EPPP Test Questions

Question 1

“Vicarious liability” is most likely to be a concern when a psychologist is acting in the role of:

a. supervisor.
b. advocate.
c. faculty member.
d. talk show host.

Answer 1

a. supervisor (Correct Answer) Under certain circumstances, supervisors and employers may be legally responsible for the actions of their supervisees and employees. This is referred to as vicarious liability.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions on Intro. & Applicability, Preamble, and General Principles; Standard 1 (Resolving Ethical Issues); & Standard 2 (Competence)

Question 2

Pro bono work is:

a. required by the Ethics Code.
b. encouraged by the Ethics Code.
c. prohibited by the Ethics Code.
d. not addressed by the Ethics Code.

Answer 2

b. encouraged by the Ethics Code. (Correct Answer) General Principle B (Fidelity and Responsibility) of the Ethics Code states that psychologists “strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage.” An implication of this statement is that the Ethics Code recommends (encourages) pro bono services since the General Principles are aspirational rather than enforceable guidelines.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions on Intro. & Applicability, Preamble, and General Principles; Standard 1 (Resolving Ethical Issues); & Standard 2 (Competence)

Question 3

Your new ‘client is a 37-year-old woman whose symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder. After your third session with her, she tells you that she was in treatment with another psychologist but terminated after the psychologist made sexual advances toward her. She does not want you to discuss this matter with anyone. To be consistent with the provisions of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychology Association, your best course of action would be to:

a. inform the client of the limits of confidentiality and report the unethical behavior.
b. inform the client of the limits of confidentiality and contact the other psychologist.
c. discuss the client’s options with her and maintain her confidentiality unless she signs a release.
d. contact the Ethics Committee to determine what the appropriate steps would be in this situation.

Answer 3

c. discuss the client’s options with her and maintain her confidentiality unless she signs a release.(Correct Answer) The ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations require psychologists to take action when they learn of an ethical violation by another psychologist, but only after considering the client’s confidentiality. This eliminates responses a and b since neither mentions the client’s confidentiality. In addition, it is often in the best interests of the client to allow him/her to decide what action to take.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions on Intro. & Applicability, Preamble, and General Principles; Standard 1 (Resolving Ethical Issues); & Standard 2 (Competence)

Question 4

You receive a letter from the Ethics Committee asking for information about a former client who has filed a complaint against her current therapist. You stopped seeing the client over seven years ago you should:

a. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending it a copy of the client’s file.
b. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending it the information you believe to be relevant to the case.
c. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending it the information you believe to be relevant to the case after confirming that the client has signed a release.
d. inform the Committee that the information you have about the client is obsolete and that you’re ethically obligated not to release it.

Answer 4

c. cooperate with the Committee’s request by sending it the information you believe to be relevant to the case after confirming that the client has signed a release. (Correct Answer) When contacted by the Ethics Committee, a psychologist must cooperate fully. However, as noted in Standard 1.06, a psychologist is also obligated to “address any confidentiality issues.” (If you believe the information is obsolete, you should make a note of that when you forward the information to the Committee.)
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions on Intro. & Applicability, Preamble, and General Principles; Standard 1 (Resolving Ethical Issues); & Standard 2 (Competence)

Question 5

You want to start treating clients who believe they have been abducted by aliens, but you have never worked with members of this population before. Your best course of action would be to:

a. start seeing these clients and consult with someone who is familiar with this population if you run into any problems.
b. start seeing these clients after establishing a consultative relationship with someone who is familiar with this population.
c. take a continuing education class related to the treatment of members of this population.
d. place an ad in the National Enquirer to let members of this population know about the availability of your services.

Answer 5

b. start seeing these clients after establishing a consultative relationship with someone who is familiar with this population. (Correct Answer) Standard 2.01 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles 11.6 and 11.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics require psychologists to provide services only within the boundaries of their competence and to seek education, training, supervision, or consultation when necessary. When working with a new population, the best course is usually to obtain supervision or consultation.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions on Intro. & Applicability, Preamble, and General Principles; Standard 1 (Resolving Ethical Issues); & Standard 2 (Competence)

Question 6

Dr. Stern is a psychologist who assists with hiring and promotion decisions at a mental health clinic. She recommends that one of the psychologists not be considered for promotion because of an unresolved charge of sexual harassment against him. This is:

a. consistent with the provisions of the Ethics Code.
b. a violation of the provisions of the Ethics Code.
c. ethical as long as the clinic reconsiders the psychologist if he is acquitted of the charge.
d. not addressed in the Ethics Code.

Answer 6

b. a violation of the provisions of the Ethics Code. (Correct Answer) Dr. Stern’s action violates Standard 1.08 of the Ethics Code, which states that “psychologists do not deny persons employment, advancement, admissions to academic or other programs, tenure, or promotion, based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint.“
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions on Intro. & Applicability, Preamble, and General Principles; Standard 1 (Resolving Ethical Issues); & Standard 2 (Competence)

Question 7

During his first therapy session, a client tells Dr. Goodwill that he wants to pay for therapy in cash and doesn’t want Dr. Goodwill to keep a record of the therapy sessions or his payments. If Dr. Goodwill agrees to this arrangement she has acted:

a. ethically as long as she ascertains that the client’s reasons for making this request are valid.
b. ethically since it is up to Dr. Goodwill to decide what to include in her therapy records.
c. ethically and legally as long as she includes the client’s payments as income on her income tax forms.
d. unethically and possibly illegally.

Answer 7

d. unethically and possibly illegally. (Correct Answer) A psychologist‘s ethical obligations regarding client records are addressed in Standard 6.01 of the Ethics Code, the APA’s Record Keeping Guidelines, and Principle H. 19 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to maintain adequate records. These requirements are consistent with laws in many jurisdictions that not only mandate maintaining client records but also describe their minimum content.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 3 (Human Relations); Stand. 4 (Privacy & Confidentiality); Stand. 5 (Advertising & Other Public Statements); & Stand. 6 (Record Keeping & Fees)

Question 8

Dr. Bertha Black’s advertisement for her seminar on relaxation techniques invites the public to “come hear an in-depth lecture on techniques to help reduce the stress of daily living.” The advertised cost for her four-hour seminar is $50. While preparing her lecture the night before the presentation, Dr. Black decides it would be valuable to demonstrate some of her techniques with the group. She decides that, instead of lecturing for the full four hours, she will have attendees divide into groups for the last two hours to experiment with the techniques. According to ethical standards, this is:

a. ethical if she allows participants to leave after the lecture portion of the seminar.
b. ethical if the demonstration is well executed and educational.
c. unethical since she advertised the seminar as a “lecture.”
d. unethical because she plans to spend some of the time lecturing when the most beneficial part will probably be the experiential portion

Answer 8

c. unethical since she advertised the seminar as a “lecture.” (Correct Answer) Psychologists must accurately describe the nature of their services in brochures, advertisements, etc. Dr. Black advertised that she would present a lecture, and participants paid to attend her seminar on that basis. It would unethical to add an experiential component to her seminar, especially when it constitutes such a large part of the seminar.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 3 (Human Relations); Stand. 4 (Privacy & Confidentiality); Stand. 5 (Advertising & Other Public Statements); & Stand. 6 (Record Keeping & Fees)

Question 9

The term “privilege” is best described as:

a. a general term referring to the right to privacy.
b. an ethical term referring to an obligation not to reveal confidential information.
c. the legal equivalent of the ethical concept of confidentiality.
d. a legal term referring to the protection of confidential information in legal proceedings.

Answer 9

d. a legal term referring to the protection of confidential information in legal proceedings. (Correct Answer) Privilege is a legal concept that protects a client’s confidentiality in the context of legal proceedings.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 3 (Human Relations); Stand. 4 (Privacy & Confidentiality); Stand. 5 (Advertising & Other Public Statements); & Stand. 6 (Record Keeping & Fees)

Question 10

While treating a client, you decide that you want to consult with a colleague to discuss a specific aspect of the case that is giving you trouble. According to APA’s Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics:

a. you must always obtain permission from the client before talking to a consultant.
b. you must obtain permission from the client only if you will be revealing the client’s identity to the consultant.
c. you don’t have to obtain permission from the client as long as he/she has already signed a general waiver.
d. you do not have to obtain permission from the client under any circumstances since the consultant is “clearly connected” with the case.

Answer 10

b. you must obtain permission from the client only if you will be revealing the client’s identity to the consultant. (Correct Answer) This response is most consistent with Standard 4.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle 1.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics - e.g., Standard 4.06 states that, “when consulting with colleagues, psychologists do not disclose confidential information that reasonably could lead to the identification of a client/patient, research participant, or other person or organization with whom they have a confidential relationship unless they have obtained the prior consent of the person.” 1st is not, however, necessary to get the client‘s permission when his/her identity will not be revealed.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 3 (Human Relations); Stand. 4 (Privacy & Confidentiality); Stand. 5 (Advertising & Other Public Statements); & Stand. 6 (Record Keeping & Fees)

Question 11

Dr. Vic Vasquez, a licensed psychologist, provides secretarial services and office space to Dr. Bernice Banquist in exchange for 20% of the fee that Dr. Banquist collects from her therapy clients. When Dr. Vasquez finds that he does not have time to see all of the clients who want to begin therapy with him, he begins referring some of them to Dr. Banquist and charges her 30% of the fee that Dr. Banquist collects from these referred clients. Acording to the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, charging more for referred clients is:

a. unethical because it violates the prohibition against “fee splitting.”
b. unethical because it creates an unacceptable multiple relationship.
c. ethical only if the higher fee for referred clients reflects the actual costs associated with the referrals.
d. ethical because referral fees are prohibited only when they are “clearly exploitative.”

Answer 11

c. ethical only if the higher fee for referred clients reflects the actual costs associated with the referrals. (Correct Answer) Although referral fees are not entirely prohibited by the APA‘s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics, there are some restrictions on their use. See, Standard 6.07 of the APA‘s Ethics Code and Principle 111.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 3 (Human Relations); Stand. 4 (Privacy & Confidentiality); Stand. 5 (Advertising & Other Public Statements); & Stand. 6 (Record Keeping & Fees)

Question 12

Dr. Delbert Dinwoody is currently treating a 35-year-old client who has received a diagnosis of Alcohol Dependence. With the client’s permission, Dr. Dinwoody invites the client’s wife to participate in couple therapy. Inviting the wife to participate in therapy is:

a. acceptable as long as he believes couple therapy will benefit the client’s progress in dealing with his alcohol problem.
b. acceptable as long as the wife is not receiving mental health services from another professional.
c. unacceptable because in this situation, the wife is “vulnerable to undue influence.”
d. unacceptable because doing so creates a “conflict of interest.”

Answer 12

a. acceptable as long as he believes couple therapy will benefit the client’s progress in dealing with his alcohol problem. (Correct Answer) This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 5.06 of the APA‘s Ethics Code and Principles 1.27 and 111.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. For example, while Standard 5.06 prohibits soliciting business from individuals who are “vulnerable to undue influence,” it also states that inviting family members to participate in collateral treatment that will benefit a current client is acceptable.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 3 (Human Relations); Stand. 4 (Privacy & Confidentiality); Stand. 5 (Advertising & Other Public Statements); & Stand. 6 (Record Keeping & Fees)

Question 13

You regularly waive the co-payment for your low-income clients who are covered by insurance and believe this is acceptable since you normally bill your clients on a sliding fee scale. This is:

a. a common and ethical practice.
b. ethical as long as you don’t bill the insurance company for an increased hourly fee in order to collect your full fee.
c. ethical as long as the insurance company does not explicitly prohibit such arrangements.
d. ethical only if the insurance company is aware of the arrangement.

Answer 13

d. ethical only if the insurance company is aware of the arrangement. (Correct Answer) Waiving co-payments without the permission of the insurance company represents insurance fraud.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 3 (Human Relations); Stand. 4 (Privacy & Confidentiality); Stand. 5 (Advertising & Other Public Statements); & Stand. 6 (Record Keeping & Fees)

Question 14

In a brochure describing his weekend communications workshop for couples, Dr. Terry
Talk includes two testimonials. The first is from a colleague and says, “Communication is a key to a happy marriage and Dr. Talk is one of the leading experts on communication. If you feel you just can’t talk to your partner, I’d recommend Dr. Talk’s workshop. It’s likely to benefit your relationship.” The second testimonial is from a former workshop participant who said Dr. Talk could use an excerpt from a letter she sent him following the workshop that she and her husband attended. It says, “It worked! I can now tell my husband what I need without it turning into a major argument!” Which of the following is true about the testimonials included in Dr. Talk’s brochure?
a. They are clearly unethical.
b. The testimonial from the colleague is unethical but the testimonial from the former client is acceptable.
c. The testimonial from the former client is unethical but the testimonial from the colleague is acceptable.
d. The testimonials do not seem to violate ethical requirements.

Answer 14

d. The testimonials do not seem to violate ethical requirements. (Correct Answer) Both testimonials seem to be in line with the requirements of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Association — i.e., they were not solicited from current clients or others who were “vulnerable to undue influence” (Ethics Code Standard 5.05) and do not exploit the relationship that the psychologist has with his colleague or former client (Canadian Code Principle 111.3 1).
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 3 (Human Relations); Stand. 4 (Privacy & Confidentiality); Stand. 5 (Advertising & Other Public Statements); & Stand. 6 (Record Keeping & Fees)

Question 15

When it’s necessary to deceive participants in a research study about the study’s true purpose, the participants:
a. do not have to be told the true purpose as long as the use of deception is justified by
the study‘s prospective value.
b. do not have to be told the true purpose unless not to do so is likely to cause them substantial psychological harm.
c. should be debriefed about the true purpose as soon as possible after their participation.
d. must be debriefed about the true purpose immediately after their participation.

Answer 15

c. should be debriefed about the true purpose as soon as possible after their participation. (Correct Answer) This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 8.07 of the APA‘s Ethics Code and Principle 111.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. For example, Standard 8.07(c) states that “psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection.”
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 7 (Education & Training); Stand. 8 (Res. & Pub.); Stand. 9 (Assessment); & Stand. 10 (Therapy)

Question 16

A graduate student designed and conducted a research project for her dissertation and subsequently wrote a journal article describing the study and its results. The original idea for the study was derived from the work of the student’s faculty advisor who also provided the facilities for the student’s research. The faculty advisor wants to be listed as first author on the article when it is published. In this situation:

a. the student should be listed as the first author.
b. it is up to the student to determine authorship credit.
c. it is up to the advisor to determine authorship credit.
d. the student should file a complaint against the advisor with the Ethics Committee.

Answer 16

a. the student should be listed as the first author. (Correct Answer) This situation is addressed in Standard 8.12 of the APA‘s Ethics Code and Principle H1.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics - e.g., Standard 8.12 states that publication credits “accurately reflect the relative scientific or professional contributions of the individuals involved, regardless of their relative status.” In this case, the student has done nearly all of the work and the article is based on her dissertation. Consequently, she should be listed as first author. (Filing a complaint - response d - may be necessary, but only if the advisor insists on being listed as first author.)
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 7 (Education & Training); Stand. 8 (Res. & Pub.); Stand. 9 (Assessment); & Stand. 10 (Therapy)

Question 17

You have been hired as a research assistant for a study that will compare two brief treatments for Social Phobia. The procedures and methods used in the study are ethically sound; however, your supervisor is not informing participants that they may withdraw from the study at any time if they desire to do so. Your best course of action would be to:

a. quit your job.
b. inform the participants yourself of their right to withdraw.
c. discuss the possible ethical violation with the supervisor.
d. do nothing since this is an acceptable practice.

Answer 17

c. discuss the possible ethical violation with the supervisor. (Correct Answer) The supervisor’s behavior violates the provisions of Standard 8.02 of the APA‘s Ethics Code and Principle 1.24 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, and the best initial course of action would be to discuss the matter with him.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 7 (Education & Training); Stand. 8 (Res. & Pub.); Stand. 9 (Assessment); & Stand. 10 (Therapy)

Question 18

Dr. Ryan is a psychotherapist in a small town. She receives a phone call from a man she was sexually involved with several years ago. The relationship lasted only three months and ended amicably. The man is now married and is having problems unrelated to their past relationship. He has called to see if he can begin seeing Dr. Ryan in therapy. Dr. Ryan should:

a. see the man only if she determines that their past relationship will not interfere with her objectivity.
b. see the man only if their relationship ended more than two years ago and she determines that it will not interfere with her objectivity.
c. see the man but discuss the potential for conflicts with him before beginning treatment.
d. refer the man to a colleague.

Answer 18

d. refer the man to a colleague. (Correct Answer) This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 10.07 of the APA‘s Ethics Code and Principle 111.33 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. For example, Standard 10.07 states that “psychologists do not accept as therapy clients/patients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies,” and there is no time limit on this prohibition.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 7 (Education & Training); Stand. 8 (Res. & Pub.); Stand. 9 (Assessment); & Stand. 10 (Therapy)

Question 19

Dr. Blitz has been seeing a client for four months when the client says that he is very dissatisfied with the progress of therapy. To be consistent with the provisions of the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Association, Dr. Blitz should:

a. tell the client that he can’t expect to make major changes in his life in only four months.
b. encourage the client to schedule more frequent sessions so they can work more intensely on his problems.
c. help the client work through his resistance.
d. discuss the matter with the client and terminate therapy and provide him with referrals if he desires.

Answer 19

d. discuss the matter with the client and terminate therapy and provide him with referrals if he desires. (Correct Answer) This situation is addressed in Standard 10.10 of the APA‘s Ethics Code and Principles 11.31 and 11.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to terminate a therapeutic relationship when it is reasonably clear that the client is no longer benefiting from it. Even though four months is not a long time for therapy in many situations, the client should not be pressured to continue.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 7 (Education & Training); Stand. 8 (Res. & Pub.); Stand. 9 (Assessment); & Stand. 10 (Therapy)

Question 20

A 40-year-old therapist becomes attracted to a 38-year-old client and soon realizes that the feelings are mutual. They discuss the situation and agree to terminate therapy and begin dating. They eventually get married. This is:

a. ethical since they terminated therapy before beginning to date and since the relationship is a serious one.
b. ethical since the client is an adult and voluntarily agreed to stop therapy.
c. unethical because the therapist began dating a former client before the required two-year time limit.
d. unethical unless the therapist and client both received counseling while dating.

Answer 20

c. unethical because the therapist began dating a former client before the required two-year time limit. (Correct Answer) Standard 10.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code prohibits psychologists from becoming sexually involved with former clients within two years of termination of the professional relationship.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 7 (Education & Training); Stand. 8 (Res. & Pub.); Stand. 9 (Assessment); & Stand. 10 (Therapy)

Question 21

Wayne W. tells Dr. Pete Pannick that his partner is threatening to harm Dr. Panniclc because he’s not happy with the advice that Wayne is getting in therapy. Dr. Panniclc knows that Wayne’s partner has engaged in violent behavior in the past and believes the threat is serious. Dr. Panniclc:

a. should continue to see Wayne in therapy and ask Wayne to bring his partner to the next session to discuss the situation.
b. should continue seeing Wayne in therapy but, with his permission, contact the police to discuss the threat.
c. may terminate therapy with Wayne but only after providing him with pre-termination counseling and appropriate referrals.
d. may terminate therapy with Raymond.

Answer 21

d. may terminate therapy with Raymond. (Correct Answer) When a client or person the client knows is threatening a therapist, a therapist may terminate therapy, and it is not necessary for the therapist to provide the client with pre-termination counseling or referrals before doing so. See Standard 10.10(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and the Values Statement for Principle ll of the Canadian Code of Ethics.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Stand. 7 (Education & Training); Stand. 8 (Res. & Pub.); Stand. 9 (Assessment); & Stand. 10 (Therapy)

Question 22

An experimental psychologist with a Ph.D. wants to become a clinical psychologist. According to the APA’s General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services, he must:

a. complete appropriate coursework.
b. complete doctoral-level coursework and training in clinical psychology.
c. obtain supervision from a licensed clinical psychologist.
d. obtain a Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited school.

Answer 22

b. complete doctoral-level coursework and training in clinical psychology. (Correct Answer) Section 1.7 of the General Guidelines states that “psychologists who change or add a specialty “meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral education, training, and experience in the new specialty.”
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Other APA Issues

Question 23

You are asked by an attorney to evaluate the woman he is representing in a custody case and then testify on her behalf in court. As an ethical psychologist, you should:

a. evaluate her only if you can conduct a thorough assessment of the woman.
b. evaluate her if you can conduct a thorough assessment and then recommend that she be granted custody only if the results indicate that she‘s a good parent.
c. evaluate her and testify about the results but do not make a specific recommendation about custody without evaluating the husband and children
d. refuse to make a recommendation about which parent should be granted child custody under any circumstances.

Answer 23

c. evaluate her and testify about the results but do not make a specific (Correct Answer) Any conclusions or recommendations about custody must be based on adequate information, which means that all parties should be evaluated before a recommendation is made. You could, however, evaluate the woman only and provide a summary of the results without making a specific recommendation.
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Other APA Issues

Question 24

Dr. A. Praise is hired to perform a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case. She discusses the purpose of the evaluation with the defendant who then says he does not want to cooperate. According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, Dr. Praise should:

a. remind the defendant that he has no choice since the evaluation is court-ordered.
b. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless she obtains a signed consent from the defendant.
c. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless she obtains a signed consent from the defendants attorney.
d. postpone the evaluation and advise the defendant to contact his attorney.

Answer 24

d. postpone the evaluation and advise the defendant to contact his attorney. (Correct Answer) This situation is addressed in Paragraph 6.03.02 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. It states: “if the examinee is ordered by the court to participate, the forensic practitioner can conduct the examination over the objection, and without the consent, of the examinee. If the examinee declines to proceed after being notified of the nature and purpose of the forensic examination, the forensic practitioner may consider a variety of options including postponing the examination, advising the examinee to contact his or her attorney, and notifying the retaining party about the exarninee’s unwillingness to proceed.”
Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Other APA Issues

Question 25

The psychology licensing exam (EPPP) is best described as: a. a way to protect the public from incompetent psychologists. b. a measure of knowledge that is foundational to the competent practice of psychology. c. a predictor of the job performance of professional psychologists. d. a way of determining if psychologists need additional training or supervision before being licensed.

Answer 25

b. a measure of knowledge that is foundational to the competent practice of psychology. (Correct Answer) The EPPP was designed to evaluate “the knowledge that the most recent practice analysis has determined as foundational to the competent practice of psychology/" (ASPPB, 2012, p. 4). Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Other APA Issues

Question 26

Which of the following is acceptable according to the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association? a. non-White research participants b. the elderly c. clients with a physical disability d. people afflicted with a chronic disease

Answer 26

c. clients with a physical disability (Correct Answer) The Publication Manual recommends putting “people first“(e.g., “clients with a disability" rather than “disabled clients"). Other recommendations include being specific when referring to race and avoiding using Whites as a comparison group; using emotionally neutral terms (e.g., “people with a disease" rather than "people afflicted by a disease"); and being sensitive to labels (e.g., using the term “older adults" rather than "the elderly"). Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Other APA Issues

Question 27

Research on the sexual misconduct of therapists has found that: a. therapists who have sex with their clients often had sexual relations in the past with their own therapist, a professor, or a supervisor. b. therapists who have sex with their clients are more likely than those who do not to have a history of non-sexual dual relationships with clients. c. therapists who have sex with their clients tend to be less experienced and younger than those who do not. d. there are no consistent differences between therapists who do and do not have sex with their clients in terms of other dual relationships or sexual relationships with their own therapist, professor, or supervisor.

Answer 27

b. therapists who have sex with their clients are more likely than those who do not to have a history of non-sexual dual relationships with clients. (Correct Answer) This response is most consistent with the survey results reported by Lamb and Catanzaro (1998). Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Other APA Issues

Question 28

The term “insanity” is a: a. legal, non-psychiatric term for certain types of mental disorders. b. legal, non-psychiatric term for a psychotic disorder with an unknown etiology. c. popular (lay) term for a severe mental illness. d. psychiatric term that refers to an organic mental disorder.

Answer 28

a. legal, non-psychiatric term for certain types of mental disorders. (Correct Answer) Insanity is a legal (not a psychiatric) term that has different definitions in different jurisdictions. ln some jurisdictions, a defendant can plead not guilty by reason of insanity, which means that, at the time of the crime, he/she lacked the ability to know right from wrong or to behave in ways consistent with the law due to a mental disease or defect. Ethics & Professional Study Guide Review Questions Other APA Issues

Question 29

During a discussion with a‭ ‬4th grade teacher,‭ ‬the teacher tells a school psychologist that one of her students is constantly disrupting the class.‭ ‬After evaluating the child and obtaining more information about the situation,‭ ‬the psychologist concludes that the teacher's approach with the child is part of the problem.‭ ‬Consequently,‭ ‬the psychologist should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. make an appointment with the principal to discuss the teacher’s approach. b. explain to the teacher how her approach may be exacerbating the problem. c. recommend that he‭ (‬the therapist‭) ‬start counseling the child on a regular basis. ‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. recommend that the child be transferred to another classroom

Answer 29

b. explain to the teacher how her approach may be exacerbating the problem. CORRECT General Principle B of the APA’s Ethics Code states that "psychologists consult with, refer to, or cooperate with other professionals and institutions to the extent needed to serve the best interests of those with whom they work." School psychologists must often act as a coordinator to bring together a variety of people and resources to resolve problems. Of the answers given, this one is most in line with the child's best interests and the school psychologist's responsibility to work with all people involved in the case. Although this situation is not explicitly addressed by ethical guidelines, the APA’s Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics require psychologists to cooperate with other professionals. (Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz Q - 5148)

Question 30

In most situations,‭ ‬the‭ “‬holder of the privilege‭” ‬is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. the therapist. b. the client. c. the therapist and client jointly. d. the court.

Answer 30

b. the client. CORRECT Privilege is a legal requirement that prohibits (with some exceptions) confidential client information from being disclosed in legal proceedings. The client is the holder of the privilege – i.e., in most circumstances, only the client can determine when confidential information may be disclosed. Privilege is a legal term that refers to “privileged communication.” Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 31

You receive a call from Mrs.‭ ‬Wang who is very upset because her‭ ‬14-year-old daughter witnessed the assault of her best friend three days ago and is very distraught. ‭ ‬The girl hasn’t slept,‭ ‬won’t eat,‭ ‬and can’t stop crying.‭ ‬You have limited experience working with adolescents and in providing crisis intervention services.‭ ‬However,‭ ‬there is no one else in the community who is more experienced than you are.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬you will:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. agree to see Mrs.‭ ‬Wang’s daughter in therapy since you’ve had some experience providing crisis intervention experiences. ‬‬‬b. inform Mrs.‭ ‬Wang about your lack of experience and let her decide if she wants you to provide therapy to her daughter. ‬‬‬ c. inform Mrs.‭ ‬Wang that you cannot see her daughter because of your lack of experience. ‬‬‬ d. see Mrs.‭ ‬Wang’s daughter in therapy only until the crisis has ended or until you locate alternative services.‬‬‬

Answer 31

d. see Mrs.‭ ‬Wang’s daughter in therapy only until the crisis has ended or until you locate alternative services. CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical requirements. Standard 2.02 of the Ethics Code, for example, states that “in emergencies, when psychologists provide services to individuals for whom other mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the necessary training, psychologists may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied. The services are discontinued as soon as the emergency has ended or appropriate services are available.” Standard 2.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this situation. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 32

A psychologist in private practice is going through a difficult divorce and,‭ ‬as a result,‭ ‬has started drinking and is often depressed. He should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. plunge deeper into his work to take his mind off his own problems. b. seek professional consultation and consider temporarily suspending his practice. c. explain the situation to his clients and offer to refer them to other therapists. d. immediately refer his clients to other therapists.

Answer 32

b. seek professional consultation and consider temporarily suspending his practice. CORRECT Psychologists do not necessarily have to abandon their professional practice when experiencing a period of personal distress. However, when personal problems may be adversely affecting the welfare of their clients, psychologists must take appropriate action. This often includes “obtaining professional consultation or assistance ... to determine whether they should limit, suspend, or terminate their work-related duties” [Ethics Code, Standard 2.06(b)]. This issue is addressed by Standard 2.06(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. d. immediately refer his clients to other therapists. - Incorrect This may be necessary, but the best initial step would be to seek consultation to determine the most appropriate course of action. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 33

Which of the following is most likely a violation of ethical guidelines?‬‬‬ a. a brochure containing client testimonials mailed to potential attendees at a conference for adult children of alcoholics b. an advertisement offering a free initial therapy session that is published in the campus newspaper just prior to final exams c. uninvited in-person solicitations for therapy of hurricane victims that destroyed their homes d. a display ad for psychotherapy services in the yellow pages of the local telephone directory

Answer 33

c. uninvited in-person solicitations for therapy of hurricane victims that destroyed their homes (CORRECT) In-person solicitation of individuals who are vulnerable to undue influence is explicitly prohibited by Standard 5.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and is inconsistent with the “spirit” of the Canadian Code of Ethics (see, e.g., Principles I.27 and III.31). Of the advertisements/solicitations described in the responses, only one is clearly prohibited by ethical guidelines. a. a brochure containing client testimonials mailed to potential attendees at a conference for adult children of alcoholics - Incorrect Testimonials are acceptable as long as they are not solicited from clients who are susceptible to undue influence (see Standard 5.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code). b. an advertisement offering a free initial therapy session that is published in the campus newspaper just prior to final exams - Incorrect Free initial sessions are not prohibited by ethical guidelines. d. a display ad for psychotherapy services in the yellow pages of the local telephone directory - Incorrect Ads in the yellow pages of the phone directory are not prohibited by ethical guidelines. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 34

You receive a phone call from Hermann H.,‭ ‬age‭ ‬28,‭ ‬who says he is‭ “‬totally miserable‭” ‬because of the recent breakup with his girlfriend and that he would like to begin therapy with you.‭ ‬During the first session with Hermann,‭ ‬you find out that his political views are completely repugnant to you,‭ ‬and you feel that you would not enjoy working with him. ‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬you should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. consult with another psychologist during the course of treatment to make sure your feelings don’t interfere with your objectivity. b. discuss the difference in political views with Hermann only if they become relevant to the psychotherapy process. c. see Hermann in therapy until his current crisis is over and then make a referral if necessary. d. provide Hermann with appropriate referrals.

