equations Flashcards
put call parity:
St+Pt-Ct=Ee^(-r(T-t))
put and call bounds:
St-Ee^(-r(T-t))<=Ct<=St
for Pt switch all St and Ee^(-r(T-t)) w/ each other
C0:
e^(-rT)(pCu-(1-p)Cd)
p=(e^(rT)-d)/(u-d)
for trees with more than 1 stage, replace all T with the change in t for the step, so if T=1 and there’s two stages replace T with 0.5 rather than 1 and work out the middle stage from the last and use those numbers for the original price, using the same replacement for T the whole time
is same for puts
C0 but american:
max of same calc for european and the payoff of exercising the option at that time
eliminate risk:
find the dW thing usually from ito’s lemma, make it equal 0 and that eliminates risk
standard N(x) results:
N(infinity)=1
N(-infinity)=0
N(0)=1/2
N(-x)=1-N(x)
Y(t,T):
-(ln(V(t,T))-ln(V(T,T)))/(T-t)
V(t,T) and Y(t,T):
V(t,T)=Fe^(-Y(t,T)(T-t))
asian option:
exercise price is based on the average share price over a given interval
payoff profit and expected profit:
using call option as an example but goes same for puts
payoff -> max(S-E,0)
profit -> payoff - C0e^(rT)
expected profit -> expected payoff - C0e^(rT), expected payoff is NOT the payoff of the expected share price, it’s actually the funky things that involve p, the expected payoff of the Option
value of B (a bond):
B0e^(-r(T-t))
payoff of B (a bond):
B0e^(rT)
no arbitrage means:
ΠT>=0 -> Πt>=0 for all t<=T
VT>=UT -> Vt>=Ut for all t<=T
dΠ/Π=dB/B=r dt, all risk free portfolios have the same rate of return