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instrumentation > Epri A > Flashcards

Epri A Flashcards

1
Q

Sometimes out of necessity, a controller will be performing the control functions for several processes this control is called

A

shared controller

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2
Q

a ____ signal is often referred to as an ON/OFF switch.

A

discrete

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3
Q

Flow rates, levels, temperatures, pressures and more are all read by a controller and the total ____ for each system may be in the hundreds.

A

variables

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4
Q

a character set that contains both letters and digits is often referred to as _____

A

alphanumeric

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5
Q

A device, other than a common, hand-actuated ON/OFF valve or self actuated check valve, that directly manipulates the flow of one or more fluid process streams is called a _________

A

control valve

throttling type valve

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6
Q

A _____ is an output signal which represents the size of an input in the form of a series of discrete quantities.

A

digital output

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7
Q

a ____ is component of a control system, such as a valve, which directly regulates the flow of energy or material to the process.

A

final control element

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8
Q

a signal path where a combination of two or more instruments or control functions are arranged so that signals pass from one to another for the purpose of measurement and or control

A

loop

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9
Q

process and instrumentation diagram. A drawing that uses symbols and identifiers to portray a process and the instrumentation used for monitoring and/or controlling the process and is often abbreviated by

A

P&ID

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10
Q

A ______ is a device which converts information of one physical form to another physical type in its output

A

transducer

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11
Q

a _____ is the part of a transducer that reacts directly in response to the input.

A

sensing element

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12
Q

a conformity to an indicated, standard, or true value, usually expressed as a percentage deviation (of span, reading, or upper-range value) from the indicated, standard, or true value.

A

accuracy

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13
Q

the ratio of change in output divided by the change in an input that caused it is called the _____.

A

gain

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14
Q

the degree of refinement of a measurement, which depends on the sensitivity of the instrument and observation factors and is typically expressed in the smallest measurement units available.

A

precision (resolution)

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15
Q

The ability of a transmitter to reproduce output readings when exactly the same measured value is applied to it consecutively, under the same conditions, and approaching from the same direction

A

repeatability

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16
Q

the difference between the upper and lower limits of a transmitter range that is expressed in the same units as the range of the device

A

span

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17
Q

instrument errors identified as an output signal that does not reflect 100% of the expected output signal or does not follow the input span

A

span error

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18
Q

a change resulting from an error that is the same throughout the scale

A

zero shift

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19
Q

accuracy is usually expressed as a percentage of the transmitter ______

A

span

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20
Q

formula for calculating accuracy

A

max deviation / span X 100

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21
Q

formula for calculating gain

A

output signal span / input signal span

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22
Q

used to properly verify an instruments calibration

A

5 point check

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23
Q

what are the five (cardinal) check points used with a 5 point check

A 
0
25
50
75
100
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24
Q

gauge pressure plus atmospheric pressure

A

absolute pressure ( cannot be a negative)

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25
Q

the maximum pressure applied to a transducer sensing element or case without causing leakage

A

burst pressure

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26
Q

the sensing element consisting of a membrane which is deformed by the pressure differential formed across it

A

diaphragm

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27
Q

absolute pressure minus local atmospheric pressure

A

gauge pressure

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28
Q

pounds per square in absolute. pressure referenced to a vacuum

A

PSIA

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29
Q

pounds per square in differential. pressure difference between two points

A

PSID

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30
Q

pounds per square in gauge. pressure referenced to standard atmosphere.

A

PSIG

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31
Q

the ratio pf mass of any material to the mass of the same volume of water at 4° C

A

specific gravity

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32
Q

any pressure less than atmospheric pressure

A

vacuum pressure

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33
Q

pressure is the result of a(n) ______ acting over a given ______.