Answer 34

d. provide Hermann with appropriate referrals. (CORRECT) Of the responses given, this one describes the action that is in the best interests of both the client and you (the therapist). Psychologists are not required to see every client who seeks their services – and, to do so, would be unethical if the client's characteristics interfere with the provision of adequate services. c. see Hermann in therapy until his current crisis is over and then make a referral if necessary. - Incorrect. The information presented in the question does not suggest that the client is experiencing a crisis. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 35

As defined in the APA's‭ ‬General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services and the CPA’s‭ ‬Practice Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services,‭ “‬psychological services‭” ‬include all of the following‭ ‬except‭?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. the conduct of scientific research b. program development c. consultation related to assessment and intervention d. supervision of psychological services

Answer 35

a. the conduct of scientific research (Correct Answer) The conduct of scientific research is not included in the definition of psychological services. The APA and CPA guidelines are both very specific about the activities that constitute “psychological services.” b. program development (Incorrect) Incorrect Program development is included. c. consultation related to assessment and intervention - Incorrect Consultation is included. d. supervision of psychological services - Incorrect Supervision is included. (Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz - 5208)

Question 36

__________ ‬is the most frequent cause of many of the ethical complaints brought against psychotherapy supervisors. a. Sexual harassment b. Breach of confidentiality c. Lack of timely feedback d. Incompetence

Answer 36

c. Lack of timely feedback (CORRECT) Since the primary purpose of supervision is to provide supervisees with feedback about their performance, it makes sense that this would be the most frequently cited problem. See, e.g., N. Ladany, D. Lehrman-Waterman, M. Molinaro, & B. Wolgast, Psychotherapy supervisor ethical practices: Adherence to guidelines, the supervisory working alliance, and supervisee satisfaction, The Counseling Psychologist, 27(3), 443-475, 1999. There is very little empirical research on supervision, and many of the conclusions drawn in the literature seem to be based on anecdotal evidence. (Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz - 5221)

Question 37

Which of the following is true about the use of deception in a research study that may cause participants pain‭?‬‬‬ a. Deception is acceptable in studies that may cause pain only when the use of pain is justified by the study’s potential value. b. Deception is acceptable in studies that may cause pain only when there are no alternative methods for conducting the study. c. Deception is prohibited when the pain is physical but not when it is psychological in nature. d. Deception is prohibited whether the pain is physical or psychological in nature.

Answer 37

d. Deception is prohibited whether the pain is physical or psychological in nature. (CORRECT) This answer is most consistent with Standard 8.07(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.24 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.07(b), for example, states that “psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress.” Deception in research is acceptable only when certain conditions are met. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 38

The primary goal of quality assurance is best described as: a. reducing program costs and beneficiary expenditures. b. improving the health status and satisfaction of patients. c. policing the profession by detecting and dealing appropriately with incompetent psychologists. d. guaranteeing that the needs of patients belonging to a particular group or population are being met.

Answer 38

b. improving the health status and satisfaction of patients. (Correct Answer) Quality assurance is directed toward ensuring that programs and services are effective, efficient, and available. This goal is achieved by comparing services to predefined standards. As its name implies, the focus of quality assurance is on the quality of the services provided. a. reducing program costs and beneficiary expenditures. - Incorrect This better describes the goal of “utilization review.” c. policing the profession by detecting and dealing appropriately with incompetent psychologists. - Incorrect This could be one of the outcomes of quality assurance, but it is certainly not its primary goal. d. guaranteeing that the needs of patients belonging to a particular group or population are being met. - Incorrect This answer isn't as good as response b because quality assurance can't guarantee that the needs of patients are being met. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 39

Dr.‭ ‬Melba Morrison,‭ ‬a licensed psychologist,‭ ‬conducts research and teaches several classes at a large university.‭ ‬In her social psychology classes,‭ ‬she usually covers only material that is consistent with the results of her own research.‭ ‬In terms of the ethical guidelines,‭ ‬this practice is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. ethical since it is up to Dr.‭ ‬Morrison to decide what to cover in her classes. ‬‬‬ b. ethical as long as Dr.‭ ‬Morrison provides information about her policy in the class syllabus. ‬‬‬c. ethically questionable but not addressed by ethical guidelines. d. clearly unethical.

Answer 39

d. clearly unethical. (Correct Answer) To be consistent with ethical requirements when acting as an instructor or trainer, psychologists must present information accurately and in an unbiased way. Therefore, Dr. Morrison is acting unethically by presenting only information that is consistent with the results of her own research. This issue is addressed by Standard 7.03 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.12 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 40

A client whom Dr.‭ ‬Oliver Olivetti has been seeing for several months has recently changed jobs,‭ ‬and the client has learned that her new insurance plan does not begin covering pre-existing conditions for‭ ‬12‭ ‬months.‭ ‬The client asks Dr.‭ ‬Olivetti if he could write his bills so that it appears that she has just started therapy. ‭ ‬If Dr.‭ ‬Olivetti complies with the client's request,‭ ‬he is acting:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. ethically since he is taking the client’s welfare into consideration. b. ethically only if not to do so would require the client to quit therapy. c. ethically only if the insurance forms do not require him to sign a statement saying that treatment began after the effective date of the insurance. d. unethically.

Answer 40

d. unethically. (CORRECT) As noted above, complying with the client’s request would represent insurance fraud. The client in this situation is asking Dr. Olivetti to commit insurance fraud and, if Dr. Olivetti does so, he will be acting both unethically and illegally.a. ethically since he is taking the client’s welfare into consideration. Incorrect Although Dr. Olivetti should consider his client's welfare (by, for example, offering a reduced fee so that the client doesn't have to terminate therapy), he would be acting unethically and illegally if he agrees to the arrangement requested by the client. b.. ethically only if not to do so would require the client to quit therapy. - Incorrect This arrangement would be illegal and unethical regardless of the ramifications for the client. c. ethically only if the insurance forms do not require him to sign a statement saying that treatment began after the effective date of the insurance. - Incorrect This would still represent insurance fraud since the client and therapist are well aware of the insurance provisions. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 41

Dr.‭ ‬Sam Stone has been hired by a consulting firm to assist with an ongoing research project being conducted at a large company.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Stone is to work directly under the project director,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Thompson,‭ ‬a licensed organizational psychologist.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Thompson asks Dr.‭ ‬Stone to review the preliminary report she has prepared for the project‭; ‬and,‭ ‬in doing so,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Stone discovers that some of the reported data is misleading and may be inaccurate. ‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Stone expresses his concerns to Dr.‭ ‬Thompson and is told that‭ “‬it will be taken care of.‭” ‬Subsequently,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Stone learns that the report was submitted to the company without any changes.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Stone reviews the ethical guidelines and decides that pursuing the matter further isn't necessary. ‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Stone's conclusion:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. is correct since this situation is not covered by ethical guidelines. b. is correct since he has already attempted to resolve the matter in an informal manner as proscribed by ethical guidelines. c. is correct since it is the project director’s responsibility to provide the company with complete and accurate data. d. is incorrect because he has a responsibility to ensure that the company is provided with complete and accurate data.

Answer 41

d. is incorrect because he has a responsibility to ensure that the company is provided with complete and accurate data. (CORRECT) This answer is most consistent with the “spirit” of ethical guidelines and, more specifically with Standard 1.01 of the Ethics Code, which states that “if psychologists learn of misuse or misinterpretation of their work, they take reasonable steps to correct or minimize the misuse or misrepresentation”; and with Principle II.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which states that psychologists “make every reasonable effort to ensure that psychological knowledge is not misused, intentionally or unintentionally, to harm others.” (Also see Standard 5.01 of the Ethics Code and Principle III.1 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.) This issue is addressed by Standard 1.01 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. (Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz - 5184)

Question 42

A colleague,‭ ‬a licensed psychologist,‭ ‬confides in you that he has just ended a sexual relationship with one of his clients.‭ ‬As he describes the client,‭ ‬you realize that she is someone you referred to him about‭ ‬18‭ ‬months ago.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬you should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. file a complaint against the colleague immediately with the Ethics Committee. b. file a complaint against the colleague with the Ethics Committee after informing him that you intend to do so. c. discuss the matter further with the colleague to see what course of action he plans to take. d. contact the client and discuss the matter with her.

Answer 42

c. discuss the matter further with the colleague to see what course of action he plans to take. (CORRECT) Ethical guidelines require psychologists to address ethical violations by other psychologists but to do so in a way that does not violate the confidentiality of the involved client. Therefore, this is the best course of action of those presented in the answers to this question. Ethical violations by colleagues are addressed by Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles II.40 and 41 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. file a complaint against the colleague immediately with the Ethics Committee. - Incorrect Filing a complaint with the Ethics Committee would be unethical if it involved a breach of the client's confidentiality. b. file a complaint against the colleague with the Ethics Committee after informing him that you intend to do so. - Incorrect See explanation for responses a and c. d. contact the client and discuss the matter with her. - Incorrect The question does not say that you have a current professional relationship with the client and, even if you did, it probably would not be appropriate to confront her with this from both an ethical and clinical perspective. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 43

The mother of a‭ ‬31-year-old client that you have been seeing for six months calls to check on her son's progress.‭ ‬She says that she is very concerned about her son and wants to know if there is anything she can do to help him.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬you:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. advise her in general terms about how she can help her son. b. suggest that she make an appointment so you can discuss the matter in person. c. suggest that she come to therapy with her son at his next appointment. d. tell her that you cannot discuss her son’s condition with her.

Answer 43

d. tell her that you cannot discuss her son’s condition with her. (CORRECT) Giving the mother any information about her adult son would represent a breach of his confidentiality. Therefore, this is the best answer of those given. This question addresses the issue of client confidentiality. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 44

Dr.‭ ‬Donald Dreadmire is starting a therapy group for recently divorced men.‭ ‬He tells the editor of the local newspaper‭ (‬who has just divorced his wife‭) ‬that he can attend the group for free if the editor includes an article about the program in the newspaper.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Dreadmire has acted:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. ethically since his request does not violate ethical guidelines. b. ethically as long as the editor accurately describes the program. c. unethically because his request is exploitative and violates ethical guidelines. d. unethically only if the arrangement negatively impacts his objectivity when working with the editor in therapy.

Answer 44

c. unethically because his request is exploitative and violates ethical guidelines. (Correct Answer) Of the answers given, this one is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 5.02(b) of the Ethics Code prohibits psychologists from compensating “employees of press, radio, television, or other communication media in return for publicity in a news item”; and Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics prohibits psychologists from exploiting “any relationship established as a psychologist to further personal, political, or business interests at the expense of the best interests of their clients.” This issue is directly addressed by Standard 5.02(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 45

After three sessions with a therapy client,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Leonard Lykowski realizes that he’s feeling somewhat hostile toward the client because she reminds him of his wife who he’s currently divorcing.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Lykowski’s best course of action would be to:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. refer the client to another therapist without telling the client the reason for the referral. b. refer the client to another therapist after discussing the reason with her. c. recognize that his feelings are the result of countertransference and continue to work with the client. d. consult with another psychologist to determine whether or not to continue seeing the client in therapy.

Answer 45

d. consult with another psychologist to determine whether or not to continue seeing the client in therapy. (CORRECT) Consultation with another professional is ordinarily the best course of action whenever a therapist is concerned that a personal problem might interfere with his/her ability to provide a client with adequate therapy. In the situation described in this question, Dr. Lykowski’s personal problems may be affecting his objectivity. c. recognize that his feelings are the result of countertransference and continue to work with the client. - Incorrect Although Dr. Lykowski’s feelings do represent countertransference, he would want to seek consultation to determine if those feelings are negatively impacting (or are likely to negatively impact) his ability to provide the client with appropriate services. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 46

Alice A.,‭ ‬who has a master's degree in clinical psychology but is not licensed,‭ ‬is hired by a community mental health clinic to,‭ ‬among other things,‭ ‬administer several standard psychological tests to adult clients.‭ ‬According to ethical guidelines,‭ ‬this is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. acceptable as long as a professional clinical psychologist co-signs‭ ‬Alice’s evaluations. ‬‬‬ b. acceptable as long as a professional clinical psychologist supervises‭ ‬Alice’s activities. c. unacceptable since‭ ‬Alice is not a licensed psychologist. ‬‬‬ d. unacceptable since ‬Alice does not have a doctoral degree.

Answer 46

b. acceptable as long as a professional clinical psychologist supervises‭ ‬Alice’s activities. (Correct Answer)‬‬‬ This answer is most consistent with ethical and legal guidelines. Alice may administer some psychological tests as long as she has been adequately trained and is supervised by a professional clinical psychologist. Ethical (and legal) guidelines do not prohibit the provision of all psychological services by individuals who are not licensed clinical psychologists. However, they do require that such persons be supervised by a professional clinical psychologist. a. acceptable as long as a professional clinical psychologist co-signs‭ ‬Alice’s evaluations. - Incorrect This would not be considered adequate supervision. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 47

Following the retirement of his business partner,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Sheldon Smythe is the only psychologist in a small town,‭ ‬and the next closest mental health professional works in a town that is over‭ ‬100‭ ‬miles away.‭ ‬Several of Dr.‭ ‬Smythe’s new clients have problems for which he has limited training and experience.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Smythe should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. refuse to see the clients. b. see these clients but use only interventions that he has experience using. c. see the clients and obtain supervision or consultation by telephone. d. agree to see these clients only if they are experiencing a crisis.

Answer 47

c. see the clients and obtain supervision or consultation by telephone. (CORRECT) It is acceptable and desirable for psychologists to acquire new skills and to treat new problems – but only when appropriate supervision or consultation is obtained. The situation described in this question is a complex one, but this response is the best one given the circumstances (the next closest mental professional works in a town that is over 100 miles away) and the alternatives provided in the other answers. Although psychologists should ordinarily provide services that are within the boundaries of their training and experience, there are exceptions. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 48

Ethical standards for varying professions differ with regard to their emphasis and perspective.‭ ‬As a psychologist working in a multidisciplinary setting,‭ ‬you should:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. only work with fellow psychologists when developing professional and ethical standards for psychological services. b. cooperate with other professionals when developing professional and ethical standards for psychological services. c. consult with your local ethics committee for permission to work with other professionals when developing professional and ethical standards for psychological services. d. develop professional and ethical standards for mental health services that do not recognize professional differences.

Answer 48

b. cooperate with other professionals when developing professional and ethical standards for psychological services. (CORRECT) General Principle B of APA's Ethics Code states that “psychologists consult with, refer to, or cooperate with other professionals and institutions to the extent needed to serve the best interests of those with whom they work”; and the Values Statement of Principle IV of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that “in order to be responsible and accountable to society, and to contribute constructively to its ongoing development, psychologists need to be willing to work in partnership with others.” This answer is most consistent with these guidelines. Psychologists frequently consult with other professionals, such as medical doctors, lawyers, and teachers. It is imperative that they be aware that every profession has professional and ethical standards that must be maintained. a. only work with fellow psychologists when developing professional and ethical standards for psychological services - Incorrect It is unrealistic to presume that it is possible to limit decision-making to psychologists only. There are many situations, especially in a multidisciplinary setting, where consultation with other professionals is necessary. c. consult with your local ethics committee for permission to work with other professionals when developing professional and ethical standards for psychological services. - Incorrect Psychologists do not need to obtain permission to work with other professionals. d. develop professional and ethical standards for mental health services that do not recognize professional differences. Incorrect Each profession has different professional and ethical responsibilities, and it is not advisable (and often not possible) to homogenize the responsibilities of different professions. (Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz - 5230)

Question 49

Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines regarding barter as a substitute for the collection of fees for professional psychological services‭?‬‬‬ a. Barter may be acceptable when certain conditions are met. b. The barter of goods‭ (‬but not services‭) ‬is prohibited by ethical guidelines. ‬‬‬‬‬‬ c. The barter of services‭ (‬but not goods‭) ‬is prohibited by ethical guidelines. ‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. Barter of any kind is prohibited by ethical guidelines.

Answer 49

a. Barter may be acceptable when certain conditions are met. (CORRECT) Barter is prohibited by Standard 6.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code when it is clinically contradindicated or exploitative – in other words, in certain circumstances, barter may be acceptable. The Canadian Code of Ethics does not directly address barter but, to be consistent with the “spirit” of the Code, barter should be avoided when it may be harmful to the client. Barter is explicitly addressed by Standard 6.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principles III.31-33 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. (Ethics & Professional Issues Online Q - 5194)

Question 50

You are subpoenaed to appear at a deposition to testify about a former client of yours.‭ ‬During the deposition,‭ ‬the attorney for the opposing party asks you to provide confidential client information.‭ ‬You should:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. refuse to provide the information without a court order. b. assert the privilege unless the client has signed a waiver. c. provide the information if you believe it is pertinent to the case. d. provide the information since privilege is waived in this situation.

Answer 50

b. assert the privilege unless the client has signed a waiver. (Correct Answer)‬ Confidential client information should be revealed in a legal proceeding only when the client has signed a waiver or when the court has issued an order indicating that privilege is waived. If the client’s attorney is present, you may ask him or her if you should answer the question. However, if the attorney is not present, you should not provide the information without a waiver from the client but, instead, should assert the privilege on behalf of the client. a. refuse to provide the information without a court order. - Incorrect You may provide the information if the client has signed a waiver. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 51

A client's insurance company pays‭ ‬75%‭ ‬of a client’s therapy fee,‭ ‬while the client is required to pay the remaining ‬25%.‭ ‬The client asks you to bill the insurance company at a higher hourly rate so that he will not have to pay his‭ ‬25%‭ ‬co-payment. ‭ ‬If you do so,‭ ‬you will be acting:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. illegally and unethically. b. illegally but ethically. c. legally but unethically. d. legally and ethically.

Answer 51

a. illegally and unethically. (CORRECT) Misrepresentation of your fee to the insurance company represents fraud and is, therefore, both illegal and unethical. Billing the insurance company at a higher rate so that the client does not have to make his co-payment would be insurance fraud. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 52

Vicarious liability is most likely to be an issue when a psychologist is acting in which of the following capacities‭?‬‬ a. faculty member b. supervisor c. mentor d. therapist

Answer 52

b. supervisor (CORRECT) A psychologist may have vicarious liability when his/her employee or supervisee engages in illegal behavior. Vicarious liability (also known as derivative and secondary liability) is a legal term that refers to a person’s responsibility for the actions of another person. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 53

Within the context of sexual harassment,‭ “‬quid pro quo‭” ‬refers to:‬‬‬‬ a. a situation in which an employee’s response to sexual demands impacts his/her job. b. the creation of a‭ "‬hostile environment‭" ‬as a result of sexually offensive conduct. ‬‬‬‬ c. the judgment of a‭ "‬reasonable woman‭" ‬that an act is offensive. ‬‬‬‬ d. overt‭ (‬explicit‭) ‬sexual conduct.‬‬‬‬

Answer 53

a. a situation in which an employee’s response to sexual demands impacts his/her job. (CORRECT) Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when a person’s submission to or rejection of sexual advances affects his/her employment status. (Hostile environment sexual harassment is the other legally recognized type of sexual harassment.) “Quid pro quo” is one of two legally recognized types of sexual harassment. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 54

Dr.‭ ‬Everett Ernest,‭ ‬a licensed psychologist,‭ ‬has recently started a practice in a small town.‭ ‬He learns from a mutual friend that Dr.‭ ‬Cathy Chatty‭ (‬also a psychologist‭) ‬has been revealing confidential information about some of her clients to members of the community.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Ernest should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. contact the clients to let them know what he has heard. b. obtain consents from the clients and file a complaint with the Ethics Committee. c. consult with a colleague about the situation. d. do nothing since the information about Dr.‭ ‬Chatty is hearsay.

Answer 54

c. consult with a colleague about the situation. (Correct Answer)‬ Ethical guidelines require psychologists to take some action in situations in which a fellow professional is believed to have acted unethically. A psychologist, of course, can choose from several alternatives when doing so. Of the answers given, this is the best one. If Dr. Ernest felt comfortable with discussing the issue with Dr. Chatty, that would probably be the best course of action. Since this is not given as an alternative, consulting with a colleague is the best answer. a. contact the clients to let them know what he has heard. - Incorrect Contacting the clients wouldn't be appropriate. b. obtain consents from the clients and file a complaint with the Ethics Committee. - Incorrect Filing a complaint is always an option, but given the way that Dr. Ernest found out about the problem, this would probably not be the best course of action. It also wouldn't be appropriate to contact Dr. Chatty's clients. d. do nothing since the information about Dr.‭ ‬Chatty is hearsay. -‬‬ Incorrect It is because the information is “hearsay” that consulting with a fellow professional might be the best initial course of action. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 55

Dr.‭ ‬Marcos Manzetti uses a‭ “‬sliding scale‭” ‬that is based on a client’s current income to set his fees for therapy.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Manzetti’s practice is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. ethically acceptable since it serves the best interests of his clients. b. explicitly recommended in the ethical guidelines. c. ethically unacceptable since it treats clients inequitably. d. explicitly prohibited in the ethical guidelines.

Answer 55

a. ethically acceptable since it serves the best interests of his clients. (CORRECT) Sliding scale fees are not explicitly addressed in the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics. Sliding scale fees for psychological services are consistent with the “spirit” of ethical guidelines as long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 56

To serve as an expert witness in a court case,‭ ‬a psychologist must:‬‬ a. be board certified as an expert witness. b. be qualified by the court to offer opinions and conclusions about the case. c. have been hired by the person he/she will be testifying about. d. testify only about what he/she personally observed or obtained.

Answer 56

b. be qualified by the court to offer opinions and conclusions about the case. (CORRECT) Expert witnesses are qualified by the court to offer opinions and conclusions. An expert witness is a person who, because of his/her special training, knowledge, or experience, is qualified to offer an opinion as testimony in a court proceeding. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 57

Dr.‭ ‬Harry Holliday,‭ ‬a clinical psychologist,‭ ‬is planning to take a three-week cruise.‭ ‬In terms of his clinical practice,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Holliday’s‭ ‬best course of action would be to:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. discuss his vacation plans with his current clients ahead of time so that they know he’ll be unavailable during that time. b. give his clients a phone number where he can be reached. c. give his clients the phone number of a colleague who has agreed to accept phone calls in emergencies. d. hire a colleague to take over his appointments while he is on vacation.

Answer 57

c. give his clients the phone number of a colleague who has agreed to accept phone calls in emergencies. (Correct Answer)‬ Of the answers given, this one makes the most sense in terms of the clients' welfare and Dr. Holliday's interests. Ethically, Dr. Holliday would not be required to be available by phone to his clients during his vacation or to provide alternative ongoing services but would be required to provide the clients with a contact for emergency situations. Dr. Holliday should, of course, make some kind of arrangements for his clients while he is on vacation. (Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz - 5205)

Question 58

Miranda M.,‭ ‬age‭ ‬32,‭ ‬makes an appointment with you at the recommendation of her physician who has diagnosed her recurrent headaches as the result of stress.‭ ‬The woman tells you that a friend of hers was trained in self-hypnosis for tension headaches and says that she also wants training in self-hypnosis.‭ ‬You took a weekend workshop on hypnosis in graduate school but have not used it in your clinical practice.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬you should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. admit your lack of expertise in the use of self-hypnosis and refer the woman to another therapist. b. advise the woman that the underlying cause of her headaches would probably not be dealt with by self-hypnosis and suggest that she begin individual psychotherapy. c. accept the woman for treatment and begin training her in self-hypnosis after reviewing your workshop notes. d. accept the woman for treatment and begin training her in self-hypnosis but obtain consultation if you encounter any problems during the course of treatment.

Answer 58

a. admit your lack of expertise in the use of self-hypnosis and refer the woman to another therapist. (Correct Answer)‬ Of the responses given, this one is most consistent with the requirement to provide services that are within the boundaries of your professional competence. Note that, while it is up to you to determine your competence with regard to a particular service or technique, a weekend workshop in self-hypnosis is clearly inadequate. Providing services within the boundaries of one’s competence is addressed by Standard 2.01 of the APA’s Ethic Code and Principle II.6 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. b. advise the woman that the underlying cause of her headaches would probably not be dealt with by self-hypnosis and suggest that she begin individual psychotherapy. - Incorrect It would be unethical to try to convince the client to choose another course of treatment simply because you are not trained in the treatment she desires. c. accept the woman for treatment and begin training her in self-hypnosis after reviewing your workshop notes. - Incorrect Reviewing your workshop notes would not be adequate training. d. accept the woman for treatment and begin training her in self-hypnosis but obtain consultation if you encounter any problems during the course of treatment. Incorrect Although this response comes closer to fulfilling the requirements of the ethical guidelines than do responses b and c it falls short of those requirements because it implies that consultation would not be sought unless you believe that you are having problems during the course of treatment. Consequently, response a is a better answer. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 59

A graduate student’s dissertation chair,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬X,‭ ‬turns out to be of little help,‭ ‬and the student ends up obtaining advice and assistance from an associate professor,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Z. ‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬X does review the dissertation when it is completed and she is listed as the dissertation chair. ‭ ‬Several months later,‭ ‬the student decides to write an article for a professional journal that is based his dissertation research.‭ ‬In terms of publication credit:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Dr.‭ ‬Z should be listed as first author if her contribution was substantial. ‬‬ b. Dr.‭ ‬Z should be listed as second author if her contribution warrants it.‬‬ c. Dr.‭ ‬X should be listed as second author since she was the student’s official dissertation chair. ‬‬ d. Dr.‭ ‬Y and Dr.‭ ‬Z should be listed as co-authors.‬‬‬‬

Answer 59

b. Dr.‭ ‬Z should be listed as second author if her contribution warrants it.‬‬ (CORRECT) Of the responses given, this one is best because it addresses the need to consider Dr. Z’s contribution to the research project (and Dr. X’s lack of contribution). Ethical guidelines emphasize that it is a person's contribution, not his or her position or status that determines publication credit. Moreover, when a research study is based on a student's dissertation, the student should ordinarily be listed as first author. Publication credit is addressed in Standard 8.12 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 60

Dr.‭ ‬Carl Carlson is a licensed psychologist and professor in the psychology department at a large university.‭ ‬He is approached by a graduate student,‭ ‬Marla M.,‭ ‬age‭ ‬36,‭ ‬who asks him if he’d like to attend a baseball game on Friday night. ‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Carlson is divorced and finds Marla to be a very attractive woman. ‭ ‬In terms of ethical guidelines,‭ ‬if Dr.‭ ‬Carlson accepts Marla’s invitation,‭ ‬he will be:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. clearly violating ethical guidelines. b. acting ethically since he is not the one who initiated a potential relationship. c. acting ethically as long as Marla is a student in a department other than the psychology department and will not be taking any classes in the psychology department. d. acting ethically as long as he does not become sexually involved with Marla until she is no longer affiliated with the university.

Answer 60

c. acting ethically as long as Marla is a student in a department other than the psychology department and will not be taking any classes in the psychology department. (CORRECT) If Marla is a graduate student in another department, a relationship with her would not represent a multiple relationship because Dr. Carlson is not likely to be her instructor or advisor. Dating students is ordinarily prohibited or discouraged because doing so represents a multiple relationship. a. clearly violating ethical guidelines - Incorrect Dr. Carlson may or may not be violating ethical guidelines, depending on the circumstances b. acting ethically since he is not the one who initiated a potential relationship - Incorrect The fact that Marla initiated the potential relationship is not relevant. d. acting ethically as long as he does not become sexually involved with Marla until she is no longer affiliated with the university. - Incorrect As long as Dr. Carlson does not have “supervisory, evaluative, or other authority” over Marla, it would be acceptable for Dr. Carlson to become sexually involved with Marla (see Standards 3.08 and 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). (Note that personal relationships with students might be prohibited by university policy but that this question is asking about ethical guidelines.) Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 61

A student participant in a research study involving matched pairs decides to withdraw from the study.‭ ‬The chief investigator‭ (‬who is a licensed psychologist‭) ‬stresses to the student the importance of the student’s data to the study,‭ ‬but he insists that his data be withdrawn.‭ ‬The investigator should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. warn the student that withdrawal from the study will affect his course grade. b. remind the student that he signed an informed consent and cannot now request that his data be withdrawn. c. tell the student that his name will be removed from all data and include his data in the study. d. allow the student to withdraw from the study.

Answer 61

d. allow the student to withdraw from the study. (CORRECT) This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 8.02(a) states that research participants must be free to “decline to participate and to withdraw from the research once participation has begun”; and Principle I.24 similarly states that research participants must have “the option to refuse or withdraw at any time, without prejudice.” This issue is addressed by Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.24 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. warn the student that withdrawal from the study will affect his course grade. - Incorrect Simply warning the student of the negative consequences of withdrawing from the study would be coercive and, therefore, a violation of the ethical guidelines. b. remind the student that he signed an informed consent and cannot now request that his data be withdrawn. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 62

Dr.‭ ‬Pavel Petrovich,‭ ‬a licensed psychologist,‭ ‬has been seeing a client in therapy for over fourteen months with no apparent change in the client's symptoms.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Petrovich should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. advise the client that he is ethically obligated to terminate therapy. b. raise for discussion the possibility of termination and referral to another therapist. c. search the literature for discussions of similar cases that have been treated and reported by others. d. continue seeing the client since fourteen months is not an unusually long time for therapy to continue without a significant change in symptoms.

