyelitis (VEE)?

A

Another name for Equine Viral Encephalomyelitis

72
Q

What is West Nile Virus?

A

Virus that is transmitted principally by various species of mosquitoes and can cause inflammation of the brain and spinal cord (encephalomyelitis).

73
Q

What is Western Equine Encephalomyelitis (WEE)

A

Another name for Equine Viral Encephalomyelitis

74
Q

What is the Ankle

A

The area that extends from the coronet to and including the fetlock.

75
Q

What is the Barrel?

A

The area of the horse’s body between the forelegs and the loins.

76
Q

What are the Bars?

A

In the horse’s mouth, the fleshy area between the front and back teeth, where the bit rests.

77
Q

What is a Blemish?

A

A permanent mark or scar made by either an injury or disease. Examples of blemishes include curbs and girth galls.

78
Q

What is the Bone?

A

The ratio of the bone to the horse’s weight. The measurement of the bone is taken around the leg, just below the knee or hock. This ratio determines the horse’s ability to carry weight; therefore, a light-boned horse will be limited a in weight-carrying capacity.

79
Q

What is a Brand?

A

A mark of identification. A private registered mark burned on cheek, shoulder, or hip. A number burned on upper neck as in army horses. Temporary brands are made by burning a number on the hoof, or painting a mark on the skin with silver nitrate. Brands are now tattooed on the inside of the upper lip to avoid disfiguring the body.

80
Q

What does Bud Eyed mean?

A

Eye protruding: horse usually cannot see well.

81
Q

What is Calf-Kneed?

A

A conformation fault in which the foreleg is bowed back at the knee. It strains the tendons running down the back of the lower leg and places concussive force on the knee. Also called “Back at the Knee.”

82
Q

What is the Cannon Bone?

A

The long bone of the lower foreleg between the knee and the fetlock. Also called the “shin bone.” On the hind leg, the corresponding bone is called the shank.

83
Q

What are Capped Hocks?

A

Swelling or puffiness on the point of the hock. Can be caused by a blow or injury, or may be caused by a horse lying down repeatedly in a stable with insufficient bedding.

84
Q

What are Chesnuts?

A

The horny growths on the inside of the horse’s leg, either above the knee or below the hock; also called “night eyes.”

85
Q

What is a Chin Groove?

A

The groove above the lower lip in which the curb chain of a curb bit lies.

86
Q

What is Clean-Legged?

A

Without feathering on the lower legs.

87
Q

What does it mean to be Coarse?

A

Lacking refinement; rough, harsh appearance.

88
Q

What is a Coffin Bone?

A

Small bone within the hoof. In severe cases of laminitis, this bone can detach and rotate, causing extreme lameness.

89
Q

What does it mean to be Coon Footed?

A

A conformation fault in which the angle of the pastern becomes more horizontal and the fetlock drops.

90
Q

What is Coupling?

A

Region of the lumbar vertebrae, loin, or space between last rib and hip.

91
Q

What is Cow Hocks?

A

A condition in which the hocks turn in, like those of a cow. Opposite of bow-hocks.

92
Q

What is the Crest?

A

Upper, curved part of neck, peculiar to stallions.

93
Q

What is the Croup?

A

The top of the hind quarters, from the point of the hip to the tail.

94
Q

What is a Defect?

A

Any mark or blemish that impairs usefulness: unsoundness.

95
Q

What is a Depth of Girth?

A

The measurement from the wither to the elbow. A horse with a generous measurement between these points is said to have a “good depth of girth.”

96
Q

What is Dipped Back?

A

An unusually hollow back between the withers and the croup. Can occur as a result of old age.

97
Q

What is Dished Back?

A

The concave head profile seen in breeds such as the Arabian.

98
Q

What is the Dock?

A

The bony part of the tail, from which the hair grows.

99
Q

What is Docked?

A

Bones of the tail cut in shortening the tail.

100
Q

What is Docking?

A

Amputation of the dock for the sake of appearance. (Illegal in the UK)

101
Q

What is the Ergot?

A

Horny growth at the back of the fetlock joint.

102
Q

What is a Ewe Neck?

A

Conformation fault in which the neck appears to be “upside down,” concave along its upper edge with a consequent bulging of muscles along the lower edge.

103
Q

What are the Eyes and Face?