A

force

area

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34
Q

as fluids, when both liquids and gasses increase in _____, they also increase in ______

A

density

depth/height

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35
Q

The ratio of the diameter of a pipeline constriction to the unconstricted pipe diameter

A

beta ratio

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36
Q

the difference in static pressure between two identical pressure taps at the same elevation located in two different locations in a primary device

A

differential pressure

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37
Q

flow velocity in feet per minute

A

fpm

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38
Q

flow velocity in feet per second

A

fps

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39
Q

_______ causes energy loss, due to heat dissipation when fluid is moving through a pipe.

A

friction

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40
Q

volumetric flow rate in gallons per hour

A

GPA

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41
Q

volumetic flow rate in gallons per minute

A

GPM

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42
Q

A field term used to describe the upstream and downstream piping, including oriface and oriface flanging

A

meter run

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43
Q

a flow rate in the measuring section of a flow line that does not vary significantly with time

A

steady flow

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44
Q

When forces due to inertia are greater than forces due to viscosity in flow line

A

turbulent flow

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45
Q

reynolds number

A

RE = p (density of fluid) x V (velocity) x D (inside diameter of pipe) / µ (viscosity in centipoise)

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46
Q

a temperature scale defined by 32 degrees at the freezing point and 212 degrees at the boiling point of water at sea level

A

fahrenheit

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47
Q

the process of thermal energy flowing from a body of high energy to a body of low energy

A

heat transfer

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48
Q

the basic unit of thermal energy

A

joule

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49
Q

the unit of absolute or thermodynamic temperature scale based upon the celsius scale, with one hundred units between the freezing point and the boiling point of water at sea level

A

Kelvin

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50
Q

An enclosure usually made out of metal at the end of a heater or probe where connections are made

A

protection head

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51
Q

An absolute temperature scale based upon the Fahrenheit scale with 180 degrees between the freezing point and the boiling point of water at sea level

A

Rankine

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52
Q

A device constructed of two dissimilar metals the generates a small voltage as a function of the difference between a measuring and reference junction

A

thermocouple

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53
Q

Resistance Temperature Detector

A

RTD

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54
Q

The cold junction is a thermocouple circuit which is held at a stable known temperature usually 0° C

A

reference junction

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55
Q

A closed-end tube designed to protect temperature sensors (thermocouples) from harsh environments

A

thermowell

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56
Q

Temperature will cause all ____, _____, and ____, to expand or contract with temperature change.

A

solids
gases
liquids

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57
Q

four temperature scales

A

fahrenheit
celcius
Kelvin
Rankine

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58
Q

when two dissimilar metals are joined at both ends and one end is heated, there is a continuous ____ which flows in the circuit.

A

current

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59
Q

One way to calibrate the _____ at the junction E is to place the thermocouple junction into an ice bath and force the output to be 0° Celsius or 32° fahrenheit.

A

voltage

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60
Q

What type of wiring, other than thermocouple wiring, is often used for thermocouple extension wiring

A

copper

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61
Q

seven most likely reasons for thermocouple failure or poor response

A
  1. poor junction connection
  2. recalibration of thermocouple wire
  3. shunt impedance and galvanic action
  4. thermal shunting
  5. noise and leakage currents
  6. thermocouple specifications
  7. documentation
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62
Q

what is the result of altering thermocouple wiring so that it no longer performs at its rated specifications

A

Decalibration

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63
Q

The most common decalibration of thermocouple wiring occurs when the conductors are ____ or stressed by _____ the conductors through a conduit.

A

cold worked

drawing

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64
Q

______ can degrade thermocouple insulators.

A

high temperature

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65
Q

______ can change the output of a thermocouple reading

A

galvanic action

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66
Q

_____ wiring is intended to cover long distances between the ____ and the ____

A

extension
thermocouple
voltmeter

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67
Q

data points should always be listed in an associated ______ sheet and care should always be taken to ensure that this data is recorded _____

A

specification

accurately

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68
Q

the design of an instrument so that changes in ambient temperature do not affect readings of the instrument or compensation for ambient conditions when mounting an instrument

A

ambient compensation

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69
Q

a device, other than a common hand-actuated ON_OFF valve or self-actuated check valve, that directly manipulates the flow of one or more fluid process streams

A

control valve

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70
Q

The change through which the input to an instrument can be varied without initiating an instrument response

A

dead band

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71
Q

The sensing element consisting of a membrane which is deformed by the pressure differential formed across it

A

Diaphram

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72
Q

the component of a control system ( such as a valve) which directly regulates the flow of energy or material to the process

A

final control element

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73
Q

the difference between upscale and downscale results in instrument response when subjected to the same input approached

A

hysteresis

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74
Q

the boiling of a liquid caused by a decrease in pressure rather than by an increase in temperature

A

cavitation

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75
Q

a device having an output that changes to regulate a controlled variable in a specific manner

A

controller

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76
Q

the change of pressure will travel down the length of the pipe at approximately the speed of sound at a speed of _____

A

1082 ft/sec

77
Q

the result of the ____ is the same as a nozzle flapper system to regulate the output pressure

A

IP converter

78
Q

for a direct acting transducer a 4 mA signal would result in a signal pressure that is

A

3psi

79
Q

a direct acting 3-15 psi I/P transducer will have the adjustment so that ____ mA would equal 3 PSI and ____ mA would correspond to 15 PSI.