Answer 62

b. raise for discussion the possibility of termination and referral to another therapist. CORRECT The action described in this answer is most consistent with ethical requirements. Standard 10.10(a), for example, states that “psychologists terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service,” and Standard 10.10(c) states that, prior to termination, psychologists “suggest alternative service providers as appropriate.” Termination of therapy is addressed in Standard 10.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 63

If a psychologist acts as both a fact witness for the plaintiff and an expert witness for the court in a criminal trial,‭ ‬she has acted:‬‬ a. unethically by accepting dual roles. b. ethically as long as she did not have a prior relationship with the plaintiff. c. ethically as long as she clarifies her roles with all parties. d. ethically as long as she obtains a waiver from the court.

Answer 63

c. ethically as long as she clarifies her roles with all parties. (Correct Answer) According to ethical guidelines, accepting multiple roles may be acceptable as long as certain conditions are met – e.g., as long as the psychologist clarifies the nature of the multiples relationships with all involved parties (see Standard 3.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). In addition, the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists states that acting as a consultant for one party and a fact witness for another may be acceptable as long as the psychologist clarifies his/her roles with both parties and acts in a way that does not compromise his/her judgment and objectivity. The adoption of multiple roles is addressed in the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations and in the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 64

A couple brings their ten-year-old son to therapy at the suggestion of his school counselor who is concerned because the boy has started arguing with his teacher and getting into physical fights with his classmates.‭ ‬After several sessions with the boy and his family,‭ ‬you receive a letter from the school principal requesting information about the boy's condition,‭ ‬and a signed release from the boy's parents is included with the letter.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬you should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. refuse to release the records to anyone but a licensed psychologist. b. refuse to release the records to anyone but the boy’s parents. c. release only that information you believe to be relevant to the school’s concerns. d. release photocopies of your complete file on the boy and his family.

Answer 64

c. release only that information you believe to be relevant to the school’s concerns. (CORRECT) Since the boy’s parents have signed a release, you would ordinarily provide information to the school principal – but not necessarily all of the information that has been requested. The most ethical course of action in this situation would be to release only information that is relevant to the school's role in the boy's treatment. Doing so would be consistent with the provisions of Standard 4.04(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code, which states that written and oral reports include “only information germane to the purpose for which the communication is made.” It is also consistent with the provisions of Principles I.37 and 39 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 65

Whenever her clients cancel an appointment with Dr.‭ ‬Penny Pincher within less than‭ ‬24‭ ‬hours of the appointment,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Pincher routinely bills the client’s insurance company for her full hourly fee. ‭ ‬This practice is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. illegal and unethical. b. illegal but ethical. c. legal and ethical. d. legal but unethical.

Answer 65

a. illegal and unethical. (CORRECT) The practice described in this question represents insurance fraud, which is both illegal and unethical. Billing an insurance company for missed appointments would be acceptable only if the company agreed to this practice (which is, of course, unlikely). For questions about insurance coverage, always choose the answer that is most consistent with legal and ethical requirements. Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz

Question 66

When conducting research with human participants,‭ ‬a psychologist should be aware that:‬‬‬‬ a. participants must be debriefed as soon as possible after their participation in the study,‭ ‬especially when the study has involved deception. ‬‬‬‬b. participants must be debriefed after their participation in the study only if the psychologist believes that not doing so will result in harm to them. c. participants must be debriefed after their participation only if the study places them at‭ “‬high risk.‭” ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. debriefing of research participants is at the discretion of the psychologist.

Answer 66

a. participants must be debriefed as soon as possible after their participation in the study,‭ ‬especially when the study has involved deception. ‬‬‬‬(CORRECT) Standard 8.08 of the Ethics Code requires psychologists to inform participants promptly following their participation in the study about its nature, results, and conclusions; and Principle III.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics requires psychologists to debrief participants as soon as possible after their involvement in a study when there has been incomplete disclosure about the study’s purpose. Consequently, of the answers given, this one is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Debriefing of research participants is addressed in Standard 8.08 of the APA’s Ethic Code and Principles II.44 and III.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. b. participants must be debriefed after their participation in the study only if the psychologist believes that not doing so will result in harm to them. c. participants must be debriefed after their participation only if the study places them at‭ “‬high risk.‭” ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. debriefing of research participants is at the discretion of the psychologist. (Ethics & Professional Issues Online - 5162)

Question 67

Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines regarding sexual intimacies with ‬former therapy clients?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients under any circumstances. b. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients for at least one year following the termination of therapy. c. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients in certain circumstances (‬e.g.,‭ ‬when there is a risk of exploitation)‬. h former therapy clients. d. Psychologists are ‬not prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients.‬‬‬‬

Answer 67

c. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients in certain circumstances (‬e.g.,‭ ‬when there is a risk of exploitation)‬. (Correct Answer)‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ Standard 10.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients may be acceptable two years after termination of therapy when certain conditions are met (e.g., when there is no exploitation of the client), while Principle II.27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients must be avoided when “the power relationship reasonably could be expected to influence the client’s decision making.” The APA’s Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics both discourage psychologists from becoming sexually involved with former therapy clients. a. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients under any circumstances. (Incorrect) b. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients for at least one year following the termination of therapy. d. Psychologists are ‬not prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients.‬‬‬‬ (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 68

Carl Jung believed that a client's transference: a. is a fantasy that distracts the client from reality. b. represents “‬mixed feelings” ‬toward the therapist. ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ c. is a form of "‬acting out.‭" d. reflects the client’s personal and collective unconscious.

Answer 68

d. reflects the client’s personal and collective unconscious. (Correct Answer) The correct answer to this question should have been easy to identify if you’re at all familiar with Jung's work, since only one of the answers includes language that is associated with his analytical psychology. Jung viewed transference as the projection of both the personal and collective unconscious. a. is a fantasy that distracts the client from reality. (Incorrect) b. represents “‬mixed feelings” ‬toward the therapist. (Incorrect) c. is a form of‭ "‬acting out.‭" (Incorrect) (Clinical Psychology)

Question 69

Margaret Mahler proposed that the development of a sense of self is the related to: a. separation-individuation. b. projective identification. c. pseudomutuality. d. assimilation-accommodation.

Answer 69

a. separation-individuation. CORRECT Mahler distinguishes between two phases that contribute to the development of a unique sense of self – symbiosis and separation-individuation. Separation-individuation is triggered by the child’s ability to separate from his/her primary caregiver. It begins at about 4 to 5 months of age when a child who is being held by his/her caregiver is able to lean away to scan the environment. b. projective identification. Incorrect Melanie Klein used the term projective identification to refer to projecting disliked or undesirable aspects of the internal object (self) onto an external object (caregiver). c. pseudomutuality. Incorrect Pseudomutuality describes a relationship between family members that appears to be healthy (is open and mutually empathic) but is not. d. assimilation-accommodation. Incorrect Assimilation and accommodation are terms used by Piaget to describe the modification and development of cognitive schemas. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 70

According to Irvin Yalom,‭ ________‬in group therapy is the analogue of the therapist-client relationship in individual therapy.‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. universality b. identification c. cohesiveness d. alliance

Answer 70

c. cohesiveness - CORRECT Yalom argues that the therapeutic relationship is the sine qua non of effective individual therapy and, therefore, that there must be a comparable phenomenon in group therapy. Yalom uses the term cohesiveness to refer to the various relationships that occur in a group – i.e., the relationships between group members and between each member and the therapist and the relationship between each member and the group itself. For Yalom, cohesiveness is the primary mode of help in group therapy, with highly cohesive groups having better outcomes. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 71

According to Howard et al.‭’‬s‭ (‬1996‭) ‬phase model,‭ ‬which of the following is most likely to be affected during the first few sessions of psychotherapy‭?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. coping skills b. severity of symptoms c. insight d. feelings of hopelessness

Answer 71

d. feelings of hopelessness - CORRECT Howard and his colleagues (1996) have identified a predictable relationship between number of therapy sessions and therapy outcomes. Howard et al.’s phase model distinguishes between three phases of psychotherapy: remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation. Remoralization occurs during the first few therapy sessions and is characterized by a decline in feelings of hopelessness (K. Howard et al., Evaluation of psychotherapy: Efficacy, effectiveness, and patient progress, (American Psychologist, 51, 1059-1064, 1996). (Clinical Psychology)

Question 72

From the perspective of feminist therapy,‭ ‬therapist self-disclosure is:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. contraindicated because it puts the client in a passive role. b. necessary during the early stages of therapy to encourage the client''s participation. c. a means of fostering a special bond between the client and the therapist. d. useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client.

Answer 72

d. useful for promoting an egalitarian relationship between the therapist and client. CORRECT Feminist therapists view sharing their own life experiences with clients as a way of promoting an egalitarian relationship. A key characteristic of feminist therapy is its emphasis on an egalitarian relationship. a. contraindicated because it puts the client in a passive role. - Incorrect Promoting a passive role in a client is discouraged in feminist therapy, but therapist self-disclosure (if done appropriately) is not considered a contributor to passivity. b. necessary during the early stages of therapy to encourage the client''s participation. - Incorrect This describes one use of self-disclosure, but this response doesn't best describe the role of self-disclosure in feminist therapy. c. a means of fostering a special bond between the client and the therapist. - Incorrect Feminist therapists generally discourage developing a “special bond” because doing so can foster the client’s dependence on the therapist. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 73

In contrast to traditional approaches to psychotherapy,‭ ‬culturally sensitive approaches attempt to understand a client’s experience of an illness within the client’s cultural context.‭ ‬In other words,‭ ‬culturally sensitive approaches adopt an ______ ‬perspective.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. emic b. etic c. emetic d. endogenous

Answer 73

a. emic - CORRECT The terms “emic” and “etic” were originally used by linguistic anthropologists but are now also used by psychologists interested in cross-cultural psychotherapy. Traditional psychiatry and psychotherapy reflect an etic approach ("view from the outside"), while cultural psychiatry and psychotherapy adopt an emic perspective ("view from the inside"). Culturally sensitive therapies emphasize an emic approach. b. etic - Incorrect c. emetic - Incorrect d. endogenous - Incorrect (Clinical Psychology)

Question 74

The information that family members continuously exchange and that helps minimize deviation and maintain the family's stability is referred to as ________ ‬feedback.‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. external b. internal c. negative d. positive

Answer 74

c. negative (Correct Answer) Negative feedback is corrective and helps the system return to or maintain its steady state. Thus, a "negative feedback loop" helps minimize deviation and thereby maintains the family's stability. In family systems theory, the information exchange between family members can act as either positive or negative feedback. d. positive - Incorrect Positive feedback increases deviation from a steady state and, therefore, produces a change in the family’s functioning. (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4438)

Question 75

A family therapist using the structural approach of Salvador Minuchin would most likely: a. clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment. b. work initially with the most differentiated family member. c. use a multiple-therapist team to prevent any one therapist from becoming "‬triangulated‭" ‬into the family system.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. issue specific "‬directives‭" ‬designed to counteract dysfunctional processes.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬

Answer 75

a. clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment. CORRECT As its name implies, structural family therapy focuses on altering the family's structure in order to change the behavior patterns of family members. Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin, you may have been able to guess that structural therapy would be concerned with boundaries. Structural family therapists view family dysfunction as being related to boundaries that are too diffuse (enmeshed) or too rigid (disengaged). b. work initially with the most differentiated family member. - Incorrect This is more characteristic of Bowen’s approach to family therapy. c. use a multiple-therapist team to prevent any one therapist from becoming "‬triangulated‭" ‬into the family system.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ - Incorrect Minuchin's approach does not involve the use of multiple-therapist teams. d. issue specific‭ "‬directives‭" ‬designed to counteract dysfunctional processes.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ - Incorrect The issuance of directives is more characteristic of strategic family therapy than of structural family therapy. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 76

Atkinson,‭ ‬Morten,‭ ‬and Sue’s‭ (‬1993‭) ‬Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model proposes that people in which of the following stages begin to question their rejection of all aspects of the dominant culture and absolute loyalty to their own culture?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. encounter b. dissonance c. integrative awareness d. introspection

Answer 76

d. introspection - CORRECT The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model distinguishes between five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. During the introspection stage, the individual begins to question the unequivocal position that he/she adopted during the previous resistance-immersion stage with regard to his/he own culture and the dominant culture. a. encounter - Incorrect The encounter stage is the second stage in Cross’s (1991) Black Racial (Nigrescence) Identity Development Model. b. dissonance - Incorrect During the dissonance stage, the individual begins to question conformity to the dominant culture. c. integrative awareness - Incorrect In this stage, the person bases acceptance or rejection of aspects of the majority and minority cultures on an objective evaluation. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 77

The first stage in Cross’s‭ (‬1991‭) ‬Black Racial Identity Development Model‭ ‬is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. conformity. b. incorporation. c. contact. d. pre-encounter.

Answer 77

d. pre-encounter. (Correct Answer) Cross’s model is based on the premise that African American identity development is directly linked to racial oppression. During the initial pre-encounter stage, race has low salience. Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between five stages: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, internalization, and internalization-commitment. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 78

Research on Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model suggests that a White therapist will usually be most successful when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in which stage?‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. reintegration b. immersion-emersion c. autonomy d. integrative awareness

Answer 78

c. autonomy - CORRECT Perhaps not surprisingly, a White therapist is likely to be most effective when working with a client from an ethnic/racial minority group when the therapist is in the final stage of White identity development – i.e., the autonomy stage. A person in this stage has internalized a positive (nonracist) White identity that includes appreciation of and respect for racial/cultural similarities and differences. Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model distinguishes between six identity statuses (stages): contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 79

In comparing Asian and Asian-American therapy clients to Anglo clients,‭ ‬the experts frequently point out that the former:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. tend to prefer a less directive therapeutic approach. b. are grounded more in the here-and-now than in the past or the future. c. respond better when goal-setting is delayed. d. are likely to express emotional problems as somatic symptoms.

Answer 79

d. are likely to express emotional problems as somatic symptoms. - CORRECT Asians ordinarily view the mind and body as inseparable and, as a result, often express mental health problems as somatic complaints such as headaches, fatigue, or sleep problems. Although it is important not to overgeneralize about members of any particular group, the literature on cross-cultural psychotherapy does provide some general conclusions about clients belonging to different ethnic/cultural groups. a. tend to prefer a less directive therapeutic approach. - Incorrect This is the opposite of what is true. b. are grounded more in the here-and-now than in the past or the future. - Incorrect In terms of time perspective, Asians usually place importance on the relationship of the past to the present. c. respond better when goal-setting is delayed. - Incorrect It is usually best to identify goals early in therapy (even during the first session) when working with Asian clients. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 80

Smith,‭ ‬Glass,‭ ‬and Miller’s‭ (‬1980‭) ‬meta-analysis of the psychotherapy outcome research found that people receiving therapy are "‬better off" ‬than about _____‬%‭ ‬of people who need treatment but do not receive it.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. 45 b. 55 c. 80 d. 95

Answer 80

c. 80 - CORRECT Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) report an average effect size of .85 for 475 controlled studies of psychotherapy. This means that the mean outcome score of people who receive treatment is higher than the mean outcome score of about 80% of people who need treatment but do not receive it. Although the results of the meta-analyses of the psychotherapy outcome research vary somewhat, they confirm that the majority of clients receiving therapy benefit from it. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 81

Asking the “‬miracle question” ‬is an initial intervention in which type of therapy?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. transtheoretical b. interpersonal c. REBT d. solution-focused

Answer 81

d. solution-focused - CORRECT As its name implies, solution-focused therapy focuses on identifying solutions to problems. The miracle question is one of the techniques used by solution-focused therapists to identify solutions and establish therapy goals. It involves asking the client how the client’s life would be if his/her problems were suddenly resolved. The “miracle question” is used to help clients identify solutions to their problems. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 82

According to Freud's notion of______‬,‭ ‬dreams and slips of the tongue are meaningful goal-directed phenomena.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. psychic dynamogenesis b. reciprocal determinism c. psychic determinism d. ptyalism

Answer 82

c. psychic determinism - CORRECT According to Freud's doctrine of psychic determinism, behaviors are not the result of free will but, instead, are caused by unconscious phenomena. Freud interpreted dreams, slips of the tongue, etc. as manifestations of unconscious material. a. psychic dynamogenesis - Incorrect Dynamogenesis is the principle that motor responses are proportional to sensory activities. b. reciprocal determinism - Incorrect Reciprocal determinism proposes that behavior, person, and situation interact and influence each other. d. ptyalism - Incorrect Ptyalism refers to the excessive production of saliva, something Pavlov, not Freud, would be interested in. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 83

The belief that a child's misbehavior has one of four goals — ‬i.e.,‭ ‬attention,‭ ‬revenge,‭ ‬power,‭ ‬or to display inadequacy — ‬is most consistent with:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy. b. Adler’s individual psychology c. Perls’s Gestalt therapy. d. Mahler’s object relations theory.

Answer 83

b. Adler’s individual psychology - CORRECT Adler believed that all behaviors are goal-directed and purposeful. Dreikurs, an associate of Adler’s, described the misbehavior of children as attempts to belong, which reflect faulty beliefs about what it takes to belong (e.g., “I belong only when I'm the center of attention”). (Clinical Psychology)

Question 84

For a Gestalt therapist,‭ ‬a primary goal of treatment is to help the client:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. integrate the present with his/her past and future. b. integrate the various aspects of the self. c. develop a‭ “‬success identity.‭” d. develop a‭ “‬healthy style of life.‭”

Answer 84

b. integrate the various aspects of the self. - CORRECT A primary goal of gestalt therapy is to integrate all aspects of the self; i.e., one’s feelings, thoughts, and actions. For the exam, you want to know that, in Gestalt therapy, the primary goals are increased awareness and integration of all aspects of the self. a. integrate the present with his/her past and future. - Incorrect In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on the present. In fact, its founder, Fritz Perls, argued that “nothing exists but the now.” c. develop a‭ “‬success identity.‭” - Incorrect This is the goal of reality therapy.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. develop a‭ “‬healthy style of life.‭” - Incorrect This sounds more like Adlerian therapy.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Clinical Psychology)

Question 85

The primary goal of a newly-developed community-based mental health program is to help people recently released from a psychiatric hospital adjust to life in the community.‭ ‬This is an example of:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. primary prevention. b. secondary prevention. c. tertiary prevention. d. crisis intervention.

Answer 85

c. tertiary prevention. - CORRECT Tertiary preventions are designed to reduce the prevalence of mental disorders by reducing their duration or preventing their recurrence. Prevention programs are often described as primary, secondary, or tertiary, depending on their goals. a. primary prevention. - Incorrect Primary preventions are designed to prevent the development of a physical or mental disorder. b. secondary prevention. - Incorrect Secondary preventions are designed to reduce the prevalence of mental disorders through early identification and intervention. d. crisis intervention. - Incorrect Crisis interventions are designed to reduce the negative consequences of crises. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 86

In client-centered case consultation,‭ ‬the consultant's primary goal is to:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. help the consultee determine how to work more effectively with a particular client. b. help the consultee identify methods for evaluating his/her own professional services. c. help a consultee enhance his/her skills and knowledge so that the consultee functions more effectively in the future. d. work collaboratively with the consultee in delivering the optimal intervention to a client.

Answer 86

a. help the consultee determine how to work more effectively with a particular client. - CORRECT Gerald Caplan (1970) distinguishes between four types of mental health consultation: client-centered case consultation, consultee-centered case consultation, program-centered administrative consultation, and consultee-centered administrative consultation. Client-centered case consultation focuses on a particular client. In this type of consultation, the consultant collects information about the client and makes recommendations to the consultee about the best course of action. b. help the consultee identify methods for evaluating his/her own professional services. - Incorrect This does not accurately describe the primary goal of client-centered case consultation. c. help a consultee enhance his/her skills and knowledge so that the consultee functions more effectively in the future. - Incorrect This describes consultee-centered case consultation. d. work collaboratively with the consultee in delivering the optimal intervention to a client. - Incorrect This describes “collaboration“rather than “consultation. “ (Clinical Psychology)

Question 87

Replacing a “‬failure identity” ‬with a “‬success identity” ‬is a goal of treatment for practitioners of _______ ‬therapy.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Gestalt b. reality c. solution-focused d. Adlerian

Answer 87

b. reality - CORRECT Glasser, the founder of reality therapy, viewed identity as a basic psychological need and distinguished between success and failure identities. A person develops a success identity when the person fulfills his/her other needs in a responsible way. Of the therapies listed, only one distinguishes between success and failure identities. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 88

Prochaska and DiClemente’s‭ (‬1982‭) ‬stages of change (‬transtheoretical‭) ‬model predicts that a person in the ________ ‬stage plans to take action ‬within the next six months ‬that will alter his/her problematic behavior.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. action b. contemplation c. preparation d. precontemplation

Answer 88

b. contemplation - (CORRECT) A person in the contemplation stage intends to take action in the next six months. A Prochaska and DiClemente’s stage of change model distinguishes between six stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. a. action - Incorrect A person in this stage is currently taking actions to alter his/her behavior. c. preparation - Incorrect A person in the preparation stage is planning to take action in the near future (usually defined as in the next month). d. precontemplation - Incorrect A person in this stage is not planning to change in the foreseeable future. (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4417)

Question 89

The research indicates that which of the following therapist factors has the greatest impact on therapy progress?‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. amount of personal therapy b. self-esteem c. emotional detachment d. empathy

Answer 89

d. empathy - CORRECT Studies have generally confirmed Carl Rogers' assertion that therapist empathy is an important factor in psychotherapy. Although therapist factors have, in general, not been found to be particularly good predictors of therapy outcome, some therapist factors do appear to have an impact on therapy progress. a. amount of personal therapy - Incorrect No consistent relationship has been found between the therapist's personal therapy and therapy outcome. b. self-esteem - Incorrect Although "healthier" therapists seem to be better therapists, self-esteem has not been linked to the outcome of therapy. c. emotional detachment - Incorrect Emotional detachment has not been found to be a good predictor of favorable therapy outcome. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 90

The rooting reflex occurs when: a. The newborn’s cheek is touched b. The newborn’s foot is tickled. c. The newborn hears his/her caregiver’s voice. d. The newborn hears an unexpected loud noise.

Answer 90

The rooting reflex occurs when: a. The newborn’s cheek is touched - CORRECT Reflexes are unlearned responses to particular stimuli in the environment. The rooting reflex occurs when the baby turns his/her head in the direction of a touch or stroke on his/her cheek. b. The newborn’s foot is tickled. (Incorrect) This describes the Babinski reflex. c. The newborn hears his/her caregiver’s voice. (Incorrect) This does not describe the rooting reflex. d. The newborn hears an unexpected loud noise. (Incorrect, My Selection) This describes the Moro (startle) reflex. (Lifespan Development)

Question 91

According to Bronfenbrenner’s‭ (‬1979‭) ‬ecological model,‭ ‬ the ______ ‬consists of interactions between elements of the microsystem‭ (‬e.g.,‭ ‬between the family and the school‭)‬.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. mesosystem b. exosystem c. macrosystem d. endosystem

Answer 91

a. mesosystem - CORRECT Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model distinguishes between four layers (levels) that influence a child’s development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, and macrosystem. The mesosystem is the second layer and consists of interactions between components of the microsystem – e.g., the parents’ involvement in the child’s school experiences and interactions between the child’s church and community. b. exosystem - Incorrect The exosystem consists of elements in the social setting that indirectly affect the child’s development (e.g., the parents’ jobs). c. macrosystem - Incorrect The macrosystem is the outermost layer and includes the values, laws, customs, etc. of the child’s culture. d. endosystem - Incorrect The endosystem is not one of the levels identified by Bronfenbrenner. (Lifespan Development)

Question 92

In terms of age,‭ ‬Erikson’s‭ ________ ‬stage of psychosocial development corresponds to Freud’s phallic stage.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. industry vs.‭ ‬inferiority b. autonomy vs. ‬shame and doubt c. basic trust vs.‭ ‬mistrust d. initiative vs.‭ ‬guilt.

Answer 92

d. initiative vs.‭ ‬guilt. - CORRECT Erikson's psychosocial theory proposes that personality development occurs throughout the lifespan and involves eight stages. The initiative vs. guilt stage is characteristic of children aged 3 to 6 years and corresponds to Freud’s phallic stage. a. industry vs.‭ ‬inferiority - Incorrect The industry vs. inferiority stage is characteristic of children aged 6 to 11 years and corresponds to Freud’s latency stage.‬‬‬‬‬‬ b. autonomy vs. ‬shame and doubt - Incorrect The autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years and corresponds to Freud’s anal stage. c. basic trust vs.‭ ‬mistrust - Incorrect The basic trust vs. mistrust stage occurs from birth to 1 year of age and corresponds to Freud’s oral stage.‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Lifespan Development)

Question 93

Children begin to ‬deliberately and ‬regularly use rehearsal,‭ ‬elaboration,‭ ‬and organization as memory strategies by _____ ‬years of age.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. 2‭ ‬to‭ ‬3 b. 5‭ ‬to ‬7 c. 9‭ ‬to‭ ‬10 d. 13‭ ‬to‭ ‬15

Answer 93

c. 9‭ ‬to‭ ‬10 - CORRECT The research has shown that the deliberate and consistent use of the memory strategies listed in the question begins at about 9 to 10 years of age. The consistent and deliberate use of memory strategies does not occur until age 9 or 10. a. 2‭ ‬to‭ ‬3 - Incorrect b. 5‭ ‬to ‬7 - Incorrect Preschoolers sometimes use memory strategies but do so in non-deliberate and often ineffective ways. In addition, children of this age can be taught to use memory strategies for a specific task but do not apply them to new tasks.‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. 13‭ ‬to‭ ‬15 - Incorrect The use of these strategies continues to be “fine-tuned” during adolescence.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Lifespan Development)

Question 94

Most babies say their first words at about _____ ‬months of age.‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. 7 b. 9 c. 12 d. 15

Answer 94

c. 12 - CORRECT Most infants say their first recognizable word at 12 months of age. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the language milestones of early childhood. (Lifespan Development)

Question 95

During the second stage of Kohlberg’s preconventional level of moral development,‭ ‬children obey rules because:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws. b. ‭"‬everyone else is doing it.‭" c. doing so helps them avoid punishment. d. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs.

Answer 95

d. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs. - CORRECT The preconventional level of moral development consists of two stages: punishment and obedience and instrumental hedonism. During the instrumental hedonism stage, children consider the correct action to be the one that best satisfies their own personal needs. To illustrate this stage, Kohlberg described a 10-year old boy who, when asked what it means to be a good son, replied, "Be good to your father and he will be good to you." a. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws. - Incorrect This is characteristic of the second stage of the conventional level. b. ‭"‬everyone else is doing it.‭" - Incorrect This doesn't describe the second stage of the preconventional level.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ c. doing so helps them avoid punishment. - Incorrect This is characteristic of the initial punishment and obedience stage of the preconventional level. (Lifespan Development)

Question 96

In terms of the parenting styles identified by Baumrind and her colleagues‭ (‬1991‭)‬,‭ ‬independent self-confident adolescents are most likely to have parents who are:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. authoritative. b. authoritarian. c. permissive. d. traditional.

Answer 96

a. authoritative. - CORRECT Of the four parenting styles, the authoritative style is most likely to produce independent self-confident children and adolescents. Authoritative parents combine rational control with warmth, receptivity, and the encouragement of independence. Baumrind and her colleagues distinguish between authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, and rejecting-neglecting parents. b. authoritarian. - Incorrect Authoritarian parents impose absolute standards of control, stress obedience, and are willing to use force to obtain compliance. Their children tend to be dependent, passive, and submissive and display a limited sense of responsibility. c. permissive. - Incorrect Permissive parents provide their children with few controls or demands and display moderate levels of warmth. Their children exhibit little self-reliance, exploratory behavior, or self-control. d. traditional. - Incorrect "Traditional" is not a parenting style identified by Baumrind. (Lifespan Development)

Question 97

Down Syndrome is caused by: a. a dominant gene. b. two recessive genes. c. a chromosomal abnormality. d. an X-linked gene.

Answer 97

c. a chromosomal abnormality. - CORRECT Down Syndrome is a chromosomal condition that is associated with mental retardation, specific facial features, and certain physical abnormalities (e.g., hypotonia, heart defects, and hearing impairment). Down syndrome is most often due to a failure of the 21st pair of chromosomes to split during meiosis, resulting in an extra chromosome 21. (Lifespan Development)

Question 98

Thomas and Chess’s‭ ‬(1977‭) ‬“goodness-of-fit” ‬model predicts that maladjustment in children is due to:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. a mismatch between ‬the child’s basic temperament and his/her parents’ ‬childrearing practices. b. a mismatch between the child’s attachment behaviors and his/her parents’ ‬response to those behaviors. c. inconsistencies in the parenting styles of the child’s caregivers. d. inconsistencies in the child’s sense of self and the feedback the child receives from caregivers about his/her behavior.