A

Normally horses have rich brown eyes with black pupils, and no white shows around the edges. When the eyeball is clear, some shade between white and blue, he is normally termed China-eyed, Glass-eyed, Cotton-eyed, or Blue-eyed. If one eye is defective, he is called a Wall-eye.

104
Q

What is the Far Side?

A

The right side of the horse

105
Q

What is Feathering?

A

Long hair on the lower legs and fetlocks. Abundant on heavy horse breeds.

106
Q

What is the Fetlock(Joint)

A

The joint between the long cannon bone and the pastern bone.

107
Q

What is Flat Footed?

A

When the angle of the foot is noticeably less than 45 degrees.

108
Q

What is a Flexion?

A

When the horse yields the lower jaw to the bit, with the neck bent at the poll. The term also describes the full bending of the hock joints. Veterinarians perform “flexion tests” when diagnosing lameness.

109
Q

What is a Flexor Tendon?

A

Tendon at the back of the horse’s leg that bends the joint below the knee backward

110
Q

What is a Forearm?

A

The upper part of the foreleg, above the knee.

111
Q

What is the Forelock?

A

The mane between the ears, which hangs forward on the forehead.

112
Q

What is the Frog?

A

Triangular, rubber pad on the sole of the foot which acts as a shock absorber.

113
Q

What is a Full Mouth?

A

A six-year-old horse, with all his permanent teeth is said to have a “full mouth.”

114
Q

What is Galvayne’s Grove Disease?

A

Dark line which appears on the upper corner incisor of horses between 8 and 10 years of age. Since it extends downward gradually, it can be used to estimate the age of a horse.

115
Q

What is the Gaskin?

A

The lower part of the horse’s thigh, between the hock and the stifle.

116
Q

What is the Girth?

A

The circumference of the body measured from behind the withers around the barrel.

117
Q

What is a Glass Eye?

A

Blue or Whitish eye

118
Q

What is Goose Rumped?

A

Pronounced muscular development at the croup seen in some jumping horses. Sometimes called “jumper’s bump.”

119
Q

What is Haw?

A

A third eyelid or membrane in front of eye which removes foreign bodies from the eye.

120
Q

What is a Heart Room?

A

Term used to describe a horse’s barrel. A deep-chested horse with well-sprung ribs is said to have plenty of heart room. Indicates that the horse will have enough heart and lung capacity to stand up to strenuous exercise.

121
Q

What is Herring Gutted?

A

Term used to describe a horse with a barrel that slopes up sharply behind the girth, like that of a greyhound.

122
Q

What are the Hind Quarters?

A

The part of the horse’s body from the rear of the flank to the top of the tail down to the top of the gaskin. Also called simply, the quarters.

123
Q

What is the Hock?

A

Joint midway up the hind leg, responsible for providing most of the forward energy of the horse

124
Q

What are the Hocks Well Let Down?

A

Term used to indicate a horse that has short cannon bones (shanks) which is considered to be a good conformational trait giving the horse strength in the legs. Long cannons, on the other hand, are considered a conformational weakness.

125
Q

What is the Hoof?

A

The foot, as a whole in horses. The curved covering of horn over the foot.

126
Q

What is the Horn?

A

Hard, Insensitive outer covering of the hoof.

127
Q

What is Knock-Kneed?

A

Conformation fault in which the knees point in toward each othe

128
Q

What is Laminae?

A

The horny-grooved inside of the hoof.

129
Q

What is Lateral Cartilages?

A

Wings of cartilage attached to the coffin bone, within the foot.

130
Q

What is Light of Bone?

A

Insufficient bone below the knee to support the horse and rider’s body weight without strain. Conformation fault.

131
Q

What are the Loins?

A

: The weakest part of the horses back, lying either side of the vertebrae, just behind the saddle.

132
Q

What is the Mitbah?

A

Term used to describe the angle of, at which the neck of the Arabian horse joins the head and which gives the characteristic arched set to the neck.

133
Q

What is Mutton Withers?

A

Withers that are wide and flat seen in horses such as the Quarter Horse, as opposed to the prominent, bony withers often seen in the Thoroughbred.

134
Q

What is the Navicular Bone?

A

Small bone within the hoof, fitting horizontally between the second phalanx, or short pastern and the coffin bone.

135
Q

What is a Nick?

A

The division and resetting of the muscles under the tail to give an artificially high tail carriage

136
Q

What is the Open Behind?

A

Conformation fault in which the hocks are far apart, and the feet close together.

137
Q

What is Parietal Bones?

A

The bones on the top of the skull.