A

4 mA

20 mA

80
Q

______ systems are designed in such a way that a control valve may perform from the transducer calibrated 3-9 PSI range while another may operate from the 9-15 PSI range

A

split range

81
Q

A standard reverse-acting transducer when calibrated correctly will have an output of ____ PSI when 4 mA is applied and an output of _____ PSI when 20 mA is applied.

A

15 PSI

3 PSI

82
Q

to “bench set” a valve, the valve body must be _____ from the actuator to set actuator stem movement given specific applied pressures

A

decoupled

83
Q

a(N) ______ is a mechanical device which can be used to determine the physical position of equipment

A

limit switch

84
Q

are constructed of flexible ferrous strips and are placed near the intended travel of the valve stem or control rod extension. Using a permanent magnet as an extension, as the magnet approaches, the switch shuts.

A

reed switches

85
Q

Moving the extension rings between the primary and secondary windings of a transformer causes the inductance between the two windings to vary, thereby varying the output voltage proportional to the position of the valve or control rod extension. This is a function of _____

A

L inear
V ariable
D ifferential
T ransformer

86
Q

A control valve with a direct - action actuator and direct trim will fail ____

A

open

87
Q

If the pressure drop across a valve increases, then the flow velocity of the liquid through the valve must ____

A

increase

88
Q

In most process control systems, the final control element is a _____

A

control valve

89
Q

control valves which have a plug positioned by a stem which slides through a packing gland are often called ____ control valves

A

sliding stem / globe valve

90
Q

The acronym for binary digit. The smallest unit of computer information, it is binary 0 or 1

A

BIT

91
Q

An eight-bit representation of binary character

A

Byte

92
Q

The portion of a computer that decodes the instructions, performs the actual computations, and keeps order in the execution of programs

A

CPU

93
Q

The storage device in which programs and data are stored and easily obtained by the CPU for execution

A

memory

94
Q

A 3-mode control action where the controller has time-proportioning, integral (auto reset), and derivative rate action

A

Proportional
Intergral
Derivitive

95
Q

The analog signal can typically be read in as a ____ or _____ voltage or current range.

A

4-20 mA

1-5 Vdc

96
Q

RAM

A

random access memory

temporary - can be rewritten

97
Q

ROM

A

Read Only Memory

Permanent and cannot be changed

98
Q

An ESD system is a stand alone _____ that receives inputs from field _____, _____ control actions, valve positions, and more, but does not have process variables that can be changed by ______ interaction.

A

controller
instruments
DCS
human

99
Q

A control system that is eaters on or off, or a control system that is either on or off, this two-position control is called a _____ control

A

discrete

100
Q

The action in which the controllers output is proportional to the time integral of the error input, and when used in combination with proportional control, it is commonly called rest action but is defined as _____ action

A

integral control

101
Q

a 3-mode control action where the controller has time-proportioning, integral(auto reset), and derivative rate action is denoted by the abbreviation

A

PID

102
Q

The reciprocal of gain expressed as a percentage, which refers to the percentage of the controllers span of measurement over which the full travel of the control valve occurs

A

proportional band

103
Q

control action in which there is a fixed gain or attenuation between output and input

A

proportional control

104
Q

the proportion of controller output that is proportional to the rate of change of input

A

rate / derivative

105
Q

describe feedback as it is used in a control loop

A

feedback confirms if change works

106
Q

the ability of a process to withstand change in the process variable.