Answer 98

a. a mismatch between ‬the child’s basic temperament and his/her parents’ ‬childrearing practices. - CORRECT Based on their research, Thomas and Chess concluded that it is not the child’s early temperament that predicts future adjustment but the match between the child’s temperament and his/her caregivers’ childrearing practices. Knowing that Thomas and Chess studied temperament would have enabled you to identify the correct response to this question. b. a mismatch between the child’s attachment behaviors and his/her parents‭’ ‬response to those behaviors. - Incorrect ‬‬‬‬‬ c. inconsistencies in the parenting styles of the child’s caregivers. Incorrect d. inconsistencies in the child’s sense of self and the feedback the child receives from caregivers about his/her behavior. Incorrect (Lifespan Development)

Question 99

Alice,‭ ‬ age ‬14,‭ ‬is certain that everyone is looking at her because she ‬has a large blemish in the middle of ‬her forehead.‭ ‬According to Elkind‭ (‬1967‭)‬,‭ ‬Alice’s belief is a manifestation of:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. self-conscious emotions. b. the “‬personal fable.‭” c. social referencing. d. the‭ “‬imaginary audience.‭”

Answer 99

d. the‭ “‬imaginary audience.‭” - CORRECT Elkind used the term “imaginary audience” to describe the adolescent’s belief that he/she is the focus of everyone’s attention. Elkind (1967) proposed that adolescents experience a renewed egocentrisim that is manifested in several ways. a. self-conscious emotions. - Incorrect Self-conscious emotions include shame, embarrassment, and pride and are not relevant to Elkind’s explanation for Alice’s behavior. b. the “‬personal fable.‭” - Incorrect The personal fable is one manifestation of adolescent egocentrism but does not describe Alice’s concern. It refers to the belief that one is special and unique and not subject to the same dangers as other people are.‬‬‬‬‬ c. social referencing. - Incorrect Social referencing refers to relying on the emotional response of another person (e.g., caregiver) to decide how to respond in an ambiguous situation. (Lifespan Development)

Question 100

Babbling ordinarily begins at about ‬4‭ ‬to‭ ‬5‭ ‬months of age and initially includes:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. phonemes from all languages. b. phonemes from the child’s native language only. c. morphemes from all languages. d. morphemes that the child has heard most frequently.

Answer 100

a. phonemes from all languages. -CORRECT Babbling initially consists of phonemes from all languages; but, by about 9 months, it narrows to include the sounds of the child’s native language only. Babbling involves the repetition of vowel and consonant sounds – e.g., bi-bi-bi and da-da-da. b. phonemes from the child’s native language only. - Incorrect c. morphemes from all languages. - Incorrect d. morphemes that the child has heard most frequently. - Incorrect (Lifespan Development)

Question 101

A child with an insecure/anxious-avoidant pattern of attachment: a. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother and continues to be highly anxious when she returns. b. is more anxious when his/her mother is present than absent and resists contact with her when she returns following separation. c. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother but pulls away from her when she returns. d. shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns.

Answer 101

d. shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns. - CORRECT In Ainsworth’s "strange situation," insecure/anxious-avoidant children are uninterested in exploration, show little distress when separated from their mothers, and avoid her when she returns. Attachment patterns are categorized in terms of four types: secure, insecure/anxious-avoidant, insecure/anxious-ambivalent, and disorganized-disoriented. a. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother and continues to be highly anxious when she returns. - Incorrect b. is more anxious when his/her mother is present than absent and resists contact with her when she returns following separation. - Incorrect c. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother but pulls away from her when she returns. - Incorrect (Lifespan Development)

Question 102

Research suggests children’s successful adjustment to the divorce of their parents is most related to: a. the frequency of contact with the noncustodial parent. b. the quality of the parent-child relationships prior to the divorce. c. the child’s ability to understand the cause(s‭) ‬of the divorce. d. the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents.

Answer 102

d. the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents. - CORRECT Of the factors listed in the answers, the frequency and severity of post-divorce conflict between the parents has most consistently been linked to children’s adjustment. In fact, some experts argue that it is marital conflict – and not the divorce itself – that is responsible for children’s adjustment problems. A number of child and parent factors have been linked to children’s adjustment to the divorce of their parents. (Lifespan Development)

Question 103

According to Gerald Patterson and his colleagues‭ (‬1992‭)‬,‭ ‬which of the following is a key contributor to aggressive behavior in children‭?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. the child’s intelligence. b. the child’s‭ “‬basic personality.‭” c. the strength of the parent-child attachment. d. the parents‭’ ‬childrearing behaviors

Answer 103

d. the parents‭’ ‬childrearing behaviors - CORRECT Patterson et al.’s “coercive family interaction model” attributes aggression in children primarily to interactions between parents and their children, especially interactions involving the parents’ childrearing behaviors. The social learning approach of Patterson and his colleagues focuses on the family factors that contribute to aggressiveness in children. (Lifespan Development)

Question 104

Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory identifies which of the following as the‭ ‬initial stage of gender-role acquisition‭?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. gender affirmation b. gender identity c. gender constancy d. gender stability.

Answer 104

b. gender identity - CORRECT According to Kohlberg (1969), gender identity is the first stage in the acquisition of gender-role behaviors and occurs at about age 2 to 3. It is followed by gender stability (age 4) and then gender constancy (ages 6 to 7). Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental model identifies three stages of gender-role acquisition – gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy. (Lifespan Development)

Question 105

A‭ ‬16-month-old child who calls her pet cat‭ “‬kitty‭” ‬sees a dog for the first time and calls it‭ “‬kitty.‭” ‬In terms of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development,‭ ‬the child is displaying:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. categorization. d. centration.

Answer 105

a. assimilation. - CORRECT Assimilation involves incorporating new knowledge into existing cognitive structures or schemes. The child in the question doesn't know what a dog is and is incorporating it into her existing “kitty” scheme. Piaget distinguished between two complementary processes that underlie cognitive development: assimilation and accommodation. b. accommodation. - Incorrect Accommodation involves modifying an existing scheme or creating a new one. c. categorization. - Incorrect Piaget did not use the term “categorization” to describe the incorporation of new knowledge into an existing cognitive scheme. d. centration. - Incorrect Centration is a limitation of the preoperational stage and refers to the tendency to focus on the most salient aspect of an object. (Lifespan Development)

Question 106

‭________ ‬ involves ‬mental retardation and extreme obesity and is caused by a chromosomal deletion.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Down Syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Klinefelter syndrome. d. Prader-Willi syndrome

Answer 106

d. Prader-Willi syndrome - CORRECT Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a chromosomal deletion, which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. Approximately 1 in 200 babies is born with a chromosomal abnormality. a. Down Syndrome - Incorrect Down syndrome is attributable to the presence of an extra chromosome. b. Turner syndrome - Incorrect Turner syndrome is caused by the absence of a chromosome. It occurs only in females and involves the absence of one X chromosome. c. Klinefelter syndrome. - Incorrect Klinefelter syndrome is due to the presence of an extra chromosome. (Lifespan Development)

Question 107

For most children,‭ ‬stranger anxiety begins at about _____ ‬months of age.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. 2 ‬to ‬3 b. 4‭ ‬to‭ ‬6 c. 8‭ ‬to‭ ‬10 d. 12‭ ‬to‭ ‬14

Answer 107

c. 8‭ ‬to‭ ‬10 - CORRECT Although the experts differ somewhat with regard to the exact age of onset of stranger anxiety, most agree that it begins during the second half of the first year. Stranger anxiety involves anxious, fearful responses in the presence of a stranger, especially when a caregiver is not present. (Lifespan Development)

Question 108

Child abuse and neglect are most associated with which of the following attachment patterns?‬‬‬‬‬ a. disorganized/disoriented b. distant/disengaged. c. insecure/avoidant. d. insecure/ambivalent

Answer 108

a. disorganized/disoriented - CORRECT Mary Main, a student of Ainsworth, found that about 80% of maltreated children exhibit a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern. Children who have been maltreated often exhibit disorganized, contradictory behaviors in the presence of their caregivers – e.g., they might reach out for the caregiver while backing away. b. distant/disengaged. - Incorrect c. insecure/avoidant. - Incorrect d. insecure/ambivalent - Incorrect (Lifespan Development)

Question 109

The mental retardation associated with PKU is preventable with: a. removal of environmental toxins. b. blood transfusions. c. a special diet. d. antibiotics.

Answer 109

a. removal of environmental toxins. - Incorrect b. blood transfusions. - Incorrect c. a special diet. - CORRECT PKU involves an inability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Mental retardation and other symptoms of PKU can be reduced or eliminated by a diet low in phenylalanine beginning at birth. PKU (phenylketonuria) is a recessive gene disorder. d. antibiotics. - Incorrect (Lifespan Development)

Question 110

Konrad Lorenz’s‭ (‬1957‭) ‬research on‭ “‬imprinting‭” ‬led to the search for __________ ‬in human infants.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. a critical period for attachment b. a biological explanation for language acquisition. c. a sensitive period for social referencing d. a biological mechanism for recognition memory.

Answer 110

a. a critical period for attachment - CORRECT The ethologist Lorenz found that geese bonded to the first moving object they encounter during the first few days following birth. His research led to a search for a similar “critical period” for attachment in human infants. “Imprinting” refers to the bond that develops during a critical period following birth in some non-human species. b. a biological explanation for language acquisition. - Incorrect c. a sensitive period for social referencing - Incorrect See explanation for response a. d. a biological mechanism for recognition memory. - Incorrect (Lifespan Development)

Question 111

The‭ _______ ‬is the least developed area of the brain at birth.‬‬‬‬‬ a. brain stem b. cerebral cortex c. limbic system d. cerebellum

Answer 111

b. cerebral cortex - CORRECT The cerebral cortex, which is responsible for higher-level cognitive skills, complex motor behaviors, language, and spatial skills, is almost completely undeveloped at birth. Not surprisingly, it is the higher centers of the brain that are least developed at birth. (Lifespan Development)

Question 112

An organizational psychologist finds that his newly developed selection test has different validity coefficients for male and female applicants and that the difference is statistically significant.‭ ‬This suggests that the test has:‬‬‬‬ a. incremental validity. b. discriminant validity. c. differential validity. d. convergent validity.

Answer 112

c. differential validity. - CORRECT A test has differential validity when its validity coefficient for one group is different from its validity coefficient for another group. The selection test described in this question has different levels of validity for males and females. a. incremental validity.- Incorrect A test's incremental validity refers to the benefits that use of the test provides with regard to decision-making accuracy. b. discriminant validity. - Incorrect A test has discriminant (divergent) validity when it has low correlations with tests that measure different traits, characteristics, or abilities. Discriminant validity provides evidence of a test's construct validity. d. convergent validity. - Incorrect A test has convergent validity when it correlates highly with tests that measure the same trait. Convergent validity provides evidence of construct validity. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 113

Expectancy theory predicts that worker motivation depends on several factors including‭ “‬valence,‭” ‬which refers to:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. the employee’s beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance. b. the employee’s beliefs about the inherent‭ (‬intrinsic‭) ‬value of the work itself. c. the strength of the worker's motivation and organizational commitment. d. the strength of the effort‭ (‬versus ability‭) ‬component of the worker’s motivation.

Answer 113

a. the employee’s beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance. - CORRECT According to expectancy theory, motivation is a function of three components: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Valence refers to the value a worker places on the outcomes that will be provided for successful performance. When these outcomes have positive valence, this increases the worker's motivation to perform. b. the employee’s beliefs about the inherent‭ (‬intrinsic‭) ‬value of the work itself. - Incorrect c. the strength of the worker's motivation and organizational commitment. - Incorrect d. the strength of the effort‭ (‬versus ability‭) ‬component of the worker’s motivation. - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 114

According to Fiedler’s contingency model of leadership,‭ ‬high LPC leaders:‬‬‬‬ a. are always more effective than low LPC leaders. b. are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations. c. elicit less trust from supervisees than do low LPC leaders. d. elicit less intrinsic motivation from supervisees than do low LPC leaders.

Answer 114

b. are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations. - CORRECT According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in low and high favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations. Fiedler's LPC (least preferred coworker) scale measures the extent to which a leader describes ineffective subordinates in positive terms. A high LPC leader is one who has nice things to say even about inefficient workers. a. are always more effective than low LPC leaders. - Incorrect Fiedler's theory is a “contingency” theory and predicts that the most effective leadership style depends on the nature of the situation. c. elicit less trust from supervisees than do low LPC leaders. - Incorrect This is not predicted by Fiedler’s theory. d. elicit less intrinsic motivation from supervisees than do low LPC leaders. - Incorrect Fielder did not directly address the issue of job motivation but, because his theory is a contingency theory, it implies that the ability of high and low LPC leaders to foster the motivation of employees would depend on the nature of the situation. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 115

A transformational leader uses "‬ framing" ‬in order to:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. make the organization’s goals more meaningful to employees. b. clarify the consequences of undesirable performance. c. reduce personal biases in decision-making. d. adapt his/her leadership style to the characteristics of subordinates.

Answer 115

a. make the organization’s goals more meaningful to employees. - CORRECT Transformational leaders recognize the need for change and are able to communicate that need to employees. Framing is one technique these leaders use to inspire employees and involves describing the organization’s goals in a way that makes them more meaningful to employees. Even if you're unfamiliar with “framing,” you may have been able to identify the correct answer with your knowledge of transformational leadership. b. clarify the consequences of undesirable performance. - Incorrect c. reduce personal biases in decision-making. - Incorrect The term “framing” is also used to refer to a type of decision-making bias. In that context, framing occurs when the description of a problem in a positive or negative way influences the type of decision that is made. However, this question is asking about the use of framing by transformational leaders. d. adapt his/her leadership style to the characteristics of subordinates. - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 116

The research indicates that,‭ ‬when Total Quality Management (‬TQM‭) ‬fails to live up to its potential,‭ ‬this is most often because:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. the team leader lacks adequate leadership skills. b. there was too much reliance on team (‬versus individual) ‬effort. c. employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making. d. pay and other benefits were not adequately linked to team performance.

Answer 116

c. employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making. - CORRECT Although TQM emphasizes team involvement in decision-making, too often decisions are made unilaterally by the supervisor. The primary goal of TQM is to continuously improve the quality of the organization’s products and services. This is accomplished by evaluating customer satisfaction, maximizing employee involvement and empowerment, and making continuous improvements in organizational processes. a. the team leader lacks adequate leadership skills. - Incorrect Although leader ability is always important, it has not been identified as a particular problem in TQM, which emphasizes the involvement of employees in decision-making processes. b. there was too much reliance on team‭ (‬versus individual) ‬effort. - Incorrect Team work is considered a key feature of TQM; and the research has shown that, under the right circumstances, team work is associated with positive outcomes for the company.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. pay and other benefits were not adequately linked to team performance. - Incorrect This hasn't been identified as a problem by the research on TQM. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 117

The primary purpose of a(n‭) ____________ ‬is to obtain detailed information about job requirements in order to facilitate decisions related to compensation.‬‬‬‬‬ a. needs assessment b. organizational analysis c. job analysis d. job evaluation

Answer 117

d. job evaluation - CORRECT A job evaluation is conducted specifically for the purpose of determining the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages and salaries. Of the procedures listed in the answers, only one is conducted specifically to facilitate decisions related to compensation. a. needs assessment - Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to identify training needs. b. organizational analysis - Incorrect An organizational analysis is often part of a needs assessment and is conducted to identify the organization’s goal c. job analysis - Incorrect A job analysis is conducted to identify the essential characteristics of a job. Job analysis serves several functions in an organization and may be the first step in a job evaluation. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 118

Assessment centers are most commonly used to: a. hire and promote clerical workers. b. hire and promote managers. c. train semi-skilled and skilled workers. d. train salespeople.

Answer 118

b. hire and promote managers. - CORRECT Assessment centers are used to evaluate managerial-level employees for the purpose of selection, promotion, or training and involve having participants engage in a variety of exercises, many of which simulate the actual tasks a manager performs on-the-job. Assessment centers were originally used during World War II as a means of selecting OSS agents. They are now used primarily for evaluating and predicting the performance of managerial-level employees. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 119

The ‬80%‭ ‬rule is used to determine if:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. a selection procedure is having an adverse impact. b. a selection procedure is cost effective. c. a performance appraisal measure has adequate relevance. d. a performance appraisal measure has adequate utility.

Answer 119

a. a selection procedure is having an adverse impact. - CORRECT The 80% rule is described in the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures and is used to determine if a selection test or other employment procedure is discriminating against members of a group protected by law. As defined by the 80% rule, a selection test is having an adverse impact when the proportion of minority-group applicants who are selected is less than 80% of the proportion of majority-group applicants who are selected. b. a selection procedure is cost effective - Incorrect c. a performance appraisal measure has adequate relevance.- Incorrect d. a performance appraisal measure has adequate utility. Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 120

Lewin’s force field theory describes planned change in organizations as involving which of the following stages‭?‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. unfreezing,‭ ‬changing,‭ ‬and refreezing b. forming,‭ ‬performing,‭ ‬and re-forming c. identifying,‭ ‬planning,‭ ‬and acting d. setting the stage, ‬problem-solving, ‬and reaching an agreement

Answer 120

a. unfreezing,‭ ‬changing,‭ ‬and refreezing - ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ CORRECT Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing are the three stages of planned change identified by Lewin. According to Lewin (1951), organizations continuously respond to forces that either promote or resist change. b. forming,‭ ‬performing,‭ ‬and re-forming - Incorrect c. identifying,‭ ‬planning,‭ ‬and acting - Incorrect d. setting the stage, ‬problem-solving, ‬and reaching an agreement - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 121

The primary purpose of a realistic job preview is to: a. increase the number of applicants for a job. b. develop an accurate job description. c. reduce on-the-job conflicts between managers and employees. d. reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover.

Answer 121

d. reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover. - CORRECT Two assumptions underlying the use of realistic job previews are that turnover is related to unrealistic expectations about the job and that providing applicants with accurate information about what the job entails will reduce unrealistic expectations and thereby decrease dissatisfaction and turnover. Realistic job previews may consist of job descriptions, videos, discussions with current employees, work samples, and/or other procedures or techniques. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 122

The best conclusion that can be drawn about the four-day‭ (‬ compressed) ‬workweek is that it has:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. long-lasting positive effects on attitudes and productivity. b. long-lasting negative effects on attitudes and productivity. c. positive effects on attitudes but little or no impact on productivity. d. positive effects on attitudes initially but, ‬over time,‭ ‬increasingly negative effects on both attitudes and productivity.

Answer 122

c. positive effects on attitudes but little or no impact on productivity. - CORRECT Overall, alternative work schedules have been found to have more beneficial effects on attitudes than on productivity and this seems to be particularly true for the compressed workweek. For example, a meta-analysis of the research on the compressed workweek by Baltes and his colleagues (1999) found an effect size of .59 for satisfaction and .04 for productivity. The compressed workweek requires employees to work a 4-day, 40-hourweek. d. positive effects on attitudes initially but, ‬over time,‭ ‬increasingly negative effects on both attitudes and productivity. - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 123

A manager who adheres to the principles of "‬scientific management" ‬ would ‬most likely agree with which of the following?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Employees view work “‬as natural as play” ‬and actively seek autonomy and responsibility. b. An employee's relationships with his/her coworkers are important determinants of job satisfaction. c. Because employees value money more than other incentives,‭ ‬pay is the most effective motivator. d. An employee's unfulfilled needs take precedence over other needs,‭ ‬and rewards should be determined accordingly.

Answer 123

c. Because employees value money more than other incentives,‭ ‬pay is the most effective motivator. - CORRECT Taylor believed that employees are motivated primarily by economic self-interest and, therefore, that money is the most effective motivator. Scientific management was developed by Frederick Taylor (1911) who applied the scientific method to the study of job productivity a. Employees view work‭ “‬as natural as play‭” ‬and actively seek autonomy and responsibility. Incorrect This describes McGregor’s Theory Y managers.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ b. An employee's relationships with his/her coworkers are important determinants of job satisfaction. - Incorrect This is an assumption of the human relations movement, which was an alternative to scientific management. d. An employee's unfulfilled needs take precedence over other needs,‭ ‬and rewards should be determined accordingly. - Incorrect This sounds like Maslow’s need hierarchy theory.‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 124

The “‬paired comparison” ‬technique is used to:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. evaluate an employee’s‭ ‬job performance. b. make hiring and placement decisions. c. identify an employee’s training needs. d. determine‭ ‬the appropriate compensation for a job.

Answer 124

a. evaluate an employee’s‭ ‬job performance. - CORRECT When using the paired comparison technique, an employee is compared to every other employee on each dimension of job performance. The paired comparison technique is a method of performance appraisal. b. make hiring and placement decisions. Incorrect c. identify an employee’s training needs -Incorrect d. determine‭ ‬the appropriate compensation for a job. - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 125

An organizational psychologist would most likely recommend the use of vestibule training for which of the following jobs‭?‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. airline pilot b. word processor c. salesperson. d. clinical psychologist.

Answer 125

a. airline pilot - CORRECT Vestibule training is used when on-the-job training would be too costly or hazardous, as it would be in pilot training. Vestibule training involves the use of a simulated job environment. b. word processor -Incorrect c. salesperson. - Incorrect d. clinical psychologist. - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 126

If you were hired by a large company to develop a new training program,‭ ‬your first step would probably be to conduct a:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. needs analysis. b. job evaluation. c. summative evaluation. d. formative evaluation.

Answer 126

a. needs analysis. - CORRECT Training program development begins with a needs analysis (also known as a needs assessment), which usually consists of three components: an organizational analysis, a job analysis, and a person analysis. For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between needs analysis, job analysis, and job evaluation. b. job evaluation. - Incorrect A job evaluation is conducted to determine the appropriate compensation for a job c. summative evaluation. - Incorrect A summative evaluation is conducted to determine the effects of a training program or intervention after it has been developed. d. formative evaluation. - Incorrect A formative evaluation is conducted while a training program or intervention is being developed to determine if modifications are required in order for the program or intervention to achieve its goals. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 127

In terms of EEOC guidelines,‭ ‬a substantially different rate of selection or promotion that results in disadvantage to people of a particular gender,‭ ‬race,‭ ‬or ethnicity is evidence of:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. test bias. b. adverse impact. c. criterion deficiency. d. situation specificity.

Answer 127

b. adverse impact. - CORRECT As defined by the EEOC, adverse impact is suggested when there is a difference between groups in terms of rates of selection, promotion, etc. The language in this question is nearly identical to that found in the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines. a. test bias. - Incorrect Test bias is a possible cause of adverse impact but is not the best answer to this question. c. criterion deficiency. - Incorrect Criterion deficiency refers to the extent to which a criterion measure does not assess all of the aspects of the ultimate (accurate and complete) criterion. d. situational specificity. - Incorrect Situational specificity is occurring when validity information is specific to a particular circumstance and does not generalize to other circumstances. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 128

The rational-economic model of decision-making is based on the assumption that: a. decision-makers place more emphasis on the costs of certain decisions than on other consequences of their decisions. b. decision-makers have complete information about all alternatives and their consequences before making decisions. c. individuals are better than groups at making decisions,‭ ‬especially under stressful conditions. d. decision-makers‭’ ‬knowledge about possible alternatives is always incomplete.

Answer 128

b. decision-makers have complete information about all alternatives and their consequences before making decisions. -CORRECT From the perspective of the rational-economic model, "rational" means considering all alternatives and their consequences before making a decision. As its name implies, the rational-economic model assumes that decisions are based on a rational process. a. decision-makers place more emphasis on the costs of certain decisions than on other consequences of their decisions. -Incorrect This is not an assumption of the rational-economic model. c. individuals are better than groups at making decisions,‭ ‬especially under stressful conditions. - Incorrect This is not an assumption of this model.‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. decision-makers‭’ ‬knowledge about possible alternatives is always incomplete. - Incorrect A criticism of the rational-economic model is that it does not take into account that a decision-maker's knowledge about alternatives is often incomplete.‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 129

A group's performance on a(n‭) __________ ‬task is limited by the performance of the least skilled or knowledgeable member of the group.‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. additive b. compensatory c. disjunctive d. conjunctive

Answer 129

d. conjunctive - CORRECT On a conjunctive task, the performance of the least competent member places a limit on the group's product or performance. Mountain climbing is an example of a conjunctive task. Group tasks may be categorized as additive, compensatory, disjunctive, or conjunctive. a. additive - Incorrect On additive tasks, the coordinated efforts of several people add together to form the group product. b. compensatory - Incorrect When performing a compensatory task, the average of the contributions of all members of the group represents the group product. c. disjunctive - Incorrect On a disjunctive task, the solution of one member of the group is chosen by the group to be the group’s solution. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 130

Donald Super’s‭ _____________ ‬graphically depicts the correspondence between an individual’s life roles and life stages.‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. life career rainbow b. life staircase c. mandala d. octagon

Answer 130

a. life career rainbow - CORRECT The life career rainbow relates the individual’s nine life roles (e.g., child, student, citizen) to five life stages (growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement). Super uses several pictures to illustrate elements of his life-space, life-span theory of career development. b. life staircase - Incorrect Super does not use a life staircase to depict components of his theory. c. mandala - Incorrect Super does not use a mandala to depict his theory. d. octagon - Incorrect Super does not use an octagon to illustrate elements of his theory. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 131

According to Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model,‭ "‬employee maturity‭" ‬is a function of the employee’s:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. stage of career development. b. personality. c. skills and willingness to assume responsibility. d. beliefs about the meaning and value of work.

Answer 131

c. skills and willingness to assume responsibility.- CORRECT Hersey and Blanchard distinguish between two aspects of employee maturity: Job maturity refers to the employee's knowledge and skills, while psychological maturity refers to the employee's self-confidence and willingness to assume responsibility. Hersey and Blanchard propose that a leader is most effective when his/her behavior matches the employee's level of maturity. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 132

The primary function of the psychology licensing board is ‬best described as:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. developing laws that govern the practice of psychology. b. providing sanctions for unethical and illegal behavior on the part of ‬ psychologists. ‬‬‬‬‬‬ c. protecting the public welfare. d. accrediting graduate programs in psychology.

Answer 132

c. protecting the public welfare. - CORRECT Psychology licensing boards protect the public by creating and enforcing regulations designed to ensure that psychologists meet minimal levels of competence. While the boards sanction psychologists for illegal and unethical behavior (answer b), this is only one of a number of functions that serve the overall goal of protecting public welfare. The primary goal of the psychology licensing board is the protection of the public. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 133

Which of the following statements best describes a researcher’s obligations regarding the use of animals in psychological research?‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Animals should never be used in research when alternative procedures are available. b. Animals should never be used in research if a research procedure will cause them pain or stress. c. Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research only when an alternative‭ (‬nonpainful‭) ‬procedure is unavailable and the use of the procedure is justified by the potential value of the study. d. Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research as long as it is minimized and the animal’s life is terminated as soon as is feasible.

Answer 133

c. Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research only when an alternative‭ (‬nonpainful‭) ‬procedure is unavailable and the use of the procedure is justified by the potential value of the study. -‬‬‬ CORRECT Standard 8.09(e) of the Ethics Code states that “psychologists use a procedure subjecting animals to pain, stress, or privation only when an alternative procedure is unavailable and the goal is justified by its prospective scientific, educational, or applied value.” Principle II.46 of the Canadian Code of Ethics provides a nearly identical guideline. Standard 8.09 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.46 of the Canadian Code of Ethics address the use of animals in research. (Ethics & Professional Issues Q - 5140)

Question 134

A former client owes you over ‬$600.00‭ ‬in therapy fees and you are considering using a collection agency to collect the money she owes you.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬you should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. decide not to do so because using a collection agency is prohibited by the ethical guidelines. b. do so only if you had informed the client at the beginning of therapy that you would do so if she did not pay her fees in a timely manner. c. contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date. d. use a collection agency only as a‭ “‬last resort.‭”

Answer 134

c. contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date. - CORRECT The use of a collection agency is explicitly addressed by Standard 6.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principles I.12 and III.14 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Psychologists always want to treat clients fairly, and the best policy would be to send a letter to the client informing her of your intent to use a collection agency prior to actually doing so. Informing the client is consistent with the provisions of Standard 6.04(e) of the Ethics Code, which states that if psychologists plan to use a collection agency or other legal means to collect unpaid fees, they “first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person an opportunity to make prompt payment.” a. decide not to do so because using a collection agency is prohibited by the ethical guidelines. - Incorrect Use of a collection agency is not prohibited by ethical guidelines. b. do so only if you had informed the client at the beginning of therapy that you would do so if she did not pay her fees in a timely manner. - Incorrect Informing the client of your policy at the beginning of therapy is a good idea but is not sufficient. d. use a collection agency only as a‭ “‬last resort.‭” - Incorrect This answer does not address your ethical obligation in this situation.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 135

Dr.‭ ‬Isaac Ibraham,‭ ‬a licensed psychologist,‭ ‬wants to expand his private practice. ‭ ‬When doing so,‭ ‬he should keep in mind that uninvited in-person solicitations for therapy clients are:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. always ethical. b. always unethical. c. unethical only when they provide potential clients with misleading or inaccurate information. d. unethical when the solicited individuals are susceptible to exploitation or undue influence.

Answer 135

d. unethical when the solicited individuals are susceptible to exploitation or undue influence. - CORRECT This issue is addressed by Standard 5.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Although uninvited in-person solicitation of therapy clients is not entirely prohibited by ethical guidelines, the guidelines limit the types of in-person solicitation that are acceptable. Standard 5.06 states that “psychologists do not engage … in uninvited in-person solicitation of business [from persons who] … are vulnerable to undue influence”; and Principle III.31 states that psychologists do not exploit others by, for example, “taking advantage of trust or dependency to frighten clients into receiving services,” which might occur when in-person solicitations are uninvited. c. unethical only when they provide potential clients with misleading or inaccurate information. - Incorrect Providing individuals with inaccurate or misleading information would be unethical, but this answer states that solicitation is unethical only in this circumstance, which is not the case. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 136

You have been seeing Leticia Lopez in therapy for several months.‭ ‬Leticia is‭ ‬24‭ ‬years old and lives with her widowed mother,‭ ‬who is paying for Leticia’s therapy. ‭ ‬One day,‭ ‬Leticia's mother calls and says she is very concerned about Leticia and wants to know what she can do to help Leticia feel better about herself. ‭ ‬Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez asks that you not tell Leticia that she has called.‭ ‬Your best course of action in this situation would be to:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. give Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez the specific advice she has requested. b. tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez to ask Leticia what she‭ (‬Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez‭) ‬can do to help her. ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ c. tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia. d. suggest that Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session.