138
Q

What is Parrott Mouth?

A

Overbite in a horse. The top jaw extends forward over the lower jaw.

139
Q

What is the Patern?

A

The sloping bone in the foot which connects the hoof to the fetlock

140
Q

What is Paunchy?

A

Too much belly.

141
Q

What is Pigeon-toed?

A

Conformation fault in which the feet are turned inward.

142
Q

What are the Points?

A

External features of the horse making up its conformation.

143
Q

What is the Poll?

A

The highest point on the top of the horse’s head.

144
Q

What is Pudgy?

A

Short and Thickset

145
Q

What are the Quarters?

A

The part of the horse’s body from the rear of the flank to the top of the tail down to the top of the gaskin. Also called the hindquarters.

146
Q

What is Rat Tailed?

A

A horse having but little hair on its tail.

147
Q

What is Ridgling/Rig?

A

Male horse that has retained one testicle within the body. Can cause stallion-like behavior. Treated with surgery.

148
Q

What is Roach Back?

A

Convex curvature of the spine between the withers and the loins. Opposite of hollow back.

149
Q

What is Rolling?

A

Excessive lateral shoulder motion: characteristic of horses with protruding shoulders

150
Q

What is a Roman Nose?

A

he convex facial profile seen in Shires and other heavy breeds

151
Q

What is Rubber Neck?

A

A horse with a very flexible neck, hard to rein.

152
Q

What are Saddle Marks?

A

White hairs in the saddle area, probably caused by galls.

153
Q

What is Scalping?

A

The hairline at top of the forefoot if hindfoot hits toe of forefoot as it breaks over.

154
Q

What is Scope?

A

A horse which has scope shows potential and capability for freedom and movement to a special degree.

155
Q

What is a Set Tail?

A

A tail that has been broken or nicked to produce an artificially high tail carriage.

156
Q

What is the Shank Bone?

A

Hind Cannon bone

157
Q

What is the Sickle Hocks?

A

Hocks which are bent, giving the hindleg the shape of a sickle, with the hind legs too far under the body. Although considered a conformation fault, this trait is desired by some reiners as the horse has to almost sit down in some of the reining patterns.

158
Q

What does it mean to be Slab-Sided?

A

Narrow Ribbed

159
Q

What is a Star Gazer?

A

A horse that holds his head too high and his nose out.

160
Q

What is Stringhalt?

A

Condition characterized by the over-flexion of the hind legs, in which the leg often is jerked up toward the belly at each step.

161
Q

What is Suspensory Ligament?

A

Ligaments that run from below the knee or hock to below the fetlock, helping to stabilize the fetlock and prevent over-extension.

162
Q

What is Symmetrical?

A

Proper Balance or relationship of all parts of the horse

163
Q

What is Tied in Below the Knee?

A

Conformation fault in which the circumference of the cannon bone directly below the knee is substantially less than that above the fetlock.

164
Q

What is Top Heavy?

A

Overdeveloped (heavy) body in relation to the substance of the legs

165
Q

What is the Top Line?

A

The line from the back of the withers to the end of the Croup.

166
Q

What is Tucked Up?

A

Thin and cut up in the Flank like a Greyhound

167
Q

What is Undershot?

A

A deformity in which the lower jaw projects beyond the upper.

168
Q

What is unsoundness?

A

Term used to describe any condition, or conformation fault that limits the horse’s ability to perform his job. May include conditions of the muscles, bones, heart, lungs, or other organs.

169
Q

What is Up to Weight?

A

Term used to describe a horse that, by virtue of its size, substance and conformation, is capable of carrying substantial weight.

170
Q

What is Vertical?

A

Used to describe the horse’s head set, as in on the vertical.

171
Q

What is Walleyed?

A

Iris of eye is light in color

172
Q

What is Weedy?

A

A horse of poor conformation, generally weak in the quarters and shoulders, with long legs.

173
Q

What is Well Ribbed Up?

A

A short, deep, well-rounded body with well-sprung ribs

174
Q

What is Wll-Sprung Ribs?

A

Long rounded ribs giving ample room for lung expansion, well suited to carrying a saddle.

175
Q

What is Winding or Rope-Walking?

A

A twisting of the striding leg around in front of supporting leg, which results in contact like that of a rope-walking artist; often occurs in horses with very wide fronts.

176
Q

What are the Withers?

A

Point at the bottom of the horse’s neck from which the horse’s height is measured.