A

capacitance

107
Q

describe transfer lag

A

the time it takes for a process to recover from a change

108
Q

two position control

A

on/off

discrete

109
Q

a character set that contains both letters and digits

A

alphanumeric

110
Q

a device or circuit that outputs a binary number corresponding to an analog signal level at the input

A

analog to digital

111
Q

a term applied to a signal or device which uses binary digits to represent continuous values or discrete states

A

digital

112
Q

the sequence of letters or digits or both used to designate an individual instrument or loop

A

identification code of the loop

113
Q

a formal definition that describes how data is to exchanged

A

protocol

114
Q

the collection of programs and routines associated with a computer

A

software

115
Q

a smart communicator is used to provide a working ____ to a smart device

A

interface

116
Q

A term applied to a device or system whose functional characteristics can be selected or rearranged through programming or other methods

A

configurable

117
Q

the elements in a control system that contribute to the required corrective action

A

controlling means

118
Q

memory that can be erased by ultraviolet light or electricity

A 
E rasable
P rogramable 
R ead
O nly
M emory
119
Q

A semiconductor whose contents cannot be changed by the computer after it has been programmed

A

P rogrammable
R ead
O nly
M emory

120
Q

an alphanumeric sequence which identifies a device by assigning a unique identifier

A

tag number

121
Q

if a smart transmitter is selected to “fail Low” then when an unrecoverable error is detected by the electronics the transmitter will output a signal that is relatively ____ than zero (4 mA)

A

less

122
Q

a loop test can be performed to verify the ____ of a transmitter

A

output

123
Q

before any configuration, sending, or requesting data from a smart instrument with a communicator it is good practice to place the loop in ____

A

manual more

124
Q

the conformity to an indicated standard or true value usually expressed as a percentage deviation (of span reading or upper range value) from the indicated standard or true value is referred to as the _______ of the device

A

accuracy

125
Q

The departure from a desired value. The system deviation that exists after the process has been stabalized

A

deviation

126
Q

process and instrumentation diagrams

A

P & ID

127
Q

The ability of an instrument to provide the same output signal given the identical input

A

repeatability (precision)

128
Q

The specified pressure which may be applied to the sensing element of a transducer without causing a permanent change in the output characteristics

A

proof - pressure

129
Q

The length of time it takes a transducer to return to normal after a proof - pressure has been applied

A

recover time

130
Q

the boiling of a liquid caused by a decrease in pressure rather than an increase in temperature

A

cavitation

131
Q

a device other than a common hand-actuated ON-OFF valve or self-actuated check valve that directly manipulates the flow of one or more fluid process streams

A

control valve

132
Q

the sensing element consisting of a membrane which is deformed by the differential pressure formed across it

A

diaphragm

133
Q

the component of a control system (such as a valve) which directly regulates the flow of energy or material to the process.

A

final control element

134
Q

the difference between upscale and downscale results in instrument response when subjected to the same input approached from opposite directions

A

hysteresis

135
Q

the delay in output change following a change in input applied to an instrument or control system

A

lag

136
Q

is a device which converts information of one physical form to another physical type in its output

A

transducer

137
Q

what type of device is used to verify and/or force a valve to known position

A

valve positioner

138
Q

pneumatic valve actuator is one of which two types

A

diaphragm

piston

139
Q

the direct acting actuator has its spring set to ____ the inlet pressure that opposes the valve

A

oppose

140
Q

the reverse acting actuator has its tension set to ______ a valve back to its original position

A

move

141
Q

A valve transduver (I/P) converts a(n) ____ to _______

A

current

pneumatic pressure

142
Q

What are the most common calibration ranges that I/Ps are calibrated for

A

4-20 mA

3-15 PSI

143
Q

cage type valves generally work at ______ operating pressures and allow for an even alignment throughout the range of the stroke

A

higher

144
Q

A rotary valve is style of valve that uses a ______ turn of the valve stem to position a valve closure member

A

quarter

145
Q

PH is a unit of measurement which determines the degree of acidity or alkalinity of a solution and is measures on a scale of

A

0 - 14

146
Q

If a solution has a PH measures value of 4 it is said to be _____

A

acidic

147
Q

If a solution has a PH measures value of 10 it is said to be _____

A

base / alkaline

148
Q

The alkali metal ions and the hydrogen ions in the process sample create an exchange reaction between the dissimilar ions which creates a potential difference measured in _____ which is then converted to a ______ used by a controller.

A

millivolts

signal

149
Q

A _______ solution has a constant PH value and has the ability to resist changes in PH levels.

A

Buffer

150
Q

Care should be taken when handling an electrode. ______ should be worn and the glass portion of the electrode should not _____ contaminated surfaces, especially your unprotected hands.