Answer 136

c. tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia. - ‬‬‬‬‬ CORRECT This course of action is most consistent with the ethical guidelines and is also likely to be in the best interests of Leticia from a clinical perspective. Leticia is an adult and, even though her mother is paying for her therapy, this does not limit Leticia’s confidentiality. a. give Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez the specific advice she has requested. - Incorrect Discussing Leticia’s status with her mother without Leticia’s consent would represent a breach of confidentiality.‬‬‬‬‬‬ b. tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez to ask Leticia what she‭ (‬Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez‭) ‬can do to help her. - Incorrect This alternative does not explicitly violate ethical guidelines, but response c is a better answer. ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. suggest that Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session. - Incorrect This would not be the most appropriate course of action from either an ethical or clinical perspective.‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 137

Vicarious liability is most likely to be an issue when a psychologist is acting in which of the following capacities?‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. faculty member b. supervisor c. mentor d. therapist

Answer 137

b. supervisor - CORRECT A psychologist may have vicarious liability when his/her employee or supervisee engages in illegal behavior. Vicarious liability (also known as derivative and secondary liability) is a legal term that refers to a person’s responsibility for the actions of another person. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 138

A student participant in a research study involving matched pairs decides to withdraw from the study.‭ ‬The chief investigator (‬who is a licensed psychologist) ‬stresses to the student the importance of the student’s data to the study,‭ ‬but he insists that his data be withdrawn.‭ ‬The investigator should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. warn the student that withdrawal from the study will affect his course grade. b. remind the student that he signed an informed consent and cannot now request that his data be withdrawn. c. tell the student that his name will be removed from all data and include his data in the study. d. allow the student to withdraw from the study.

Answer 138

d. allow the student to withdraw from the study. - CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 8.02(a) states that research participants must be free to “decline to participate and to withdraw from the research once participation has begun”; and Principle I.24 similarly states that research participants must have “the option to refuse or withdraw at any time, without prejudice.” This issue is addressed by Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.24 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. warn the student that withdrawal from the study will affect his course grade. - Incorrect Simply warning the student of the negative consequences of withdrawing from the study would be coercive and, therefore, a violation of the ethical guidelines. b. remind the student that he signed an informed consent and cannot now request that his data be withdrawn. - Incorrect c. tell the student that his name will be removed from all data and include his data in the study. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 139

When consulting with a colleague about a‭ “‬therapeutic impasse‭” ‬you are having with a therapy client:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. it is always necessary to advise the client about the consultation. b. it is necessary to get a signed waiver of confidentiality from the client before discussing confidential information with the consultant. c. it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as only information that is relevant to the impasse is discussed. d. it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as the client's identity is not revealed.

Answer 139

d. it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as the client's identity is not revealed. - CORRECT Consultation is addressed in Standard 4.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles I.38 and 45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. This answer most accurately describes a psychologist’s ethical obligation when consulting with a colleague about a therapy client. a. it is always necessary to advise the client about the consultation. - Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe ethical requirements related to consultation. b. it is necessary to get a signed waiver of confidentiality from the client before discussing confidential information with the consultant. - Incorrect Obtaining a waiver of confidentiality is not necessary as long as the client's identity is not revealed. c. it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as only information that is relevant to the impasse is discussed. -Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe ethical requirements related to consultation. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 140

Pro bono services are: a. legal and ethical. b. legal but unethical. c. illegal but ethical. d. illegal and unethical.

Answer 140

a. legal and ethical. - CORRECT Pro bono services are not directly addressed by the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics. However, providing services for no compensation to serve the public good is certainly legal and ethical. In terms of ethical requirements, for example, pro bono services are consistent with General Principle A of the Ethics Code which states that psychologists “strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage.” Pro bono services are professional services that are provided for no compensation for the public good. b. legal but unethical. - Incorrect c. illegal but ethical. - Incorrect d. illegal and unethical. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz - 5159)

Question 141

Dr.‭ ‬Harold Hanson,‭ ‬a psychologist who heads the personnel committee at a mental health facility,‭ ‬recommends that a psychologist who has an unresolved charge of sexual harassment against him not be considered for a promotion.‭ ‬In terms of his ethical responsibilities,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Hanson:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. has acted ethically since sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited by the ethical guidelines. b. has acted ethically as long as he is willing to consider the psychologist for promotion if he is acquitted of the harassment charge. c. has acted ethically as long as his decision is consistent with the stated promotion policy of the mental health facility. d. has acted unethically by violating the requirements of the ethical guidelines regarding employment procedures.

Answer 141

d. has acted unethically by violating the requirements of the ethical guidelines regarding employment procedures. - CORRECT Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethic Code prohibits denying a person a promotion “based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint.” Note that this prohibition does not necessarily preclude doing so when a charge against a person has been proven (in the situation described in this question, the charge is unresolved). Although the Canadian Code of Ethics does not explicitly address this situation, Principle I.13 states that psychologists “abide by due process or other natural justice procedures for employment.” This situation is explicitly addressed by Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principle I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. a. has acted ethically since sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited by the ethical guidelines. - Incorrect b. has acted ethically as long as he is willing to consider the psychologist for promotion if he is acquitted of the harassment charge.- Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. has acted ethically as long as his decision is consistent with the stated promotion policy of the mental health facility. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 142

When there is a conflict between ethical obligations and legal requirements,‭ ‬a psychologist should ordinarily:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. choose the course of action that adheres to ethical obligations. b. choose the course of action that adheres to legal requirements. c. attempt to resolve the conflict but adhere to legal requirements when this is not possible. d. attempt to resolve the conflict but adhere to ethical obligations when this is not possible.

Answer 142

c. attempt to resolve the conflict but adhere to legal requirements when this is not possible. - CORRECT Standard 1.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code states that “if psychologists’ ethical responsibilities conflict with law, regulations, or other governing legal authority, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict. If the conflict is unresolvable via such means, psychologists may adhere to the requirements of the law, regulations, or other governing legal authority.” In other words, psychologists are not required to violate the law in order to fulfill their ethical obligations. This issue is addressed by Standard 1.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle IV.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 143

The‭ ‬1976‭ ‬Tarasoff decision established:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. the right of a parent to inspect and request modifications to his/her child’s school records. b. a psychologist’s‭ “‬duty to protect‭” ‬the intended victim of a therapy client. c. the‭ “‬80%‭ ‬rule‭” ‬as a standard for determining the fairness of a selection test or other employment procedure. d. a psychologist’s duty to report suspected or known cases of child abuse.

Answer 143

b. a psychologist’s‭ “‬duty to protect‭” ‬the intended victim of a therapy client. - CORRECT Although the original 1974 Tarasoff decision established a “duty to warn” the intended victim of a therapy client, that decision was superceded by the 1976 rehearing of the case which established a “duty to protect” the intended victim. Specifically, the 1976 ruling states that a psychotherapist has a duty to protect an intended victim of a therapy client by warning “the intended victim or others likely to apprise the victim of the danger, [notifying] the police, or … [taking] whatever other steps are reasonably necessary under the circumstances.” The Tarasoff ruling established that client-therapist confidentiality must be breached when a client is a danger to others. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 144

Dr.‭ ‬Marcos Manzetti uses a‭ “‬sliding scale‭” ‬that is based on a client’s current income to set his fees for therapy.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Manzetti’s practice is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. ethically acceptable since it serves the best interests of his clients. b. explicitly recommended in the ethical guidelines. c. ethically unacceptable since it treats clients inequitably. d. explicitly prohibited in the ethical guidelines.

Answer 144

a. ethically acceptable since it serves the best interests of his clients. - CORRECT Sliding scale fees for psychological services are consistent with the “spirit” of ethical guidelines as long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client. Sliding scale fees are not explicitly addressed in the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics b. explicitly recommended in the ethical guidelines. - Incorrect c. ethically unacceptable since it treats clients inequitably. - Incorrect d. explicitly prohibited in the ethical guidelines. Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 145

When serving as an expert witness in a child custody case,‭ ‬a psychologist's primary concern should be:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. what the child desires. b. maintaining a position of neutrality. c. the best interests of the child. d. the best interests of the person who hired the psychologist.

Answer 145

c. the best interests of the child. - CORRECT Regardless of who employed the psychologist, the child's best interests (which may or may not be consistent with the child’s desires) are a priority, and a psychologist should make this clear to all parties at the outset. In child custody cases, the child’s best interests are always the primary concern for the psychologist and the court. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 146

A couple brings their ten-year-old son to therapy at the suggestion of his school counselor who is concerned because the boy has started arguing with his teacher and getting into physical fights with his classmates.‭ ‬After several sessions with the boy and his family,‭ ‬you receive a letter from the school principal requesting information about the boy's condition,‭ ‬and a signed release from the boy's parents is included with the letter.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬you should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. refuse to release the records to anyone but a licensed psychologist. b. refuse to release the records to anyone but the boy's parents. c. release only that information you believe to be relevant to the school's concerns. d. release photocopies of your complete file on the boy and his family.

Answer 146

c. release only that information you believe to be relevant to the school's concerns. - CORRECT The most ethical course of action in this situation would be to release only information that is relevant to the school's role in the boy's treatment. Doing so would be consistent with the provisions of Standard 4.04(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code, which states that written and oral reports include “only information germane to the purpose for which the communication is made.” It is also consistent with the provisions of Principles I.37 and 39 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Since the boy’s parents have signed a release, you would ordinarily provide information to the school principal – but not necessarily all of the information that has been requested. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 147

Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines for the use of deception in research?‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Deception is prohibited in all circumstances. b. Deception is prohibited except when the purpose and design of the study require the use of unobtrusive measures. c. Deception is prohibited whenever it involves deceiving potential participants about aspects of the study that would affect their willingness to participate. d. Deception is acceptable only when participants have given “‬limited consent” ‬after being told about the general nature of the study.

Answer 147

c. Deception is prohibited whenever it involves deceiving potential participants about aspects of the study that would affect their willingness to participate. - CORRECT The use of deception in research is addressed in Standard 8.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles III.23, 24, and 27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. According to ethical guidelines, deception can be used in research only when it is justified by the study's potential value, when it has been determined that alternative procedures are not available, and when participants are not deceived about aspects of a study that would otherwise influence their willingness to participate in the study. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 148

Dr.‭ ‬Sam Solo is the only psychologist in a small town,‭ ‬and his son is enrolled in the town's only elementary school.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Solo receives a call from his son's teacher who says she would like to begin therapy with him.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Solo should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. tell the teacher that he is ethically prohibited from seeing her because to do so would constitute a multiple‭ (‬dual‭) ‬relationship. b. begin therapy with her and discuss the potential for conflicts during the initial session and,‭ ‬if necessary,‭ ‬in subsequent sessions. c. begin therapy with her but seek consultation if any problems arise. d. begin therapy with her but take special precautions to ensure that client confidentiality is maintained.

Answer 148

b. begin therapy with her and discuss the potential for conflicts during the initial session and,‭ ‬if necessary,‭ ‬in subsequent sessions. - CORRECT The ethical guidelines discourage multiple relationships whenever there is a potential for exploitation or loss of objectivity. The prohibition against multiple relationships is not absolute, however, so if Dr. Solo is the only psychologist in town, seeing the teacher and discussing the potential for conflict is the best choice. A better course of action might be to see if the teacher can be treated by a therapist in a neighboring town, but this option is not provided by any of the answers. Keep in mind for the licensing exam that the prohibition against multiple relationships is not absolute.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. begin therapy with her but take special precautions to ensure that client confidentiality is maintained. - Incorrect Confidentiality is not the only issue of concern in multiple relationship situations, so this is not the best answer of those given. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 149

Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines regarding sexual intimacies with ‬former therapy clients?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients under any circumstances. b. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients for at least one year following the termination of therapy. c. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients in certain circumstances (‬e.g.,‭ ‬when there is a risk of exploitation)‬. ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. Psychologists are‭ ‬not prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients.

Answer 149

c. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients in certain circumstances‭ (‬e.g.,‭ ‬when there is a risk of exploitation‭)‬. - CORRECT Standard 10.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients may be acceptable two years after termination of therapy when certain conditions are met (e.g., when there is no exploitation of the client), while Principle II.27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients must be avoided when “the power relationship reasonably could be expected to influence the client’s decision making.” The APA’s Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics both discourage psychologists from becoming sexually involved with former therapy clients. ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients under any circumstances. - Incorrect b. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients for at least one year following the termination of therapy. - Incorrect d. Psychologists are‭ ‬not prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 150

Dr.‭ ‬Jones, ‭ ‬a clinical psychologist,‭ ‬has been seeing Lisa L.‭ ‬in therapy for one month. ‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Jones considers Lisa to be a very attractive woman and finds himself having sexual fantasies about her.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Jones should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. recognize that such attraction is normal but proceed with caution. b. confess his attraction to Lisa and make it a topic for mutual examination in therapy. c. recognize that such attraction is inappropriate and refer Lisa to another therapist without explaining the reason to her. d. continue working with Lisa but consult with a colleague if he believes his attraction might be interfering with his objectivity.

Answer 150

d. continue working with Lisa but consult with a colleague if he believes his attraction might be interfering with his objectivity.- CORRECT The most professional and ethical behavior in this situation would be for Dr. Jones to recognize his feelings while realizing that, as a professional, he cannot act on those feelings. It would be acceptable, under these conditions, for Dr. Jones to continue working with Lisa unless his feelings begin to interfere with his ability to provide treatment to her. If this occurs, Dr. Jones should seek professional consultation to determine the best course of action. As with many exam questions that pose an ethical dilemma, the best answer to this one is the answer that describes the most conservative (cautious) action. a. recognize that such attraction is normal but proceed with caution. - Incorrect Attraction to a client is not necessarily "normal" and "proceeding with caution" may not be adequate. Therefore, response d is a better answer. b. confess his attraction to Lisa and make it a topic for mutual examination in therapy. - Incorrect Whether an attraction toward a client should ever be discussed with the client is a controversial issue among therapists. In most cases, however, it is not advisable. c. recognize that such attraction is inappropriate and refer Lisa to another therapist without explaining the reason to her. - Incorrect Referring Lisa to another therapist might be the appropriate action if Dr. Jones feels that his attraction to Lisa is interfering with his ability to treat her. The information given in the question, however, does not suggest that this is the case, and response d is a better answer. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 151

The Buckley Amendment establishes: a. the right of parents or legal guardians of a child to inspect the child’s school records. b. the right of patients to have access to their own hospital records. c. the requirement for employers to make reasonable modifications to tests for applicants with disabilities. d. the requirement for schools to provide a‭ “‬free appropriate public education‭” ‬to students with disabilities.

Answer 151

a. the right of parents or legal guardians of a child to inspect the child’s school records. - CORRECT Knowing that the Buckley Amendment is also known as the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The Buckley Amendment states that any school district may be denied federal funds if parents or other legal guardians of students or students who have reached the age of majority are not given access to the students’ school records. b. the right of patients to have access to their own hospital records. - Incorrect c. the requirement for employers to make reasonable modifications to tests for applicants with disabilities. - Incorrect d. the requirement for schools to provide a‭ “‬free appropriate public education‭” ‬to students with disabilities. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 152

Students in an introductory psychology class are required to participate in one of the university's ongoing research projects.‭ ‬This practice is:‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. ethical as long as students can choose to participate in an alternative activity instead. b. ethical as long as students are free to choose the research project they participate in. c. ethical as long as informed consents are obtained from students before they participate. d. clearly unethical.

Answer 152

a. ethical as long as students can choose to participate in an alternative activity instead. - CORRECT This issue is addressed by Standard 8.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.36 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 8.04(b), for example, states that “when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities.” b. ethical as long as students are free to choose the research project they participate in. - Incorrect c. ethical as long as informed consents are obtained from students before they participate. - Incorrect d. clearly unethical. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 153

Dr.‭ ‬Pavel Petrovich,‭ ‬a licensed psychologist,‭ ‬has been seeing a client in therapy for over fourteen months with no apparent change in the client's symptoms.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Petrovich should:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. advise the client that he is ethically obligated to terminate therapy. b. raise for discussion the possibility of termination and referral to another therapist. c. search the literature for discussions of similar cases that have been treated and reported by others. d. continue seeing the client since fourteen months is not an unusually long time for therapy to continue without a significant change in symptoms.

Answer 153

b. raise for discussion the possibility of termination and referral to another therapist. - CORRECT Termination of therapy is addressed in Standard 10.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. The action described in this answer is most consistent with ethical requirements. Standard 10.10(a), for example, states that “psychologists terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service,” and Standard 10.10(c) states that, prior to termination, psychologists “suggest alternative service providers as appropriate.” d. continue seeing the client since fourteen months is not an unusually long time for therapy to continue without a significant change in symptoms. - Incorrect In many cases, fourteen months is sufficiently long to consider the possibility of termination when a client has shown “no apparent change” in symptoms. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 154

Whenever her clients cancel an appointment with Dr.‭ ‬Penny Pincher within less than‭ ‬24‭ ‬hours of the appointment,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Pincher routinely bills the client’s insurance company for her full hourly fee. ‭ ‬This practice is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. illegal and unethical. b. illegal but ethical. c. legal and ethical. d. legal but unethical.

Answer 154

a. illegal and unethical. - CORRECT The practice described in this question represents insurance fraud, which is both illegal and unethical. Billing an insurance company for missed appointments would be acceptable only if the company agreed to this practice (which is, of course, unlikely). For questions about insurance coverage, always choose the answer that is most consistent with legal and ethical requirements. b. illegal but ethical. Incorrect c. legal and ethical. Incorrect d. legal but unethical. Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 155

In most situations,‭ ‬ the “‬holder of the privilege” ‬is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. the therapist. b. the client. c. the therapist and client jointly. d. the court.

Answer 155

b. the client. - CORRECT Privilege is a legal term that refers to “privileged communication.” Privilege is a legal requirement that prohibits (with some exceptions) confidential client information from being disclosed in legal proceedings. The client is the holder of the privilege – i.e., in most circumstances, only the client can determine when confidential information may be disclosed. c. the therapist and client jointly. - Incorrect d. the court. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 156

A graduate student’s dissertation chair,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬X,‭ ‬turns out to be of little help,‭ ‬and the student ends up obtaining advice and assistance from an associate professor,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Z. ‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬X does review the dissertation when it is completed and she is listed as the dissertation chair. ‭ ‬Several months later,‭ ‬the student decides to write an article for a professional journal that is based his dissertation research.‭ ‬In terms of publication credit:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. Dr.‭ ‬Z should be listed as first author if her contribution was substantial. b. Dr.‭ ‬Z should be listed as second author if her contribution warrants it. c. Dr. ‬X should be listed as second author since she was the student’s official dissertation chair. d. Dr.‭ ‬Y and Dr.‭ ‬Z should be listed as co-authors.

Answer 156

b. Dr.‭ ‬Z should be listed as second author if her contribution warrants it.- CORRECT Publication credit is addressed in Standard 8.12 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Of the responses given, this one is best because it addresses the need to consider Dr. Z’s contribution to the research project (and Dr. X’s lack of contribution). Ethical guidelines emphasize that it is a person's contribution, not his or her position or status, that determines publication credit. Moreover, when a research study is based on a student's dissertation, the student should ordinarily be listed as first author. (Ethics & Professional Issues Online - 5144)

Question 157

Dr.‭ ‬Carl Carlson is a licensed psychologist and professor in the psychology department at a large university.‭ ‬He is approached by a graduate student,‭ ‬Marla M.,‭ ‬age‭ ‬36,‭ ‬who asks him if he’d like to attend a baseball game on Friday night. ‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Carlson is divorced and finds Marla to be a very attractive woman. ‭ ‬In terms of ethical guidelines,‭ ‬if Dr.‭ ‬Carlson accepts Marla’s invitation,‭ ‬he will be:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. clearly violating ethical guidelines. b. acting ethically since he is not the one who initiated a potential relationship. c. acting ethically as long as Marla is a student in a department other than the psychology department and will not be taking any classes in the psychology department. d. acting ethically as long as he does not become sexually involved with Marla until she is no longer affiliated with the university.

Answer 157

c. acting ethically as long as Marla is a student in a department other than the psychology department and will not be taking any classes in the psychology department. - CORRECT Dating students is ordinarily prohibited or discouraged because doing so represents a multiple relationship. If Marla is a graduate student in another department, a relationship with her would not represent a multiple relationship because Dr. Carlson is not likely to be her instructor or advisor. a. clearly violating ethical guidelines.- Incorrect Dr. Carlson may or may not be violating ethical guidelines, depending on the circumstances (see response c). b. acting ethically since he is not the one who initiated a potential relationship. - Incorrect The fact that Marla initiated the potential relationship is not relevant. d. acting ethically as long as he does not become sexually involved with Marla until she is no longer affiliated with the university. - Incorrect As long as Dr. Carlson does not have “supervisory, evaluative, or other authority” over Marla, it would be acceptable for Dr. Carlson to become sexually involved with Marla (see Standards 3.08 and 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). (Note that personal relationships with students might be prohibited by university policy but that this question is asking about ethical guidelines.) (Ethics & Professional Issues)

Question 158

``` Long-term potentiation is believed to play a critical role in which of the following‭? A. emotional experience and expression B. hunger and thirst C. sexual behavior D. learning and memory ```

Answer 158

D. learning and memory (CORRECT) LTP is a widely accepted model for the synaptic changes that underlie learning and memory. Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a physiological process that involves physical modification of nerve synapses, especially at glutamate receptors in the hippocampus. (Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

Question 159

``` The Leiter International Performance Scale would be most useful for measuring the intelligence of: A. adults with visual impairments. B. children under the age of two. C. children with hearing impairments. D. adults who are mentally retarded. ```

Answer 159

C. children with hearing impairments - (CORRECT) A distinctive feature of the Leiter International Performance Scale is its non-reliance on verbal instructions or responses. Because of this feature, it is an appropriate test for individuals with hearing and language impairments.The Leiter International Performance Scale was developed as a culture-fair test for children ages 2 through 12. A. adults with visual impairments - Incorrect The Haptic Intelligence Scale can be used to assess the intelligence of individuals with visual impairments. B. children under the age of two - Incorrect Tests used to assess the intellectual development of infants under age 2 include the Bayley Scales of Infant Development and the Fagan Test of Intelligence. D. adults who are mentally retarded - Incorrect The intelligence of individuals with mental retardation is commonly assessed with the Stanford-Binet. (Psychological Assessment)

Question 160

``` ___________ is caused by‭ ‬an abnormal‭ ‬accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles. A. Spina bifida B. Meningitis C. Hydrocephalus D. Encephalitis ```

Answer 160

C. Hydrocephalus - (CORRECT) The accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles (usually as the result of an obstruction) causes hydrocephalus which results in increased intracranial pressure and can lead to brain damage. Knowing that hydrocephalus means “water head” would have helped you identify it as the correct answer to this question. A. Spina bifida - Incorrect Spinal bifida is a neural tube defect caused by a failure of the fetus’s spine to close appropriately during early development. B. Meningitis - Incorrect Meningitis is inflammation of the membranes of the brain and spinal cord and is a possible cause of acquired hydrocephalus. D. Encephalitis - Incorrect Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain that is usually caused by a virus. (Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

Question 161

``` A company president is concerned about the low motivation and satisfaction of her employees and,‭ ‬as a result,‭ ‬institutes a wage and bonus‭ (‬financial‭) ‬incentive program for all employees.‭ ‬Six months later,‭ ‬the president finds that her efforts have‭ ‬not increased the employees‭' ‬job motivation or satisfaction.‭ ‬This result is best predicted by which of the following theories‭? A. ERG theory B. expectancy theory C. equity theory D. two-factor theory ```

Answer 161

D. two-factor theory - (CORRECT) According to two-factor theory, lower-level needs such as physiological and safety needs have little effect on job satisfaction or motivation when they are fulfilled but produce dissatisfaction when they are unfulfilled. In contrast, higher-level needs have little effect on satisfaction and motivation when they are unfulfilled but increase satisfaction and motivation when they are fulfilled. Two-factor theory would, therefore, predict that financial incentives, which address lower-level needs, would not increase motivation and satisfaction. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic assumptions and predictions of the major theories of motivation. A. ERG theory - Incorrect ERG theory predicts that people have three basic needs – existence, relatedness, and growth. From the perspective of ERG theory, opportunities for increased compensation may help satisfy an individual’s needs and thereby lead to increased satisfaction and motivation. B. expectancy theory - Incorrect Expectancy theory predicts that valued outcomes lead to increased satisfaction and motivation. There is no information provided in the question suggesting that the wage and incentive program is not valued by employees, so this is not the best response. C. equity theory - Incorrect Equity theory predicts that motivation is related to the comparisons we make between our input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratios of workers performing similar jobs. There is no information given in this questions suggesting that this type of comparison is responsible for the employees’ lack of response to the wage and incentive program. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 162

``` Agraphia,‭ ‬acalculia,‭ ‬finger agnosia,‭ ‬and right-left confusion are symptoms of which of the following‭? A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease B. Addison’s disease C. Gerstmann’s syndrome D. Geschwind syndrome ```

Answer 162

C. Gerstmann’s syndrome - (CORRECT) These are the characteristic symptoms of Gerstmann’s syndrome. The four symptoms listed in this question are caused by damage to the left (dominant) angular gyrus, which is located at the point of convergence of the parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes. A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease - Incorrect Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare degenerative brain disease that usually leads to dementia and is characterized by memory loss, behavioral changes, loss of coordination, and visual disturbances. B. Addison’s disease - Incorrect Addison’s disease is due to a lower-than-normal production of cortisol by the adrenal glands. Its symptoms include weight loss, orthostatic hypotension, weakness, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation. D. Geschwind syndrome - Incorrect Gerschwind syndrome is a personality syndrome associated with temporal lobe epilepsy and is characterized by circumstantiality, hypergraphia, alterations in sexuality, emotional volatility, and, in some cases, hyperreligiosity. (Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

Question 163

``` __________ ‬memory is the aspect of memory that is involved in the recall of information acquired within the past few hours to days. A. Working B. Sensory C. Long-term D. Prospective ```

Answer 163

C. Long-term - (CORRECT) Information acquired in the past few hours to days would be part of recent long-term memory. The three-store model of memory divides it into three components: sensory, short-term, and long-term memory. A. Working - Incorrect Working memory is part of short-term memory and is responsible for the temporary storage and manipulation of information (e.g., remembering a phone number until you have dialed it). B. Sensory - Incorrect Sensory memory stores sensory information for very brief periods (up to several seconds). D. Prospective - Incorrect Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember” (e.g., to remember a future appointment). (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 164

``` An educational psychologist designs a screening test to identify underachieving first-‭ ‬and second-grade children who have a learning disability.‭ ‬The psychologist will probably be most concerned that her test has adequate‭ __________ ‬validity. A. content B. construct C. concurrent D. predictive ```

Answer 164

C. concurrent - (CORRECT) As noted above, concurrent validity (a type of criterion-related validity) is of concern when the purpose of a test is to estimate an individual's current status on some external criterion. Screening tests are usually used to estimate the results of a more thorough evaluation (the criterion) which, in this case, would be a more thorough diagnostic procedure. When a test developer wants to use a screening test to estimate or evaluate current behavior, he/she will be most interested in the test's concurrent validity. A. content - Incorrect Content validity is of most concern when test items are expected to be a representative sample of a particular content domain. B. construct - Incorrect Construct validity is of concern for tests designed to measure a hypothetical trait or construct (e.g., motivation, self-esteem). D. predictive - Incorrect The screening test is being used to estimate current status, not to predict future status. Therefore, concurrent validity would be of greater concern than would predictive validity. (Test Construction)

Question 165

A family therapist using the structural approach of Salvador Minuchin would most likely: A. clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment. B. work initially with the most differentiated family member. C. use a multiple-therapist team to prevent any one therapist from becoming‭ "‬triangulated‭" ‬into the family system. D. issue specific‭ "‬directives‭" ‬designed to counteract dysfunctional processes.

Answer 165

A. clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment.- (CORRECT) Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin, you may have been able to guess that structural therapy would be concerned with boundaries. Structural family therapists view family dysfunction as being related to boundaries that are too diffuse (enmeshed) or too rigid (disengaged). As its name implies, structural family therapy focuses on altering the family's structure in order to change the behavior patterns of family members. B. work initially with the most differentiated family member - Incorrect This is more characteristic of Bowen’s approach to family therapy. C. use a multiple-therapist team to prevent any one therapist from becoming‭ "‬triangulated‭" ‬into the family system - Incorrect Minuchin's approach does not involve the use of multiple-therapist teams. D. issue specific‭ "‬directives‭" ‬designed to counteract dysfunctional processes - Incorrect The issuance of directives is more characteristic of strategic family therapy than of structural family therapy. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 166

``` A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes and his colleagues‭ (‬1999‭) ‬indicates that instituting flexitime in an organization is likely to have the greatest beneficial effects on which of the following‭? A. absenteeism B. self-rated performance C. satisfaction with work schedule D. productivity ```