A

gloves

contact

151
Q

a PH reading of seven is referred to as a _____ solution and may be compared to pure distilled water

A

neutral

152
Q

As with all calibrations, there must be a standard in which the measured variable can be compared. Some of the solutions that may be used for comparison have PH values of ____ ____ ____.

A

4 , 7 , 10

153
Q

Electrodes should be ______ between samples with distilled or de-ionized water.

A

rinsed

154
Q

most facilities require a _____ point check of the analyzers readings

A

three

155
Q

the millivolt output of PH electrodes varies with temperature and the magnitude of the variation is directly dependent upon the _____ and the PH value of the solution being measured

A

temperature change

156
Q

The difference between the actual and the true values, often expressed as a percentage of the span or upper range value

A

error

157
Q

An instrument which does not produce any spark or thermal effects under normal or abnormal conditions that will not ignite a specified gas mixture

A

intrinsically safe

158
Q

An optical illusion which occurs in analog meters and causes reading errors. it occurs when the viewing eye is not in the same plane, perpendicular to the meter face, as the indication needle is called a ______ error

A

parallax

159
Q

Lowering the output caused by an additional or unwanted pressure on the high side of a DP cell. The term is normally used for a condition that has the 4 mA output high when there is a 0% level. When performed this process is called _____

A

suppression

160
Q

Change resulting from an error that is the same throughout the scale of calibration

A

zero - shift

161
Q

the electronics housing may be rotated no more than ____ degrees when mounting

A

90

360 - new units

162
Q

When mounting a transmitter that is to measure liquids the vent valves should be mounted ______ the impulse tubing to allow gases to

A

above

vent

163
Q

when mounting a transmitter that is to measure gases the vent valves should be mounted ______ the impulse tubing to allow liquids to

A

below

drain

164
Q

for gas measurement you want to mount the transmitter so that the taps are to the ______ of the process lines

A

side / top

165
Q

for steam measurement, you want to mount the transmitter so that the taps are to the ______ of the process lines

A

to the side. below the taps

166
Q

When mounting a transmitter that is to measure steam, the impulse tubing lines are to be filled with ______ to prevent the steam from coming into contact with the transmitter sensor.

A

water

167
Q

_______ and _______ are two conditions that an installer must always consider when measuring liquids.

A

elevation

suppression

168
Q

Impulse tubing carries the signal from the ______ to the ________

A

process

transmitter

169
Q

Impulse tubing should be routed ______ from the transmitter to the process for LIQUID measurement

A

upward

170
Q

Impulse tubing should be routed ______ from the transmitter to the process for GAS measurement

A

downward

171
Q

When the signal current is to be measured without using the test terminals an ammeter must be placed in ______ with the loop wiring

A

voltages

noise

172
Q

The shield that is found around twisted pair conductors is generally grounded on the ______ end to negate ______ effects and magnetic effects

A

source

capacitive

173
Q

If the sensor is an RTD, _____ or RTD simulator would be connected to the transmitter input in place of the RTD.

A

decade box

174
Q

angularity adjustments are used for

A

pneumatic controllers

175
Q

working height of ladder is

A

length - overlap

176
Q

what is shutdown procedure for 3 valve manifold

A

close hi side
open equalize valve
close lo side

177
Q

reynolds number

A

velocity / viscosity low number means high viscosity or large pipe.

178
Q

three common types of positive displacement flow meters

A

piston
oval gear
nutating disc

179
Q

where are flange taps when used with oriface plates

A

1’ upstream

1” downstream

180
Q

flowmeters must be properly _______ to work properly.

A

grounded and bonded

181
Q

oriface plates are selected to give a pressure drop of about _____ at the operating flow rate

A

100” H20

182
Q

most/least common oriface plates

A

paddle concentric bore - least

universal concentric bore - most

183
Q

type TC oriface plate

A

paddle conical entrance

not common only used for low flow applications

184
Q

type TE oriface plate

A

paddle eccentric bore

2nd most common used when slurry or sediment is present

185
Q

type TS oriface plate

A

Paddle segmental bore

3rd most common

186
Q

1 ft H20

A

.4333

187
Q

1 PSI

A
  1. 7 in H20

2. 036 in HG

188
Q

1 cu ft H20

A
  1. 43 lbs

7. 48 gals

189
Q

gal h20

A

8.33 lbs

instrumentation (1 decks)

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