Answer 166

A. absenteeism - (CORRECT) B. B. Baltes et al. report an average effect size of .93 for absenteeism [Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work-related criteria, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 496-513, 1999]. Unfortunately, the research on the effects of flexitime and other alternative work schedules has produced inconsistent results. However, this question is asking about a specific meta-analysis of the research. B. self-rated performance - Incorrect These investigators obtained an average effect size of .04 for self-rated performance. C. satisfaction with work schedule - Incorrect The average effect size for satisfaction with work schedule was .32. D. productivity - Incorrect The average effect size for productivity was .45. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 167

``` A college freshman obtains a score of‭ ‬150‭ ‬on his English final exam,‭ ‬a score of‭ ‬100‭ ‬on his math exam,‭ ‬a score of‭ ‬55‭ ‬on his chemistry exam,‭ ‬and a score of‭ ‬30‭ ‬on his history exam.‭ ‬The means and standard deviations for these tests are,‭ ‬respectively,‭ ‬125‭ ‬and‭ ‬20‭ ‬for the English exam,‭ ‬90‭ ‬and‭ ‬10‭ ‬for the math exam,‭ ‬45‭ ‬and‭ ‬5‭ ‬for the chemistry exam,‭ ‬and‭ ‬30‭ ‬and‭ ‬5‭ ‬for the history exam.‭ ‬Based on this information,‭ ‬you can conclude that the young man's test performance was best on which exam‭? A. English B. math C. chemistry D. history ```

Answer 167

C. chemistry - (CORRECT) In this case, the student's English score is equivalent to a z-score of +1.25, his math score is equivalent to a z-score of +1.0, his chemistry score is equivalent to a z-score of +2.0, and his history score is equivalent to a z-score of 0. Therefore, the student obtained the highest score on the chemistry test. The raw scores on different tests may be compared by converting the scores to z-scores, which is done by subtracting the mean from the examinee’s raw score to calculate a deviation score and then dividing the deviation score by the standard deviation. (Test Construction)

Question 168

``` A key accomplishment of Piaget's preoperational stage is the emergence of: A. conservation. B. the object concept. C. formal operations. D. the symbolic function. ```

Answer 168

D. the symbolic function - (CORRECT) The ability for symbolic representation, which is necessary for language use, symbolic play, and deferred imitation, develops during the preoperational stage, which is characteristic of children aged 2 through 7. According to Piaget, the preoperational stage is characterized by the development of the symbolic function, which permits language use, symbolic play, and deferred imitation. A. conservation - Incorrect Conservation refers to the knowledge that physical properties of objects remain invariant with transformations that do not involve addition or subtraction. Such knowledge is acquired between the ages of 7 and 11 years during the concrete operational period. B. the object concept - Incorrect The object concept develops during the sensorimotor stage, which is characteristic of children from birth to two years. C. formal operations - Incorrect Formal operations are characteristic of the final (formal operational) stage of cognitive development. (Lifespan Development)

Question 169

``` A therapist instructs a client who suffers from insomnia to polish his hardwood floors for at least two hours whenever he wakes up during the night.‭ ‬Apparently this therapist is familiar with the work of: A. Luigia Boscolo. B. Milton Erickson. C. Salvador Minuchin. D. Marquis de Sade. ```

Answer 169

B. Milton Erickson - (CORRECT) For the exam, you should have paradoxical techniques and ordeals associated with Milton Erickson and Jay Haley (who was strongly influenced by Erickson). The task described in the question is an example of an "ordeal." A. Luigia Boscolo - Incorrect Luigi Boscolo is affiliated with the Milan systemic school of family therapy, which is not associated with the use of ordeals. C. Salvador Minuchin - Incorrect The use of ordeals is more associated with Erickson and Haley than with Minuchin. D. Marquis de Sade - Incorrect (Clinical Psychology)

Question 170

``` Female applicants consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test than do male applicants.‭ ‬However,‭ ‬when they are hired,‭ ‬females perform as well on the job as do males.‭ ‬This situation illustrates which of the following‭? A. differential validity B. differential selection C. adverse impact D. unfairness ```

Answer 170

D. unfairness - (CORRECT) The situation described in the question illustrates the EEOC’s definition of unfairness: “When members of one race, sex, or ethnic group characteristically obtain lower scores on a selection procedure than members of another group, and the differences in scores are not reflected in differences in a measure of job performance, use of the selection procedure may unfairly deny opportunities to members of the group that obtains the lower scores” (Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, Section 14.B.8.a). This is a difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer through the process of elimination. A. differential validity- Incorrect Differential validity occurs when a predictor has different validity coefficients for members of different groups. No information is given about the validity coefficients for males and females, so you cannot conclude that the selection test has differential validity. B. differential selection - Incorrect Differential selection is a threat to the internal validity of a research study and is not relevant to this situation. C. adverse impact - Incorrect The situation described in the question could lead to adverse impact if females are not hired because of their low scores on the predictor. However, the question does not state that the hiring rate for females is lower than the rate for males, so this is not the best response. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 171

``` The belief that a child's misbehavior has one of four goals‭ — ‬i.e.,‭ ‬attention,‭ ‬revenge,‭ ‬power,‭ ‬or to display inadequacy‭ — ‬is most consistent with: A. Beck’s cognitive-behavioral therapy. B. Adler’s individual psychology. C. Perls’s Gestalt therapy. D. Mahler’s object relations theory. ```

Answer 171

B. Adler’s individual psychology - (CORRECT) Dreikurs, an associate of Adler’s, described the misbehavior of children as attempts to belong, which reflect faulty beliefs about what it takes to belong (e.g., “I belong only when I'm the center of attention”). Adler believed that all behaviors are goal-directed and purposeful. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 172

When the kappa statistic for a measure is‭ ‬.90,‭ ‬this indicates that the measure: A. has adequate inter-rater reliability. B. has adequate internal consistency reliability. C. has low criterion-related validity. D. has low incremental validity.

Answer 172

A. has adequate inter-rater reliability - (CORRECT) Reliability coefficients range from 0 to +1.0, so a coefficient of .90 indicates good reliability. Knowing that the kappa statistic (also known as the kappa coefficient) is a measure of inter-rater reliability would have enabled you to identify the correct response to this question. B. has adequate internal consistency reliability - Incorrect The kappa statistic is a measure of inter-rater reliability, not internal consistency reliability. C. has low criterion-related validity - Incorrect D. has low incremental validity - Incorrect (Test Construction)

Question 173

For a Gestalt therapist,‭ ‬a primary goal of treatment is to help the client: A. integrate the present with his/her past and future. B. integrate the various aspects of the self. C. develop a‭ “‬success identity.‭” D. develop a‭ “‬healthy style of life.‭”

Answer 173

B. integrate the various aspects of the self - CORRECT A primary goal of gestalt therapy is to integrate all aspects of the self; i.e., one’s feelings, thoughts, and actions. For the exam, you want to know that, in Gestalt therapy, the primary goals are increased awareness and integration of all aspects of the self. A. integrate the present with his/her past and future - Incorrect In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on the present. In fact, its founder, Fritz Perls, argued that “nothing exists but the now.” C. develop a‭ “‬success identity.‭” - Incorrect This is the goal of reality therapy. D. develop a‭ “‬healthy style of life.‭” - Incorrect This sounds more like Adlerian therapy. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 174

Dr.‭ ‬La-Keysha Leonard,‭ ‬a licensed psychologist,‭ ‬has been seeing a prison inmate in group therapy for several months and is asked by the parole board to evaluate the inmate to assist with their decision regarding his parole.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Leonard should: A. agree to evaluate the inmate. B. agree to evaluate the inmate only if she believes she can do so objectively and without bias. C. agree to do so only if she is allowed to explain the purpose of the evaluation and the limits on confidentiality to the inmate. D. refuse to evaluate the inmate for the purpose of parole.

Answer 174

D. refuse to evaluate the inmate for the purpose of parole - (CORRECT) This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines prohibiting psychologists from becoming involved in multiple relationships that might impair their objectivity and with the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists, which warns psychologists about the need for caution in dual relationships and roles in forensic settings (the actions described in answer a, b, and c do not constitute sufficient caution). The situation described in this question is addressed by general ethical guidelines for multiple relationships and in the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists. (Ethics and Professional Issues)

Question 175

``` People rely on which of the following to determine how to act in specific situations‭ (‬e.g.,‭ ‬at a faculty meeting,‭ ‬at a wedding,‭ ‬or in a restaurant‭)? A. heuristics B. prototypes C. scripts D. life space ```

Answer 175

C. scripts - (CORRECT) Scripts (also known as event schemas) are a type of schema that consist of a sequence of events. Scripts provide the information needed to determine the appropriate behaviors for familiar events or situations. Researchers interested in social knowledge distinguish between several cognitive phenomena including schemas and prototypes. A. heuristics - Incorrect Heuristics are “mental shortcuts” that help us process complex information. B. prototypes - Incorrect Prototypes are similar to stereotypes and consist of a set of characteristics that are commonly associated with a particular category of people, objects, or events. D. life space - Incorrect Life space is a key concept in Lewin’s (1951) field theory and consists of the individual and his/her environment. (Social Psychology)

Question 176

``` The relationship of preadolescent siblings is best described as: A. distant/aloof. B. conflictual/hostile. C. competitive and cooperative. D. close and conflictual. ```

Answer 176

D. close and conflictual - (CORRECT) The research indicates that sibling relationships often involve contradictions, but the combination of closeness and conflict seems to be particularly characteristic of siblings during preadolescence. Even if you’re unfamiliar with the research, it makes sense that preadolescent relationships (or any relationship for that matter!) would involve a mixture of positive and negative aspects. (Lifespan Development)

Question 177

You would use the Solomon four-group design in order to: A. eliminate carryover effects. B. reduce demand characteristics. C. evaluate the impact of pretesting. D. evaluate the effects of history and maturation.

Answer 177

C. evaluate the impact of pretesting - (CORRECT) The purpose of the Solomon four-group design is to evaluate the impact of pretesting on a study’s internal and external validity. The Solomon four-group design combines the pretest-posttest control group design with the posttest only control group design. (Statistics and Research Design)

Question 178

During the second stage of Kohlberg’s preconventional level of moral development,‭ ‬children obey rules because: A. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws. B. ‭"‬everyone else is doing it.‭" C. doing so helps them avoid punishment. D.doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs.

Answer 178

D.doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs - (CORRECT) During the instrumental hedonism stage, children consider the correct action to be the one that best satisfies their own personal needs. To illustrate this stage, Kohlberg described a 10-year old boy who, when asked what it means to be a good son, replied, "Be good to your father and he will be good to you." The preconventional level of moral development consists of two stages: punishment and obedience and instrumental hedonism. A. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws - Incorrect This is characteristic of the second stage of the conventional level. B. ‭"‬everyone else is doing it.‭" - Incorrect This doesn’t describe the second stage of the preconventional level. C. doing so helps them avoid punishment - Incorrect This is characteristic of the initial punishment and obedience stage of the preconventional level. (Lifespan Development)

Question 179

``` On the WAIS-III,‭ ‬a Verbal IQ that is substantially‭ ‬higher than the Performance IQ is most suggestive of which of the following‭? A. a learning disability B. low socioeconomic status C. delinquency D. depression ```

Answer 179

D. depression - (CORRECT) This is the only answer given that describes a condition that is associated with a higher Verbal IQ score. The conditions listed in answers a, b, and c are associated with a higher Performance IQ score. On the WAIS-III, a Verbal-Performance discrepancy of at least 12 points is statistically significant, but Kaufman and Lichtenberger (1999) suggest that a discrepancy be considered clinically significant only when it is at least 17 points. (Psychological Assessment)

Question 180

``` Job satisfaction is an accurate predictor of: A. both job performance and health. B. job performance but not health. C. health but not job performance. D. neither job performance nor health. ```

Answer 180

C. health but not job performance - (CORRECT) The research has found that job satisfaction is a good predictor of longevity and mental and physical health. However, the studies have consistently found low correlations between job satisfaction and performance. For the exam, you want to be familiar with factors that do and do not correlate with job satisfaction. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 181

The major advantage of using a forced-choice method as an employee performance appraisal technique is that: A. it is easy to develop and use. B. it provides specific information for employee feedback. C. it helps alleviate leniency and other biases. D. it provides an objective measure of job performance.

Answer 181

C. it helps alleviate leniency and other biases (CORRECT) This technique was developed specifically to reduce rater biases, and there is some evidence that it accomplishes this goal. When using the forced-choice technique, the rater chooses the behavior from two or more behaviors that best describe the employee, with behaviors being paired or grouped so that they are similar in terms of social desirability. A. it is easy to develop and use - Incorrect In fact, a drawback of this technique is the difficulty of its development. B. it provides specific information for employee feedback - Incorrect The forced-choice technique is considered more useful for obtaining an overall rating of performance than for obtaining the information needed to give employees feedback about their performance. D. it provides an objective measure of job performance - Incorrect The forced-choice technique is a subjective measure of job performance. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 182

The correction for attenuation formula is used to measure the impact of increasing: A. a test’s reliability on its validity. B. a test’s validity on its reliability. C. the number of test items on the test’s validity. D. the number of test items on the test’s reliability.

Answer 182

A. a test’s reliability on its validity - (CORRECT) The correction for attenuation formula is used to determine the impact of increasing the reliability of the predictor (test) and/or the criterion on the predictor’s validity. For the exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the purpose of several formulas including the correction for attenuation formula. B. a test’s validity on its reliability - Incorrect C. the number of test items on the test’s validity - Incorrect D. the number of test items on the test’s reliability - Incorrect (Test Construction)

Question 183

``` Parkinson’s disease is caused by a progressive degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the: A. suprachiasmatic nucleus. B. insular cortex. C. substantia nigra. D. entorhinal cortex. ```

Answer 183

C. substantia nigra - (CORRECT) Knowing the substantia nigra is involved in the control of movement would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra results in the motor symptoms associated with this disorder. Although the cause of Parkinson’s disease is still unknown, it has been linked to the degeneration of nerves cells in specific regions of the brain. A. suprachiasmatic nucleus - Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is located in the hypothalamus and is involved the regulation of the body’s circadian rhythms. B. insular cortex - Incorrect The insular cortex is involved in speech and in the processing of autonomic and sensory information. D. entorhinal cortex - Incorrect The entorhinal cortex plays a role (in conjunction with the hippocampus) in memory consolidation and is one of the first areas of the brain to be affected by Alzheimer’s disease. (Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

Question 184

``` In terms of training program evaluation,‭ ‬Kirkpatrick‭ (‬1976‭) ‬contends that‭ _______ ‬criteria are the most important criteria to evaluate but are often the most difficult to develop and,‭ ‬therefore,‭ ‬the most infrequently used. A. learning B. behavioral C. reaction D. results ```

Answer 184

D. results - (CORRECT) Results criteria are the fourth level in Kirkpatrick’s model and assess the value of the training program in terms of the organization’s goals. According to Kirkpatrick, the higher the level of evaluation, the more difficult and costly the evaluation process are but the more significant the information. Kirkpatrick (1976) distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation – reaction, learning, behavioral, and results. A. learning - Incorrect Learning criteria measure how much trainees have learned. B. behavioral - Incorrect Behavioral criteria assess participants’ change in performance once they return to the job. C. reaction - Incorrect Reaction criteria assess participants’ subjective reactions to the training program. Reaction criteria represent the first level in Kirkpatrick’s model and provide the least useful information. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 185

``` The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a: A. measure of psychomotor skills. B. measure of clerical skills. C. brief measure of cognitive ability. D. brief interest inventory. ```

Answer 185

C. brief measure of cognitive ability - (CORRECT) The Wonderlic Personnel Test assesses cognitive ability (general intelligence) and is used in organizations as a selection test. The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a 12-minute, 50-item exam. (Psychological Assessment)

Question 186

``` Children begin to‭ ‬deliberately and‭ ‬regularly use rehearsal,‭ ‬elaboration,‭ ‬and organization as memory strategies by‭ _____ ‬years of age. A. 2‭ ‬to‭ ‬3 B. 5‭ ‬to‭ 7 C. 9‭ ‬to‭ ‬10 D. 13‭ ‬to‭ ‬15 ```

Answer 186

C. 9‭ ‬to‭ ‬10 - (CORRECT) The research has shown that the deliberate and consistent use of the memory strategies listed in the question begins at about 9 to 10 years of age. The consistent and deliberate use of memory strategies does not occur until age 9 or 10. A. 2‭ ‬to‭ ‬3 - Incorrect B. 5‭ ‬to‭ 7 - Incorrect Preschoolers sometimes use memory strategies but do so in non-deliberate and often ineffective ways. In addition, children of this age can be taught to use memory strategies for a specific task but do not apply them to new tasks. D. 13‭ ‬to‭ ‬15 - Incorrect The use of these strategies continues to be “fine-tuned” during adolescence. (Lifespan Development)

Question 187

Heteroscedasticity in a scattergram suggests that: A. the relationship between the predictor and criterion cannot be described by a straight line. B. there is a restriction of range of scores on the predictor and/or the criterion. C. the variability‭ (‬range‭) ‬of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor. D. there is a statistically significant correlation between the predictor and criterion.

Answer 187

C. the variability‭ (‬range‭) ‬of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor - (CORRECT) Heteroscedasticity is occurring when variability of scores on the criterion differs for different scores on the predictor – e.g., when there is a narrow range of criterion scores for low and high predictor scores but a wide range of criterion scores for moderate predictor scores. “Heteroscedasticity” means unequal variability. A. the relationship between the predictor and criterion cannot be described by a straight line - Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram. B. there is a restriction of range of scores on the predictor and/or the criterion - Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram. D. there is a statistically significant correlation between the predictor and criterion - Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram. (Statistics and Research Design)

Question 188

``` In terms of Hofstede’s‭ (‬1980‭) ‬five cultural dimensions,‭ ‬the‭ ‬United States scores at the top of the scale on: A. individualism. B. individualism and power distance. C. power distance and masculinity. D. uncertainty avoidance. ```

Answer 188

A. individualism - (CORRECT) Even if you’re unfamiliar with Hofstede’s research, you probably could have guessed that the United States scores high on individualism. Hofstede’s five cultural dimensions are power distance, uncertainty avoidance, individualism, masculinity, and long-term orientation. B. individualism and power distance - Incorrect Although the U.S. is high on individualism, it is low on power distance. C. power distance and masculinity - Incorrect The U.S. is low on power distance and moderate to high on masculinity. D. uncertainty avoidance - Incorrect The U.S. is low to moderate on uncertainty avoidance. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 189

``` ‭___________ ‬is‭ ‬a communication disorder that is‭ ‬characterized by difficulties in regulating the rate,‭ ‬rhythm,‭ ‬pitch,‭ ‬and loudness of speech. A. Dysarthria B. Paraphasia C. Dysprosody D. Adynamia ```

Answer 189

C. Dysprosody - (CORRECT) Dysprosody is a disruption in speech melody and rhythm and is characteristic of Broca’s aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias. Although dysprosody has traditionally been linked to right hemisphere damage, its presence in Broca’s aphasia suggests that prosody is also governed, to some degree, by the left hemisphere. The pattern of stress and intonation in speech is referred to as prosody. A. Dysarthria - Incorrect Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder that produces problems related to articulation. B. Paraphasia - Incorrect Paraphasia is a type of aphasia that involves the use of unintended syllables, words, or phrases (e.g., unintentionally substituting one word for another). D. Adynamia - Incorrect Adynamia is a type of aphasia involving difficulty in initiating speech. (Physiological Psychology / Psychopharmacology )

Question 190

A psychologist is subpoenaed to testify at a deposition about a current therapy client. ‭ ‬This means that the psychologist: A. must testify about the client as requested. B. must appear at the deposition as requested. C. must provide the requested documents. D. can expect to receive a court order within‭ ‬60‭ ‬days.

Answer 190

B. must appear at the deposition as requested - (CORRECT) As noted by R. I. Simon (Clinical psychiatry and the law, Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Publishing, 2003), a subpoena by itself is not "proper legal compulsion" and only requires the psychologist to appear at a deposition or trial, not to testify. After receiving a subpoena, a psychologist should determine if the client has signed a release; if not, the psychologist should assert the privilege rather than provide the information requested in the subpoena when he/she appears at the deposition. A subpoena is a legal document that requests the recipient to appear and testify at legal proceeding. (Ethics and Professional Issues)

Question 191

``` According to Gregory Herek‭ (‬1992‭)‬,‭ ‬violence against gays and lesbians is attributable to: A. heterosexism. B. homophobia. C. bigotry. D. stigmatization. ```

Answer 191

``` A. heterosexism - (CORRECT) Herek views violence against gays and lesbians to be due to a combination of psychological (individual) and cultural heterosexism. Gregory Herek defines heterosexism is an “ideological system that denies, denigrates, and stigmatizes among nonheterosexual forms of behavior, identity, relationships, or community” (p. 150). [Psychological heterosexism and anti-gay violence: The social psychology of bigotry. In G. M. Herek & K. T. Berrill, Hate crimes: Confronting violence against lesbians and gay men (pp. 149-169), Newbury Park, Sage, 1992]. B. homophobia - Incorrect C. bigotry - Incorrect D. stigmatization - Incorrect (Clinical Psychology) ```

Question 192

With regard to attitude change,‭ ‬inoculation is useful for: A. increasing a person’s resistance to persuasion. B. reducing a communicator''s anxiety prior to delivering a message to a hostile audience. C. distracting a person from a communicator''s message. D.ensuring that attitude change represents internalization rather than mere compliance.

Answer 192

A. increasing a person’s resistance to persuasion - (CORRECT) Inoculation has been shown to be an effective method for increasing an individual's resistance to persuasion. McGuire found, for example, that it is more effective than providing the individual only with arguments that support his/her initial position.The concept of inoculation (McGuire, 1969) was derived from the medical model and is based on the assumption that a person will be better able to resist a persuasive communication when he/she has been "inoculated" against it. Inoculation involves providing weak arguments against a position and counterarguments refuting those arguments. B. reducing a communicator''s anxiety prior to delivering a message to a hostile audience - Incorrect This is not the goal of inoculation. C. distracting a person from a communicator''s message - Incorrect Distraction is associated with increased persuasiveness when a listener is initially opposed to a message and decreased persuasiveness when a listener is initially in favor of a message. Inoculation does not involve distraction. D.ensuring that attitude change represents internalization rather than mere compliance - Incorrect This is not a goal of inoculation. (Social Psychology)

Question 193

``` A functional analysis is conducted in order to identify‭ _______ ‬variables. A. controlling B. moderator C. dependent D. organismic ```

Answer 193

A. controlling - (CORRECT) Functional analysis is used to identify the factors (antecedents and consequences) that are controlling the target behavior so that those factors can be altered.The term “functional analysis” is associated with behavioral assessment and involves identifying the antecedents and consequences of the target behavior. B. moderator - Incorrect C. dependent - Incorrect D. organismic - Incorrect (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 194

``` Research on EMDR‭ (‬eye movement desensitization and reprocessing‭) ‬suggests that its effectiveness for alleviating the symptoms of PTSD is attributable to which of the following‭? A. imaginal exposure B. higher-order conditioning C. relaxation training D. fixed visual attention ```

Answer 194

A. imaginal exposure - (CORRECT) Studies that used a dismantling strategy or compared EMDR to exposure-based treatments have generally confirmed that the essential component of EMDR is exposure to the feared stimulus in imagination rather than to lateral eye movements. See, e.g., S. Taylor et al., Comparative efficacy, speed, and adverse effects of three PTSD treatments: Exposure therapy, EMDR, and relaxation, Journal of Clinical and Consulting Psychology, 2003, 72, 330-338. EMDR was originally developed as a treatment for PTSD and combines rapid lateral eye movements (which purportedly trigger adaptive neurophysiological information-processing mechanisms) with exposure and other techniques. B. higher-order conditioning - Incorrect C. relaxation training - Incorrect D. fixed visual attention - Incorrect (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 195

Prochaska and‭ ‬DiClemente’s‭ (‬1992‭) ‬transtheoretical model is based on the assumption that an intervention is most effective when: A. it matches the client’s stage of change. B. it matches the client’s diagnosis and symptom severity. C. the therapist adopts the behavioral and affective style of the client. D. the client sets his/her own therapy goals and evaluates his/her own progress.

Answer 195

A. it matches the client’s stage of change - CORRECT The transtheoretical model is based on the premise that interventions are most effective when they match the client’s stage of change. For example, clients in the precontemplation stage benefit most from information that increases their knowledge and motivation to change; while those in the preparation stage need assistance in identifying appropriate change strategies. Knowing that the transtheoretical model is also known as the stages of change model would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. B. it matches the client’s diagnosis and symptom severity - Incorrect C. the therapist adopts the behavioral and affective style of the client - Incorrect D. the client sets his/her own therapy goals and evaluates his/her own progress. - Incorrect (Clinical Psychology)

Question 196

``` The‭ ____________ ‬provides information on the four cognitive abilities identified by Luria‭ (‬1980‭) – ‬i.e.,‭ ‬planning,‭ ‬attention,‭ ‬simultaneous processing,‭ ‬and sequential processing. A. Slosson Intelligence Test Primary B. Cognitive Assessment System C. Kuhlman-Anderson Test D. Woodcock Johnson III ```

Answer 196

B. Cognitive Assessment System - CORRECT The Cognitive Assessment System assesses basic cognitive processes that are central to learning. It is based on the PASS model of intelligence that distinguishes between the four cognitive functions identified by Luria (1980) – planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing. For the licensing exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the purpose of the tests listed in the answers to this question. A. Slosson Intelligence Test Primary - Incorrect The Slosson Intelligence Test Primary is a screening test of intelligence for children aged 2 through 7 years, 11 months. It provides Verbal and Performance Scores and a Total Standard Score. C. Kuhlman-Anderson Test - Incorrect The Kuhlman-Anderson Test is a group intelligence test for children in grades K through 12. D. Woodcock Johnson III - Incorrect The Woodcock Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Ability assess general and specific cognitive abilities and are based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of intelligence. (Psychological Assessment)

Question 197

You have been seeing Leticia Lopez in therapy for several months.‭ ‬Leticia is‭ ‬24‭ ‬years old and lives with her widowed mother,‭ ‬who is paying for Leticia’s therapy. ‭ ‬One day,‭ ‬Leticia's mother calls and says she is very concerned about Leticia and wants to know what she can do to help Leticia feel better about herself. ‭ ‬Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez asks that you not tell Leticia that she has called.‭ ‬Your best course of action in this situation would be to: A. Give Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez the specific advice she has requested. B. Tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez to ask Leticia what she‭ (‬Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez‭) ‬can do to help her. C. Tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia. D. suggest that Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session.

Answer 197

C. Tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia - CORRECT This course of action is most consistent with the ethical guidelines and is also likely to be in the best interests of Leticia from a clinical perspective. Leticia is an adult and, even though her mother is paying for her therapy, this does not limit Leticia’s confidentiality. A. Give Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez the specific advice she has requested - Incorrect Discussing Leticia’s status with her mother without Leticia’s consent would represent a breach of confidentiality. B. Tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez to ask Leticia what she‭ (‬Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez‭) ‬can do to help her - Incorrect This alternative does not explicitly violate ethical guidelines, but response c is a better answer. D. suggest that Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session - Incorrect This would not be the most appropriate course of action from either an ethical or clinical perspective. (Ethics and Professional Issues)

Question 198

The highest levels of learning and performance are usually associated with: a. low levels of arousal. b. moderate levels of arousal. c. high levels of arousal. d. variability in levels of arousal.

Answer 198

b. moderate levels of arousal - CORRECT Even if you’re not familiar with the Yerkes-Dodson law (which proposes that learning and performance are curvilinearly related to arousal), you may have been able to identify the correct answer on the basis of common sense – i.e., most people perform best when their level of arousal is somewhere between “none” and “a lot.” Moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of learning and performance. This is particularly true when moderate levels of arousal are combined with moderate task difficulty. a. low levels of arousal - Incorrect A low level of arousal can lead to boredom which can negatively affect learning and performance. c. high levels of arousal - Incorrect A high level of arousal can lead to stress and fatigue, which can negatively affect learning and performance. d. variability in levels of arousal - Incorrect Varying levels of arousal would not be optimal for learning and performance. (Learning Theory & CBT)

Question 199

When using the Premack Principle to modify a behavior,‭ ‬the reinforcer is:‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. applied intermittently. b. a generalized conditioned reinforcer. c. a behavior that occurs frequently. d. a stimulus that naturally elicits the desired behavior.

Answer 199

c. a behavior that occurs frequently - CORRECT The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement. When using the Premack Principle, a high-frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior. The Premack Principle is also known as “Grandma's Rule” – e.g., “you can go out and play once you've cleaned your room.” (Learning Theory & CBT)

Question 200

Samuel S.,‭ ‬age‭ ‬43,‭ ‬says,‭ "‬Even though I've just been given a bonus at work,‭ ‬I feel like I’m about to be fired.‭” ‬As defined by Aaron Beck,‭ ‬Samuel is exhibiting which of the following cognitive distortions?‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ a. mustabatory thinking b. polarized thinking c. personalization d. arbitrary inference

Answer 200

d. arbitrary inference - CORRECT The phenomena listed in the answers to this question are all cognitive distortions that have been identified as contributors to maladaptive behavior. As defined by Beck, arbitrary inference involves drawing a conclusion that is made in the absence of supporting evidence or in the presence of contradictory evidence. a. mustabatory thinking - Incorrect “Mustabatory thinking” is a term used by Ellis and refers to the belief that certain conditions must be met – e.g., “I must be liked by everyone; if not, I’m a terrible person.” b. polarized thinking - Incorrect Polarized (dichotomous) thinking involves seeing things as either “black or white.” c. personalization - Incorrect Pesonalization involves mistakenly viewing oneself as the source of an event that actually had another cause. (Learning Theory & CBT)

Question 201

``` From a behavioral perspective,‭ ‬phobic reactions to benign objects or events are acquired when those objects or events become associated with a stimulus that naturally produces a fear response.‭ ‬In other words,‭ ‬phobic reactions are due to: A. negative reinforcement. B. negative punishment. C. stimulus generalization. D. classical conditioning. ```

Answer 201

D. classical conditioning - CORRECT According to the Pavlovian (classical conditioning) explanation for phobias, a fear response to a previously neutral object or event is a classically conditioned response in which fear is attached to the neutral stimulus (the CS) through its pairing with a stimulus that naturally elicits fear (the US). There are several explanations for the phobic reactions. The explanation provided in this question is consistent with the Pavlovian view. (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies

Question 202

Which of the following is an example of anterograde amnesia? A. As the result of a head injury he received in a car accident,‭ ‬a man cannot remember where he was going before the accident occurred. B. A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the‭ ‬24‭ ‬hours after she was sexually assaulted. C. A high school junior who learned Spanish her freshman year is having trouble learning French because she keeps substituting Spanish words for French ones. D. A college student can remember information related to an important event but cannot remember how he acquired that information.

Answer 202

B. A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the ‬24‭ ‬hours after she was sexually assaulted - CORRECT This answer provides an example of anterograde amnesia – i.e., the woman has no memory for events that occurred after the assault. Anterograde amnesia involves a loss of memory for events that occur after the event that caused the memory loss. A. As the result of a head injury he received in a car accident,‭ ‬a man cannot remember where he was going before the accident occurred - Incorrect A loss of memory for events that occurred prior to the trauma that caused the memory impairment is referred to as retrograde amnesia. C. A high school junior who learned Spanish her freshman year is having trouble learning French because she keeps substituting Spanish words for French ones - Incorrect This is an example of proactive interference. D. A college student can remember information related to an important event but cannot remember how he acquired that information - Incorrect This is an example of source amnesia (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 203

``` According to Albert Ellis,‭ ‬our emotional and behavioral reactions to an event are due to our beliefs about the event rather than to the event itself.‭ ‬In other words,‭ ‬our beliefs act as a: A. moderator variable. B. mediator variable. C. latent variable. D. suppressor variable. ```

Answer 203

B. mediator variable - CORRECT A mediator variable accounts for (is responsible for) the relationship between two variables. Ellis’s theory proposes that beliefs mediate (are responsible for) the impact of an event on our emotional and behavioral reactions to that event. A. moderator variable - Incorrect A moderator variable is a variable that affects the strength of the relationship between two other variables. For example, if the size of the correlation between a predictor and criterion differs for older and younger adults, age is a moderator variable. Note that some authors use the terms “moderator variable” and “extraneous variable” interchangeably. C. latent variable - Incorrect A latent variable is a theoretical variable that is believed to underlie a measured or observed variable. D. suppressor variable - Incorrect A suppressor variable reduces or conceals the relationship between two variables. Consequently, statistically removing the effects of a suppressor variable increases the correlation between the two variables. (Statistics and Research Design)

Question 204

Trainability tests are: A. paper-and-pencil tests that assess the aptitudes required for a particular job. B. paper-and-pencil tests that assess motivation and other job-related attitudes. C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation. D. multimodal assessment techniques used to determine what training current workers require.

Answer 204

C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation - CORRECT Trainability tests are similar to work samples except they are given to people who currently do not have sufficient skills or knowledge to perform the job. They are used to determine if a job applicant is likely to benefit from training. As their name implies, trainability tests are used to determine if individuals will benefit from training. A. paper-and-pencil tests that assess the aptitudes required for a particular job - Incorrect B. paper-and-pencil tests that assess motivation and other job-related attitudes - Incorrect D. multimodal assessment techniques used to determine what training current workers require - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 205

To incorporate the value of‭ ‬personalismo‭ ‬into therapy,‭ ‬a therapist will: A. integrate members of the extended family into the intervention. B. maintain a neutral attitude even when ‬family members are ‬discussing unpleasant topics. C. display genuine interest in the client by asking about his/her family and work or school. D. establish credibility early in therapy by demonstrating knowledge of indigenous healing practices.

Answer 205

C. display genuine interest in the client by asking about his/her family and work or school - CORRECT Although formalismo (a formal communication style) is generally preferred by Latino/Hispanic clients during initial therapy sessions, personalismo is preferred once the therapeutic alliance has been established. Personalismo sounds like what it is – i.e., communication that fosters warmth, rapport, and a personal connection. Therefore, you may have been able to identify the correct response to this question even if you’re unfamiliar with the application of personalismo to therapy. A. integrate members of the extended family into the intervention - Incorrect Integrating members of the extended family into the intervention would be consistent with the value of familismo. B. maintain a neutral attitude even when ‬family members are ‬discussing unpleasant topics - Incorrect This is not consistent with personalismo. D. establish credibility early in therapy by demonstrating knowledge of indigenous healing practices. - Incorrect Demonstrating knowledge of indigenous healing practices may be important but would not necessarily foster personalismo. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 206

Lewinsohn’s behavioral model proposes a‭ ‬causal ‬link between ______________ ‬and depression. A. a lack of reinforcement from the environment B. “accidental” ‬external reinforcement for depressogenic behaviors C. a high need for perfectionism D. chronic physical and psychological stress

Answer 206

A. a lack of reinforcement from the environment - CORRECT Lewinsohn attributes depression primarily to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement and proposes that, when a person’s behaviors are not reinforced, those behaviors are extinguished and the person is at increased risk for pessimism, low self-esteem, and other symptoms associated with depression. Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequences of behavior. B. “accidental” ‬external reinforcement for depressogenic behaviors - Incorrect C. a high need for perfectionism - Incorrect D. chronic physical and psychological stress - Incorrect (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 207

``` In organizations,‭ ‬the level of affective commitment is likely to be ‬least predictive of which of the following? A. job satisfaction B. productivity C. job motivation D. turnover ```

Answer 207

B. productivity - CORRECT Of the outcomes listed in the answers, affective commitment is least predictive of productivity.Two types of organizational commitment are distinguished – continuance commitment and affective commitment. Of these, affective commitment is most predictive of work-related outcomes. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 208

``` Providing education and job training to adolescents and young adults who have recently been released from a drug treatment program is an example of: A. primary prevention. B. secondary prevention. C. tertiary prevention. D. social intervention. ```

Answer 208

C. tertiary prevention - CORRECT Rehabilitation is the goal of tertiary prevention. In this situation, adolescents and young adults are being provided with services that are intended to reduce the likelihood of future drug abuse (relapse).A. primary prevention - Incorrect Primary prevention's emphasize counteracting harmful circumstances before they have an opportunity to produce mental or physical illness. B. secondary prevention - Incorrect Secondary prevention's emphasize the early diagnosis and treatment of disorders. D. social intervention - Incorrect This is a "made up” term. (Clinical Psychology)

Question 209

``` An employee expects greater consistency in the behavior of his boss than is warranted.‭ ‬The employee’s expectation is best accounted for by which of the following‭? A. overjustification hypothesis B. self-serving bias C. fundamental attribution bias D. self-verification theory ```

Answer 209

C. fundamental attribution bias - CORRECT The fundamental attribution bias is the tendency to attribute another person's behavior to dispositional factors (e.g., traits) and, therefore, to expect a great deal of consistency in behavior. This question is vague, and you may have had to rely on the process of elimination to identify the correct answer. A. overjustification hypothesis - Incorrect The overjustification hypothesis predicts that internal motivation to perform a specific action is weakened when one is given external reinforcement for performing the action. B. self-serving bias - Incorrect The self-serving bias applies to the attributions one makes about one's own behavior and is not relevant to the situation described in this question. D. self-verification theory - Incorrect Self-verification theory predicts that people prefer receiving information about themselves from others that is consistent with their self-evaluations. (Social Psychology)

Question 210

A personnel director decides to raise a selection test’s cutoff score when using the test to assist in hiring decisions.‭ ‬Most likely the personnel director has made this decision in order to: A. increase the number of true positives. B. decrease the number of false positives. C. increase the number of false negatives. D. decrease the number of true negatives.

Answer 210

B. decrease the number of false positives - CORRECT Most likely, a personnel director would raise the predictor cutoff in order to decrease the number of false positives since these individuals "cost the company money" (i.e., they would be hired on the basis of their test scores but would be unsuccessful on the job). Raising the predictor cutoff score decreases the number of true and false positives and increases the number of true and false negatives. A. increase the number of true positives - Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff score would decrease the number of true positives. C. increase the number of false negatives - Incorrect Although raising the predictor cutoff score does increase the number of false negatives, this would not be considered desirable in most situations – i.e., a personnel director would not want to increase the number of people who are rejected (not hired) on the basis of their selection test scores but who would have been successful on the job if they had been hired.. D. decrease the number of true negatives - Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff increases the number of true negatives.(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 211

``` The notion that there are three major life tasks – ‬friendship,‭ ‬occupation,‭ ‬and love – ‬is MOST consistent with the philosophy of: A. Perls. B. Berne. C. Rogers. D. Adler. ```

Answer 211

D. Adler - CORRECT Adler believed that people are motivated primarily by an innate social interest and that the goal in life is to act in ways that fulfill social responsibilities. The three tasks listed in the question (friendship, occupation, and love) all involve social interactions. Of the individuals listed, one is most associated with an emphasis on social factors (i.e., social interest).(Clinical Psychology)

Question 212

In a research study,‭ ‬a social psychologist offers participants either ‬$1.00‭ ‬or‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬to tell potential participants that a dull experiment was very interesting.‭ ‬With regard to cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory,‭ ‬which of the following is true‭? A. Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment. B. Self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment. C. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition. D. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition.

Answer 212

C. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition - CORRECT Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the $1.00 condition will report liking the dull experiment more than will those in the $20.00 condition in order to reduce the dissonance they feel about describing the dull study as interesting to potential participants. In contrast, self-perception theory predicts that participants in the $1.00 condition will report greater liking for the dull experiment because they will evaluate their actual opinion of the study by looking at their overt behavior (telling others that the experiment was interesting). Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory make the same prediction about the outcome of the study described in this question but do so for different reasons. A. Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment - Incorrect B. Self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment - Incorrect D. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition - Incorrect (Social Psychology)

Question 213

Trend analysis is a type of analysis of variance that is used when: A. a study’s independent variable is quantitative. B. a study’s dependent variable is qualitative. C. a cross-sectional research design has been used. D. a factorial research design has been used.

Answer 213

A. a study’s independent variable is quantitative - CORRECT Trend analysis is used when a study involves a quantitative independent variable, and the researcher wants to determine the shape of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables. The results of the trend analysis indicate whether or not there is a statistically significant linear or nonlinear (quadratic, cubic, quartic) trend. Trend analysis is a type of analysis of variance that is used to evaluate linear and nonlinear trends. B. a study’s dependent variable is qualitative - Incorrect C. a cross-sectional research design has been used -Incorrect D. a factorial research design has been used - Incorrect (Statistics and Research Design)

Question 214

The keyword method is most useful for: A. remembering word pairs. B. remembering a long list of unrelated words. C. recalling the order of mathematical operations. D. mastering spatial relationships.

Answer 214

A. remembering word pairs - CORRECT The keyword method is useful for learning pairs of words such as the English and Spanish equivalents for words or the capitals of states. B. remembering a long list of unrelated words - Incorrect An acronym is more useful for learning lists of unrelated words. C. recalling the order of mathematical operations - Incorrect The method of loci and the pegword method are useful for recalling ordered information. D. mastering spatial relationships - Incorrect The keyword method is not useful for this purpose. (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 215

``` Presbyopia refers to loss of: A. far vision. B. near vision. C. color vision. D. depth perception. ```

Answer 215

B. near vision - CORRECT People with presbyopia have difficulty focusing on objects that are close. Presbyopia occurs when the lens of the eye loses its ability to focus. Many people begin to experience presbyopia in their mid-40s. (Lifespan Development)

Question 216

A researcher reports that she calculated a Cohen’s d of‭ ‬.50‭ ‬for the data she collected in a study that compared two brief treatments for generalized anxiety disorder.‭ ‬This means that: A. there was a difference of one-half standard deviation between the means of the two groups. B. there was a difference of one-fourth standard deviation between the means of the two groups. C. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬50%. D. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬25%.

Answer 216

A. there was a difference of one-half standard deviation between the means of the two groups - CORRECT A Cohen’s d of .50 indicates that one group obtained a mean that is one-half standard deviation higher than the mean obtained by the other group. Cohen’s d is a measure of effect size. It indicates the difference between the means of two groups in terms of standard deviations. B. there was a difference of one-fourth standard deviation between the means of the two groups - Incorrect C. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬50% - Incorrect D. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬25% - Incorrect (Statistics and Research Design)

Question 217

A person who received a Level‭ ‬4‭ ‬rating on the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning: A. is nonresponsive to visual or auditory stimuli and seems to be in a state of deep sleep. B. is confused and incoherent,‭ ‬may exhibit bizarre behavior,‭ ‬and is unable to care for him/herself. C. is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairment in judgment,‭ ‬planning,‭ ‬and abstract reasoning. D. is functioning at an intellectual level that is superior for his/her age,‭ ‬education,‭ ‬and demographic background.

Answer 217

B. is confused and incoherent,‭ ‬may exhibit bizarre behavior,‭ ‬and is unable to care for him/herself - CORRECT The behaviors described in this answer are characteristic of Level 4. The Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning was developed as a method for monitoring recovery from head trauma and involves rating the individual in terms of eight levels of functioning. A. is nonresponsive to visual or auditory stimuli and seems to be in a state of deep sleep - Incorrect This describes behaviors characteristic of Level 1. C. is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairment in judgment,‭ ‬planning,‭ ‬and abstract reasoning - Incorrect This answer describes Level 8 functioning. D. is functioning at an intellectual level that is superior for his/her age,‭ ‬education,‭ ‬and demographic background - Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe any of the levels of functioning assessed by the Rancho Los Amigos Scale. (Psychological Assessment)

Question 218

``` According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model,‭ ‬a leader should use a‭ "‬participative‭" ‬style for subordinates who have: A. low ability and low motivation. B. low ability and high motivation. C. high ability and low motivation. D. high ability and high motivation. ```

Answer 218

C. high ability and low motivation - CORRECT According to Hersey and Blanchard, a participative leadership style is most effective when subordinates have high levels of ability and low levels of motivation. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that a leader is most effective when his/her leadership style matches subordinates' ability and motivation (willingness to accept responsibility). A. low ability and low motivation - Incorrect A telling style is most effective for employees low in both ability and motivation. B. low ability and high motivation - Incorrect A selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation. D. high ability and high motivation - Incorrect A delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 219

``` A score of‭ ‬50‭ ‬on the Beck Depression Inventory-II suggests: A. no or minimal depression. B. mild depression. C. moderate depression. D. severe depression. ```

Answer 219

D. severe depression - CORRECT An examinee’s score on the BDI-II can range from 0 to 63, and scores of 29 and above are considered indicative of severe depression. The Beck Depression Inventory-II consists of 21 items that the examinee’s rates on a four-point scale ranging from 0 (minimal) to 3 (severe). (Psychological Assessment)

Question 220

A person who is ‬low in self-monitoring (‬Snyder,‭ ‬1987‭) ‬will rely on which of the following when deciding how to act in a particular social situation? A. his/her life scripts. B. his/her own feelings,‭ ‬attitudes,‭ ‬and beliefs. C. the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people he/she is interacting with. D. internal working models that were acquired during infancy and early childhood.

Answer 220

B. his/her own feelings,‭ ‬attitudes,‭ ‬and beliefs - CORRECT A person who is low in self-monitoring relies on his/her own feelings, attitudes, and beliefs when determining how to act in social situations and, as a result, acts similarly in different social situations. As defined by Snyder (1987), self-monitoring refers to the degree to which people are concerned about the impressions they convey to others in social situations and are able to control those impressions. C. the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people he/she is interacting with - Incorrect People who are high in self-monitoring are concerned about the impressions that others have of them and, as a result, adapt their behaviors to the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people in each social situation. D. internal working models that were acquired during infancy and early childhood - Incorrect. (Social Psychology)

Question 221

According to‭ ‬Bem’s‭ (‬1972‭) ‬self-perception theory: A. people experience discomfort (‬dissonance‭) ‬when their behaviors are not consistent with their attitudes,‭ ‬beliefs,‭ ‬or values. B. people enhance their own sense of self-worth by associating or identifying with others who are successful. C. people tend to attribute their successes to dispositional factors and failures to situational factors. D. people infer their own attitudes and emotions by observing their own behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur.

Answer 221

D. people infer their own attitudes and emotions by observing their own behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur - CORRECT According to self-perception theory, we’re most likely to rely on external information for determining or judging our internal states when internal cues are ambiguous, weak, or difficult to interpret. Self-perception theory predicts that people judge or determine their own internal states in the same way that they determine the states of other people – i.e., by considering external cues. A. people experience discomfort (‬dissonance‭) ‬when their behaviors are not consistent with their attitudes,‭ ‬beliefs,‭ ‬or values - Incorrect This is predicted by cognitive dissonance theory but not by self-perception theory. B. people enhance their own sense of self-worth by associating or identifying with others who are successful - Incorrect This is not a prediction of self-perception theory. C. people tend to attribute their successes to dispositional factors and failures to situational factors - Incorrect This answer describes the self-serving bias. (Social Psychology)

Question 222

Unilateral damage to the left‭ (‬dominant‭) ‬hemisphere is‭ ‬least likely to result in an inability to: A. memorize vocabulary words. B. construct a daily schedule. C. read a map. D. use the process of elimination to answer multiple-choice questions.

Answer 222

C. read a map - CORRECT Of the activities listed in the answers, the ability to read a map would most likely be impaired by damage to the right hemisphere. In contrast, damage to the left hemisphere would have the effects listed in answers a, b, and d. Although the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex play a role in most behaviors, each hemisphere specializes with regard to certain functions. For most people language, math, and analytical thinking are left hemisphere functions, while the understanding of spatial relations, creativity, intuitive thinking, and the ability to recognize faces are right hemisphere functions. (Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

Question 223

``` A person with Wernicke's aphasia has impaired language comprehension and: A. nonfluent and unintelligible speech. B. nonfluent but intelligible speech. C. fluent but unintelligible speech. D. fluent and intelligible speech. ```

Answer 223

C. fluent but unintelligible speech - CORRECT People with Wernicke's aphasia have fluent speech, but their speech is unintelligible because it contains multiple errors including sound and word substitutions. Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by a disruption in the ability to produce and comprehend language. (Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

Question 224

``` A psychologist is designing a study that will investigate the impact of age on intelligence.‭ ‬The results of the psychologist’s study will most likely indicate that intelligence test scores begin to decline in early adulthood if she uses which of the following research designs‭? A. cross-sequential B. cross-sectional C. longitudinal D. analogue ```

Answer 224

B. cross-sectional - CORRECT Early cross-sectional studies on the relationship between age and IQ suggested that IQ scores begin to drop in late adolescence or early adulthood. Subsequent longitudinal and cross-sequential studies found, however, that this result was due more to methodology than to actual IQ score declines – i.e., the apparent age-related declines identified in cross-sectional studies were due to cohort (intergenerational) effects. The research has confirmed that the method used to investigate the impact of age on IQ can bias the results of the study. (Psychological Assessment)

Question 225

``` A primary concern about the long-term use of chlorpromazine is that it may result in the development of which of the following‭? A. acute hypertensive crisis B. profound anterograde amnesia C. tardive dyskinesia D. renal toxicity ```

Answer 225

C. tardive dyskinesia - CORRECT The long-term use of an antipsychotic drug – especially chlorpromazine or other conventional antipsychotic – can result in tardive dyskinesia, a neurological movement disorder involving involuntary movements of the lips, tongue, face, trunk, and extremities (e.g., facial grimacing, tongue protrusion, guitar and piano-playing movements). A. acute hypertensive crisis - Incorrect This is a side effect of the MAOIs. B. profound anterograde amnesia- Incorrect This is a potential side effect of triazolam and other benzodiazepines. D. renal toxicity - Incorrect This is associated with the use of lithium. (Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

Question 226

``` Tourette’s syndrome has been most consistently linked to abnormalities in which of the following structures of the brain‭? A. dentate gyrus B. pons C. basal ganglia D. mammillary bodies ```

Answer 226

C. basal ganglia - CORRECT The basal ganglia are involved in the control of movement and include the corpus striatum, caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus. Basal ganglia dysfunction has been implicated in a number of disorders including Tourette’s syndrome, ADHD, OCD, and schizophrenia. Tourette’s syndrome is a tic disorder that involves a combination of motor and vocal tics. A. dentate gyrus - Incorrect The dentate gyrus is part of the hippocampus and is believed to be involved in memory consolidation. B. pons - Incorrect The pons is a hindbrain structure that relays sensory information between the cerebellum and cortex, mediates reflexes related to breathing, and may play a role in sleep and dreaming. D. mammillary bodies - Incorrect The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus, are involved in memory, and may play a role in the anterograde amnesia associated with Korsakoff's syndrome. (Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

Question 227

``` A measure of‭ __________ ‬would be most useful for determining the likelihood that employees will remain on the job for a long period of time. A. job satisfaction B. job productivity C. intelligence D. motivation ```

Answer 227

``` A. job satisfaction - CORRECT The correlation between satisfaction and turnover is one of the strongest reported in the literature, with lower levels of satisfaction being associated with higher levels of turnover. The other measures listed in the answers have not been found to correlate highly with turnover. Job satisfaction has been linked to a number of consequences, including turnover. B. job productivity - Incorrect C. intelligence - Incorrect D. motivation - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology) ```

Question 228

``` According to Noam Chomsky’s nativist theory,‭ ‬language is largely the result of: A. innate factors. B. operant conditioning. C. parental modeling. D. cognitive development. ```

Answer 228

``` A. innate factors - CORRECT Chomsky proposed an innate language acquisition device that consists of language rules and that allows children to acquire language just by being exposed to it. As a nativist, Noam Chomsky views language as an innate skill. B. operant conditioning - Incorrect C. parental modeling - Incorrect D. cognitive development - Incorrect (Lifespan Development) ```

Question 229

Which of the following strategies would probably be‭ ‬least effective for reducing‭ ‬aggressiveness in children‭? A. exposure to a nonaggressive model B. opportunities for catharsis C. social skills training D. a threat of retaliation from a high-status person

Answer 229

B. opportunities for catharsis - CORRECT Catharsis has not been found to be an effective way to reduce aggressive behavior. In fact, there is evidence that it may actually increase aggression. Note that this question is asking for the most ineffective method for reducing aggression. A. exposure to a nonaggressive model - Incorrect The research has shown that exposure to models can increase both positive and negative behaviors. C. social skills training - Incorrect In many cases, aggressiveness is due to a lack of alternative behaviors. Consequently, social skills training is often effective because its goal is to replace undesirable behaviors (e.g., aggression) with more desirable ones. D. a threat of retaliation from a high-status person - Incorrect The research has shown that a threat of retaliation reduces aggression, at least in certain circumstances (e.g., when the threat comes from a person with high status or power and is not accompanied by provocation). (Social Psychology)

Question 230

``` Selye‭ (‬1956‭) ‬proposed that which of the following endocrine glands mediate the general adaptation syndrome‭? A. thyroid and thymus B. adrenal and pituitary C. thyroid and parathyroid D. pancreas and pineal ```

Answer 230

B. adrenal and pituitary - CORRECT Selye proposed that the general adaptation syndrome is mediated primarily by the adrenal and pituitary glands. For example, during the initial alarm stage, the hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla which increases the production of epinephrine. According to Selye (1956), the general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. (Physiological Psychology/ Psychopharmacology)

Question 231

You would use a‭ "‬multitrait-multimethod matrix‭" ‬in order to: A. compare a test''s predictive and concurrent validity. B. determine if a test has adequate convergent and discriminant validity. C. identify the common factors underlying a set of related constructs. D. test hypotheses about the causal relationships among variables.

Answer 231

B. determine if a test has adequate convergent and discriminant validity - CORRECT When a measure correlates highly with other measures of the same trait, the measure has convergent validity; when it has low correlations with measures of different traits, it has discriminant (divergent) validity. Convergent and discriminant validity are used as evidence of construct validity, and the multitrait-multimethod matrix contains correlation coefficients that provide information about a measure’s convergent and discriminant validity. A multitrait-multimethod matrix contains the correlation coefficients between measures that do and do not purport to measure the same trait. A. compare a test''s predictive and concurrent validity - Incorrect Predictive and concurrent validity are types of criterion-related validity. The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to assess a measure's construct validity. C. identify the common factors underlying a set of related constructs - Incorrect This answer describes factor analysis, which is used to identify the common factors that underlie a set of tests, test items, or other variables. D. test hypotheses about the causal relationships among variables - Incorrect This answer doesn't describe the purpose of the multitrait-multimethod matrix. (Test Construction)

Question 232

``` Which of the following item difficulty‭ (‬p‭) ‬levels maximizes the differentiation of examinees into high-‭ ‬and low-performing groups: A. 0.0 B. .50 C. .90 D. 1.50 ```

Answer 232

B. .50 - CORRECT When p equals .50, this means that the item provides maximum differentiation between the upper- and lower-scoring examinees – i.e., a large proportion of examinees in the upper group answered the item correctly, while a small proportion of examinees in the lower group answered it correctly. An item difficulty level (p) ranges in value from 0 to +1.0 with a value of 0 indicating a very difficult item and a value of +1.0 indicating a very easy item. A difficulty index of .50 indicates that 50% of examinees in the try-out sample answered the item correctly. (Test Construction)

Question 233

``` According to the levels of processing model of memory,‭ ‬words and other information may be encoded at different levels,‭ ‬with‭ _______ ‬processing being the deepest level. A. orthographic B. phonemic C. semantic D. perceptual ```

Answer 233

C. semantic - CORRECT Craik and Lockhart distinguished between shallow and deep processing. According to their theory, shallow processing (processing words on the basis of their phonemic or orthographic characteristics) is less effective than deep processing (processing words at the semantic or meaning-based level). Craik and Lockhart’s (1972) levels of processing model proposes that the level (depth) of processing of information affects how well that information is retained. D. perceptual - Incorrect Perceptual processing includes orthographic and phonemic processing, which are shallow levels. (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 234

``` Spinal cord injury at the‭ ________ ‬level is most likely to result in quadriplegia. A. lumbar B. sacral C. cervical D. thoracic ```

Answer 234

C. cervical - CORRECT Quadriplegia (the loss of sensory and motor functioning in the arms and legs) results from damage at the cervical level. A. lumbar - Incorrect Damage at the lumbar level is likely to cause some loss of functioning in the hips and legs. B. sacral - Incorrect Damage at the sacral level also causes loss of functioning in the hips and legs. D. thoracic - Incorrect Paraplegia (loss of functioning in the legs) is caused by damage at the thoracic level. (Physiological Psychology/ Psychopharmacology)

Question 235

``` A‭ "‬cover story‭" ‬that causes research participants to think that the purpose of the study they are participating in is something other than what it really is would be most helpful for controlling which of the following‭? A. Hawthorne effect B. Rosenthal effect C. demand characteristics D. differential attrition ```

Answer 235

C. demand characteristics - CORRECT Demand characteristics are cues in the experimental setting that inadvertently convey information to participants about what behavior is expected. If participants do not know what the purpose of the study is, they will be less susceptible to the effects of any cues that happen to be present.In the situation described in this question, participants will not know the real purpose of the study. As long as you’re familiar with the phenomena listed in the answers, you should have been able to recognize which phenomenon would be impacted by this lack of knowledge. A. Hawthorne effect - Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is the tendency for the performance of research participants to improve as the result of the attention they receive as research participants. In other words, it is knowing that they are in a study (not knowing the purpose of the study) that impacts performance. B. Rosenthal effect - Incorrect The Rosenthal (self-fulfilling prophecy) effect refers to the impact of a teacher's expectations about the performance of his/her students on their actual performance. D. differential attrition - Incorrect Differential attrition occurs when participants who drop out of one group differ in a systematic way from those who drop out of another group and this difference affects the study’s results. (Statistics and Research Design)

Question 236

Research comparing heterogeneous and homogeneous work groups has found that,‭ ‬in general,‭ ‬heterogeneous groups: A. are more creative and better at decision-making. B. are more creative but less productive overall. C. make better decisions but are less productive overall. D. are more creative but worse at decision-making.

Answer 236

A. are more creative and better at decision-making - CORRECT Much of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its effects on creativity and decision-making and has found a positive effect of heterogeneity on both measures of performance. Most studies have found that groups are more effective when members are heterogeneous with regard to gender, personality, experience, skills, etc. B. are more creative but less productive overall - Incorrect C. make better decisions but are less productive overall - Incorrect D. are more creative but worse at decision-making - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 237

Which of the following best‭ ‬describes elaborative rehearsal‭? A. making new information meaningful B. consciously repeating new information C. practicing a new skill past the point of mastery D. ‭“‬thinking aloud‭” ‬while studying

Answer 237

A. making new information meaningful - CORRECT The term elaborative rehearsal is used to describe the process of making new information meaningful in order to enhance its retention and retrieval. Relating new information to previously acquired information is one type of elaborative rehearsal. Researchers interested in memory distinguish between two types of rehearsal – elaborative and maintenance. B. consciously repeating new information - Incorrect This sounds more like maintenance rehearsal which involves the rote repetition of information. C. practicing a new skill past the point of mastery - Incorrect This describes “overlearning.” D. ‭“‬thinking aloud‭” ‬while studying - Incorrect This does not describe elaborative rehearsal. (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 238

``` When performing a(n‭) ________ ‬task,‭ ‬group members select a solution offered by one of the group members as the group’s solution. A. compensatory B. disjunctive C. conjunctive D. additive ```

Answer 238

B. disjunctive - CORRECT For disjunctive tasks, the group selects a solution (ideally the optimal solution) from those proposed by individual group members. A. compensatory - Incorrect In a compensatory task, the group’s performance is the average of the effort or performance of the individual members. C. conjunctive - Incorrect On conjunctive tasks, group members act in unison, which means that the group product is limited by the performance of the weakest member. D. additive - Incorrect When working on an additive task, the group product is the sum of the contributions of each member. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

Question 239

``` Research on gender differences in conversation style indicates that,‭ ‬when compared to men,‭ ‬women: A. talk for longer periods of time. B. ask more questions. C. interrupt more often. D. make more eye contact. ```

Answer 239

B. ask more questions - CORRECT Women are more likely to ask questions during a conversation, and men tend to talk for longer periods of time, interrupt more frequently, and make more eye contact. Research has identified several consistent gender differences in conversation style. (Lifespan Development)

Question 240

Images and sounds are maintained in sensory memory for: A. an indefinite period of time. B. minutes to days,‭ ‬depending on the depth of encoding. C. about‭ ‬60‭ ‬to‭ ‬90‭ ‬seconds. D. less than‭ ‬5‭ ‬seconds.

Answer 240

D. less than‭ ‬5‭ ‬seconds - CORRECT Sensory memory includes a separate store for each sense, and the duration of sensory memory varies somewhat, depending on the sense. For iconic (visual) memories, the duration is about .5 to 1.0 seconds; for echoic (auditory) memories, the duration is up to 4 or 5 seconds. Sensory memory provides very brief storage of incoming sensory input. (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 241

Operant extinction would NOT be the treatment-of-choice when: A. an alternative behavior cannot be identified. B. the behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule. C. a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated. D. the baseline levels of the behavior cannot be established.

Answer 241

C. a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated - CORRECT Extinction often produces an initial "extinction burst" (temporary increase in the target behavior). Consequently, it would be contraindicated when a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated. Extinction is accomplished by withholding all reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior. A. an alternative behavior cannot be identified - Incorrect It would be helpful to be simultaneously reinforcing an alternative behavior, but the absence of an alternative behavior would not rule out the use of extinction. B. the behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule - Incorrect Behaviors that have been reinforced on a continuous schedule are easier to extinguish than those that have been reinforced on an intermittent schedule. D. the baseline levels of the behavior cannot be established - Incorrect It would be useful to have a baseline reading to determine the effects of the extinction procedure, but the absence of a baseline measure would not rule out the use of extinction. (Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

Question 242

Rosenhan’s research involving “pseudopatients" who were admitted to psychiatric hospitals: a. confirmed that participation in a research study alters the behavior of research participants. b. demonstrated that labeling a person changes the person's behavior. c. showed that the environment influences how a person's behavior is perceived. d. showed that “central traits" have a greater impact than other traits on impression formation.

Answer 242

c. showed that the environment influences how a person's behavior is perceived - CORRECT: In the pseudopatient study, researchers were judged by hospital staff to be schizophrenic even though they acted normally while in the hospital. Rosenhan concluded that these results demonstrated the impact of the social environment on impression formation. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 243

A student who is chronically depressed is most likely to attribute the low score she received on her final exam to: a. her lack of ability. b. the lack of time she had to study. c. the difficulty of some exam items. d. the instructor's ineptitude.

Answer 243

a. her lack of ability - CORRECT: Research on the self-serving bias has shown that there are exceptions to its predictions. For example, depressed people are likely to attribute their failures to internal (dispositional), stable, and global factors. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 244

The statement, “You tripped, but I was pushed" BEST illustrates which of the following? a. self-perception bias b. actor-observer effect c. fundamental attribution bias d. self-monitoring

Answer 244

b. actor-observer effect - CORRECT: In this situation, you are attributing your own behavior to a situational factor but the behavior of another person to a dispositional factor. This is consistent with the actor-observer effect. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 245

The tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors when inferring the cause of another person's behavior is referred to as the . a. self-serving bias b. actor-observer effect c. fundamental attribution bias d. self-perception bias

Answer 245

c. fundamental attribution bias - CORRECT: The fundamental attribution error occurs when making attributions about the behavior of another person and involves attributing that behavior to dispositional factors. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 246

A problem with relying on the representativeness heuristic when making a judgment about the characteristics of another person is that doing so: a. causes over-reliance on statistical data. b. doesn't take base rate data into account. c. overestimates the degree to which dispositional factors affect behavior. d. doesn't take into account the limitations of working memory.

Answer 246

b. doesn't take base rate data into account - CORRECT: The representativeness heuristic involves basing your judgment about the likelihood that a person, object, or event belongs to a particular category on how similar the person, object, or event is to that category while ignoring base rate data. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 247

A friend of yours says, “Every time I plan a vacation, there's always a crisis at home or work so that I can't go." Assuming that this is not really true, your friend's statement best illustrates which of the following? a. psychological reactance b. base rate fallacy c. illusory correlation d. fundamental attribution bias

Answer 247

c. illusory correlation - CORRECT: The illusory correlation is a cognitive error that occurs when we believe that two unrelated events are related. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 248

On the basis of his investigation of the relationship between affiliation and anxiety, Schachter concluded that which of the following best accounted for the desire of high-anxiety research participants to wait with other high-anxiety participants? a. demand characteristics b. evaluation apprehension c. relief from discomfort d. social comparison

Answer 248

d. social comparison - CORRECT: Because high-anxiety participants in Schachter's study preferred to wait with others only when the others were also highly-anxious, Schachter concluded that the desire to affiliate is best explained by social comparison (i.e., the participants’ desire to evaluate their own anxiety by comparing it to the anxiety of another participant). (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 249

Berscheid’s (1983) emotion-in-relationship model proposes that strong positive emotions are LESS likely to be elicited during the later stages of an intimate relationship than in its initial stages because: a. in the later stages, each person is more self-centered and less other-centered. b. in the later stages, each partner's behavior has become more predictable. c. in the later stages, each partner works harder to be sensitive to the other’s needs. d. over time, people become "emotionally immune" to the behaviors of others.

Answer 249

b. in the later stages, each partner's behavior has become more predictable - CORRECT: The emotion-in-relationship model predicts that emotion in close relationships is aroused by unusual or unexpected events. In the later stages of a relationship, a partner is less likely to do something unexpected (e.g., an extravagant birthday present is a surprise during the first and second years of a relationship, but, by the 12th year, it has come to be expected.) (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 250

Equity theory predicts that a person's satisfaction in a close personal relationship is related to the person's: a. perceptions of his/her own contribution/reward ratio and the ratio of his/her partner. b. perceptions of the relative utility of the relationship. c. comparisons between his/her current relationship and past relationships. d. comparisons between his/her own relationship outcomes and the relationship outcomes of others.

Answer 250

a. perceptions of his/her own contribution/reward ratio and the ratio of his/her partner - CORRECT: Equity theory predicts that we are satisfied with relationships that we perceive to be equitable. To evaluate the equity of a relationship, we compare our input/outcome (contribution/reward) ratio to the ratio of the other person. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 251

Self-verification theory predicts that a husband who has low self-esteem and is overweight and chronically depressed will prefer his wife to: a. not comment on his abilities, weight, and mood. b. make neutral comments about his abilities, weight, and mood. c. confirm his negative self-evaluations. d. contradict his negative self-evaluations.

Answer 251

c. confirm his negative self-evaluations - CORRECT: Self-verification theory predicts that we seek feedback that is consistent with our self-evaluations. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 252

As described by Kobasa et al. (1982), the personality characteristic of hardiness is characterized by which of the following? a. confidence, competence, and control b. commitment, challenge, and control c. common sense, commitment, and capability d. capability, challenge. and commitment

Answer 252

b. commitment, challenge, and control - CORRECT: Commitment, challenge, and control are the three components that Kobasa et al. identified as being characteristic of hardiness. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 253

Sherif used the “autokinetic effect" to study: a. the frustration-regression hypothesis. b. psychological reactance. c. conformity to group norms. d. bases of social power.

Answer 253

c. conformity to group norms - CORRECT: Sherif used the autokinetic effect to evaluate the willingness of a person to confirm to the group norm in an ambiguous situation. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 254

According to Moscovici (1985), group members espousing the minority position are most likely to change the opinion of the majority when: a. members supporting the minority position have accumulated “idiosyncrasy credits." b. members supporting the minority position are consistent in expressing their opinion without appearing dogmatic. c. the number of people representing the minority is only slightly less than the number of people representing the majority. d. the minority leader is viewed by members of the majority as having legitimate power.

Answer 254

b. members supporting the minority position are consistent in expressing their opinion without appearing dogmatic - CORRECT: Moscovici argues that, to change the opinion of the majority, the minority must present its position in a firm, consistent manner without appearing dogmatic. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 255

A research study finds that instituting a law that raises the minimum age for purchasing alcohol from 18 to 21 increases underage drinking among college students. This finding is consistent with the predictions of: a. the inoculation model. b. cognitive dissonance theory. c. psychological reactance theory. d. the deindividuation model.

Answer 255

c. psychological reactance theory - CORRECT: In the situation described in the question, the college students are doing the opposite of what is required by law (i.e., are doing the opposite of what is desired in a situation in which their personal freedom is being threatened). This is referred to as psychological reactance. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 256

A supervisor attempts to increase his influence by being sensitive to the needs of his subordinates and by acting as a role model. This supervisor is relying on which of the bases of power identified by French and Raven? a. referent b. legitimate c. expert d. charismatic

Answer 256

a. referent - CORRECT: A person has referent power when he is admired, liked, or respected by other people or is viewed as a role model. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 257

According to the theory of planned behavior, the three components of a person's behavioral intention are: a. attitude toward the behavior, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control. b. degree of Liking or attraction, beliefs, and action tendencies. c. level of ability, degree of motivation, and extent of behavioral control. d. attitudinal strength, social desirability, and perceived self-efficacy.

Answer 257

a. attitude toward the behavior, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control - CORRECT: The theory of planned behavior proposes that attitudes are a good predictor of behavior when the three attitudinal components of a person's behavioral intention are measured — the person's attitude toward engaging in the behavior; what the person believes other people think he or she should do (i.e., his/her perception of subjective norms); and the person's perceived behavioral control. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 258

When a communicator is mildly to moderately credible, attitude change is greatest when the level of discrepancy between the initial positions of the communicator and the recipient of the communication is: a. small. b. moderate. c. large. d. unpredictable.

Answer 258

b. moderate - CORRECT: The research has found that change in attitude is greatest when the initial level of discrepancy is in the moderate range, especially when the communicator is mildly to moderately credible. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 259

Aronson and Mills examined the effects severity of initiation into a group on subsequent attitudes toward the group. Results of their study indicated that, compared to women who underwent a mild initiation, women who underwent a severe initiation as a precondition of group membership: a. rated the group as less interesting and enjoyable. b. rated the group as more interesting and enjoyable. c. were more likely to drop out of the group. d. were more likely to dislike fellow group members.

Answer 259

b. rated the group as more interesting and enjoyable - CORRECT: As predicted by cognitive dissonance theory, when women had to undergo a difficult initiation to get into a dull group, they experienced dissonance and, to reduce dissonance (i.e., to justify the initiation). they described the dull group as being enjoyable. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 260

According to the elaboration likelihood model, a person is most likely to rely on the “central route" for processing information when: a. he thinks the message is boring. b. everyone else in the group agrees with the message. c. the message is within his “latitude of acceptance." d. he is in a neutral or slightly negative mood.

Answer 260

d. he is in a neutral or slightly negative mood - CORRECT: The elaboration likelihood model predicts that we're more likely to use the central route when we‘re in a neutral or slightly negative mood but the peripheral route when we’re in a positive mood. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 261

Sherifs social judgment theory predicts that a person's "latitude of rejection" is largest when the person: a. has high ego-involvement with the target issue. b. has an external locus of control. c, is unfamiliar with the target issue. d. is in a good mood.

Answer 261

a. has high ego-involvement with the target issue - CORRECT: According to social judgment theory, the magnitude of the three categories of judgment are affected by the individual's level of ego-involvement in the target issue. Not surprisingly, when a person has high ego-involvement, he/she is less likely to be persuaded (i.e., his/her latitude of rejection is large). (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 262

To "inoculate" someone against a persuasive message. you would: a. warn the person that she is about to hear a message designed to change her beliefs. b. provide the person with information that supports her current beliefs. c. provide the person with strong arguments against her beliefs. d. provide the person with arguments against her beliefs and weak refutations of those arguments.

Answer 262

d. provide the person with arguments against her beliefs and weak refutations of those arguments - CORRECT: McGuire derived his notion of attitude inoculation from the use of inoculation in medicine. It involves providing the recipient of a message with arguments against his/her position and weak counterarguments prior to hearing the message. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 263

Berkowitz (1971) revised the original frustration-aggression hypothesis by proposing that frustration leads to aggression when: a. acting aggressively is likely to produce desirable outcomes. b. there are aggressive cues in the environment. c. the aggressor has an internal locus of control. d. the target of the aggression is of lower-status than the aggressor.

Answer 263

b. there are aggressive cues in the environment - CORRECT: Berkowitz (1971) found that frustration leads to a “readiness for aggression" but that the actual expression of aggression requires anger arousal plus the presence of aggressive cues. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 264

The research suggests that people who frequently view TV shows that depict violent acts: a. tend to overestimate the chance that they will be the victims of violence. b. tend to underestimate the chance that they will be the victims of violence. c. tend to overestimate the chance that they will be the perpetrators of violence. d. are no different than those who do not view violent shows when estimating the chance they will be the victims or perpetrators of violence.

Answer 264

a. tend to overestimate the chance that they will be the victims of violence - CORRECT: The results of the existing studies generally confirm that frequent viewing of media violence is associated with an increased fear of the environment, including fear of being the victim of violence. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 265

Milgram (1965) found that participants in his study were more willing to administer electric shocks to another person when they couldn't see the victim and the victim couldn't see them. This finding is predicted by Zimbardo’s notion of: a. deindividuation. b. pluralistic ignorance. c. self-verification. d. psychological reactance.

Answer 265

a. deindividuation - CORRECT: Zimbardo‘s detndividuation model predicts that we're more likely to act aggressively when we can do so anonymously. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 266

________ racism is occurring when members of minority groups consistently have less access than members of the majority group to quality education, good jobs, appropriate medical care, and adequate housing. a. Cultural b. Symbolic c. Institutional d. internalized

Answer 266

c. Institutional - CORRECT: Institutional racism refers to denial or restriction of material conditions (e.g., access to quality education or gainful employment) and access to power to members of minority groups. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 267

A national survey finds that, while most people are in favor of integration in the workplace, the majority also oppose affirmative action. This finding is best explained by which of the following? , a. the illusory correlation b. the contact hypothesis c. symbolic racism theory d. realistic group conflict theory

Answer 267

c. symbolic racism theory - CORRECT: One of the characteristics of “symbolic racists" is a tendency to support equality as an abstract principle while opposing concrete methods for achieving it. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 268

To decrease hostility between groups of junior high school students, you would be best advised to: a. increase opportunities for contact under pleasant conditions. b. have a respected member of the community speak to the students about the benefits of cooperation. c. have each group select a representative to discuss ways to reduce hostility. d. assign the students goals that can be achieved only through intergroup cooperation.

Answer 268

d. assign the students goals that can be achieved only through intergroup cooperation - CORRECT: The Robber‘s Cave Study demonstrated that the best way to reduce intergroup hostility is to introduce super-ordinate goals - i.e., goals that can be achieved only thought intergroup cooperation. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 269

Research investigating the effects of the “jigsaw method“ in the classroom demonstrated that it: a. increases aggression, especially toward the provocateur. b. reduces ethnic stereotyping. c. increases intergroup competition. d. increases cooperation but reduces academic achievement.

Answer 269

b. reduces ethnic stereotyping - CORRECT: Introduction of the jigsaw method into the classroom has been found to have a number of beneficial effects including raising self-esteem, improving cooperation, and reducing ethnic stereotyping. In terms of academic achievement, it tends to improve the performance of minority-group children and either increase or have no effect on the performance of majority-group children. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 270

A person is most likely to be helped in an emergency situation when: a. there is a single bystander. b. there are several bystanders. c. there are several bystanders of the same gender. d. there are several bystanders of the opposite gender.

Answer 270

a. there is a single bystander - CORRECT: Research on bystander apathy has shown that. the greater the number of bystanders, the less likely that a victim will receive help. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 271

Kurt Lewin's field theory predicts that human behavior is: a. due more to environmental factors than to psychological factors. b. due more to biological factors than to environmental factors. c. a function of both the person's own attributes and the characteristics of the environment. d. a function of the microsystem, mesosystem, and macrosystem.

Answer 271

c. a function of both the person's own attributes and the characteristics of the environment - CORRECT: Lewin’s field theory predicts that behavior is a function of the person and his/her physical and social environment. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 272

When faced with an approach-avoidance conflict: a. the closer we get to the goal, the stronger our desire to approach it. b. the closer we get to the goal, the stronger our desire to avoid it. c. regardless of our proximity to the goal, the desire to approach the goal is equal to the desire to avoid it. d. the strength of our desires to approach and to avoid the goal are unaffected by our proximity to it.

Answer 272

b. the closer we get to the goal, the stronger our desire to avoid it - CORRECT: One of the reasons why an approach-avoidance conflict is difficult to resolve is because the closer we get to the goal, the stronger the avoidance motive; and, conversely, the farther we get from the goal, the stronger the approach motive. This causes us to waiver during the decision-making process. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 273

The basic premise of the “Zeigarnik effect" is that: a. we tend to remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones. b. we tend to remember finished tasks better than unfinished ones. c. we tend to remember difficult tasks better than easy ones. d. we tend to remember easy tasks better than difficult ones.

Answer 273

a. we tend to remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones - CORRECT: The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to remember interrupted and unfinished tasks better than completed ones. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 274

With regard to the effects of crowding, which of the following is true? a. Men are more likely than women to act aggressively in crowded conditions. b. Men are less likely than women to be stressed by crowded conditions. c. Men and women are equally likely to react negatively to crowded conditions. d. Men and women react aggressively to crowded conditions to about the same degree but manifest their aggression in different ways.

Answer 274

a. Men are more likely than women to act aggressively in crowded conditions - CORRECT: In general, men are more stressed by and react more negatively to crowded situations. (Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

Question 275

You have been hired to assist with a research project on process variables in group psychotherapy.‭ ‬The psychologist who is the principal investigator tells you to discourage participants from leaving the group prior to the end of the study because,‭ ‬if too many participants drop out,‭ ‬the study's potential usefulness will be seriously compromised.‭ ‬As an ethical psychologist,‭ ‬you should: A. refuse to assist with the research project. B. immediately file a complaint against the psychologist with the psychology licensing board or ethics committee. C. write a letter to the psychologist,‭ ‬indicating the relevant ethical standards and offering to discuss the matter with him. D. follow the psychologist''s instructions since,‭ ‬by‭ "‬discouraging" ‬participants from leaving the group,‭ ‬you are not actually coercing them to participate.

Answer 275

C. write a letter to the psychologist,‭ ‬indicating the relevant ethical standards and offering to discuss the matter with him - (CORRECT) By offering to discuss the matter with the psychologist, you are attempting to resolve the matter informally, which is consistent with the requirements of the ethical guidelines. Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this situation. Both require psychologists to allow participants to withdraw from a research study at any time. A. refuse to assist with the research project - (Incorrect) Resigning from the project would not correct the ethical violation. B. immediately file a complaint against the psychologist with the psychology licensing board or ethics committee - (Incorrect) Although a report may eventually be necessary, it is not the best first step since this matter may be amenable to an informal resolution (answer c). D. follow the psychologist''s instructions since,‭ ‬by‭ "‬discouraging" ‬participants from leaving the group,‭ ‬you are not actually coercing them to participate - (Incorrect) This would be unethical, and in so doing, you would be violating the provisions of Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the Ethics Code and Principles II.40 and II.41 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to take action when a colleague acts in an unethical way. (Ethics Online Quiz)

Question 276

A psychologist who already has an established therapeutic relationship with a child is asked to act as an expert witness in a divorce proceeding involving custody of the child.‭ ‬The psychologist's best course of action would be to: A. decline the request to testify. B. agree to testify only if she obtains consent from both parents. C. agree to testify only if she can evaluate all of the involved parties. D. agree to testify only if her familiarity with the child won''t bias her testimony.

Answer 276

A. decline the request to testify (CORRECT) Since the psychologist has a therapeutic relationship with the child, it would be in the child's best interests for the psychologist to refrain from testifying. Instead, the psychologist’s role should be to provide the child with continued support. B. agree to testify only if she obtains consent from both parents. Incorrect - Even if both parents consent to her testimony, the psychologist would be engaging in a multiple relationship which ordinarily should be avoided in custody cases. See Standard II.7 of the APA’s Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Divorce Proceedings. C. agree to testify only if she can evaluate all of the involved parties. Incorrect - This would be the best course of action when a psychologist does not have a previous relationship with any of the involved parties. D. agree to testify only if her familiarity with the child won''t bias her testimony. Incorrect - One of the reasons that the psychologist should not testify is because it might be difficult to be objective. (Ethics Online Quiz)

Question 277

If a psychologist acts as both a fact witness for the plaintiff and an expert witness for the court in a criminal trial,‭ ‬she has acted: A. unethically by accepting dual roles. B. ethically as long as she did not have a prior relationship with the plaintiff. C. ethically as long as she clarifies her roles with all parties. D. ethically as long as she obtains a waiver from the court.

Answer 277

C. ethically as long as she clarifies her roles with all parties - (CORRECT) According to ethical guidelines, accepting multiple roles may be acceptable as long as certain conditions are met – e.g., as long as the psychologist clarifies the nature of the multiples relationships with all involved parties (see Standard 3.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). In addition, the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists states that acting as a consultant for one party and a fact witness for another may be acceptable as long as the psychologist clarifies his/her roles with both parties and acts in a way that does not compromise his/her judgment and objectivity. (Ethics Online Quiz)

Question 278

An employee is receiving counseling from a psychologist through his company's employee assistance program.‭ ‬In this situation,‭ ‬the psychologist can let the employee's supervisor know that the employee is receiving treatment: A. under no circumstance. B. only if the employee was referred to the program by the supervisor. C. only if the supervisor has signed a waiver. D. as long as no other information about the treatment is given to the supervisor.

Answer 278

B. only if the employee was referred to the program by the supervisor - (CORRECT) Confidentiality is a critical issue in employee assistance programs (EAPs). Under normal circumstances, information about an employee’s condition or treatment is not revealed without the employee's consent. Confidentiality may be breached in the context of EAP's in those situations that it can be breached in other contexts (e.g., when a client is believed to be a danger to him/herself or to others). In addition, when an employee comes for counseling as the result of a referral by his/her supervisor, the supervisor can be given limited information – i.e., the supervisor can be told if the employee kept the appointment, whether the employee needs treatment, and whether the employee has accepted treatment. The supervisor should not be given any other information about the employee without the employee’s consent. (Ethics Online Quiz)

Question 279

With regard to sexual intimacies with supervisees,‭ ‬the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations: A. Do not prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees. B. prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees under any circumstances. C. prohibit sexual relationships with current supervisees only when the relationship will impair the psychologist’s objectivity and effectiveness as a supervisor. D. prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees over whom the psychologist has evaluative authority.

Answer 279

D. prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees over whom the psychologist has evaluative authority - (CORRECT) Standard 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics prohibit psychologists from becoming involved in sexual relationships with students and supervisees over whom they have evaluative authority. Being familiar with the exact language of the ethical guidelines would have allowed you to identify the correct response to this question. (Ethics Online Quiz - 5233)

Question 280

When evaluating a defendant’s competence to stand trial,‭ ‬the focus of the evaluation is on the defendant’s: A. ability to distinguish right from wrong. B. ability to comprehend the charges against him/her. C. mental state at the time he/she committed the crime. D. DSM-IV diagnosis.

Answer 280

B. ability to comprehend the charges against him/her - (CORRECT) An evaluation for competence to stand trial focuses on the defendant’s ability to comprehend the charges against him/her, to understand the trial process, to cooperate with his/her attorney, etc. The focus of an evaluation to determine a defendant’s competence to stand trial focuses on his/her current psycholegal abilities and impairments. (Ethics Online Quiz - 5242)

Question 281

Dr.‭ ‬Ja-Hoon Jang is conducting a research study that involves interviewing junior high school students about their relationships with peers.‭ ‬Prior to beginning the study,‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Jang obtained informed consents from the parents of the students as well as assents from the students themselves.‭ ‬During the course of the study,‭ ‬one of the students says he doesn’t want to complete the interview.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Jang should: A. tell the student that he cannot withdraw from the study since one of his parents has signed an informed consent. B. tell the student that he cannot withdraw from the study since he (‬the student) ‬agreed to participate at the beginning of the study. C. contact the student’s parents to ask them to encourage their son to complete the interview. D. allow the student to withdraw from the study.

Answer 281

D. allow the student to withdraw from the study - (CORRECT) Ethical guidelines require researchers to allow participants to withdraw at any time from a research study. This answer is most consistent with this requirement. This issue is addressed by Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.24 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. (Ethics Online Q - 5231)

Question 282

Dr.‭ ‬Mansfield Mayhem receives a subpoena requiring him to testify about a current therapy client at a trial.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Mayhem contacts the client who states that she does not want him to release any confidential information to the court.‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Mayhem should: A. notify the attorney who issued the subpoena that the client has asserted the privilege and request that he be released from subpoena. B. do nothing further until he receives an order from the court to appear at the trial. C. notify the court that he will not be appearing at the trial because the client does not want him to do so. D. advise the attorney who issued the subpoena that he cannot appear as requested because the client has not given him permission to do so.

Answer 282

A. notify the attorney who issued the subpoena that the client has asserted the privilege and request that he be released from subpoena - (CORRECT) When the client invokes the privilege in this type of situation, the psychologist should contact the client’s attorney or his/her own attorney to discuss the matter. The psychologist can also contact the attorney who issued the subpoena to request to be released from it. Unless the psychologist receives a written release, he/she must appear as requested but would not reveal confidential (privileged) information without the client’s consent or without an order from the court to do so. A subpoena is a legal document that requires a psychologist to appear at a designated time at a legal proceeding. If the client invokes the privilege (says she does not want the therapist to release confidential information to the court), the subpoena is still valid and the psychologist must appear unless he/she has been released from it. (Ethics Online Q - 5135)

Question 283

The mother of a previous client of yours asks for a copy of her daughter's records. ‭ ‬The daughter saw you for two years and died three months ago when she was ‬38‭ ‬years old.‭ ‬You should: A. send the mother a copy of the records as requested. B. send the mother only the information you believe will not be harmful. C. allow the mother to inspect the records in your office. D. not release any information to the mother without appropriate authorization.

Answer 283

D. not release any information to the mother without appropriate authorization - (CORRECT) This is the best course of action of those listed in the answers. In general, a psychologist should not release information after a client's death without proper authorization from the client's legal representative. For a discussion of this issue, see R. I. Simon, Clinical psychiatry and the law, American Psychiatric Publishing, Washington, DC, 2003. Laws related to this situation vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but, in general, confidentiality does not end when a current or former client dies. (Ethics Online Quiz - 5201)

Question 284

You receive an e-mail from Dr.‭ ‬Brenda Browne,‭ ‬a licensed psychologist,‭ ‬who is currently seeing one of your former clients for a substance abuse disorder. ‭ ‬Dr.‭ ‬Browne asks you to forward the client’s file to her and states that the client has signed a release authorizing you to do so.‭ ‬You should: A. wait until you receive a request from the client before taking any action. B. contact the client to discuss the release of information. C. forward a photocopy of the file to the psychologist as requested. D. forward a summary of the file to the psychologist that includes only information related to the client’s current condition.

Answer 284

B. contact the client to discuss the release of information - (CORRECT) Dr. Browne would want to verify that the client has, in fact, signed a release and discuss the release and its potential consequences with the client before providing the psychologist with the requested information. Even though the person requesting the client’s record is a licensed psychologist, Dr. Browne would not want to breach confidentiality by providing confidential client information to her without knowing specifically what the client has consented to. (Ethics Online Quiz - 5137)

Question 285

A psychologist is the supervisor of several interns at a community hospital in a small town and notices that one of the interns seems unenthusiastic and depressed.‭ ‬When he talks to her,‭ ‬she tells him that she’s been very unhappy lately and feels she has no one to turn to.‭ ‬The intern asks the psychologist to see her in therapy,‭ ‬and he agrees to do so.‭ ‬The psychologist has acted: A. unethically by agreeing to get involved in a dual relationship. B. unethically by violating the intern''s right to privacy. C. ethically because they are working in a community hospital in a small town. D. ethically because the intern is in desperate need of help.

Answer 285

A. unethically by agreeing to get involved in a dual relationship - (CORRECT) Standard 3.05(a) of the Ethics Code states that “a psychologist refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists.” The psychologist in the situation described in this question is entering into a multiple relationship that may threaten his objectivity and effectiveness as a supervisor and therapist. In most situations, psychologists should avoid dual (multiple) relationships. See, e.g., Standard 3.05(a) of APA's Ethics Code and Principle III.33 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. B. unethically by violating the intern''s right to privacy - Incorrect There is no indication that privacy is an issue in this situation. C. ethically because they are working in a community hospital in a small town - Incorrect In some circumstances, multiple relationships may be unavoidable. However, the fact that the intern and psychologist work in a community hospital in a small town does not necessarily mean that no other options are available. D. ethically because the intern is in desperate need of help - Incorrect There is no indication that the intern is in such “desperate need of help” that she cannot wait to see another professional. (Ethics Online Q - 5121)

Question 286

A psychologist decides to use a computerized test service to facilitate scoring and interpretation of the MMPI-2,‭ ‬which he frequently administers to his clients. ‭ ‬The psychologist should be aware that: A. the use of computerized interpretations is prohibited by ethical guidelines. B. computerized scoring and interpretation services are notoriously unreliable. C. computerized interpretations should always be supplemented with other information obtained by the psychologist. D. because of their objectivity,‭ ‬computerized interpretations are preferable to subjective interpretations.

Answer 286

C. computerized interpretations should always be supplemented with other information obtained by the psychologist - (CORRECT) The information in a computerized interpretation is limited and, therefore, the best policy is to always supplement computerized interpretations with information from other tests, interviews, observations, etc. Automated scoring and interpretation services are available for a number of psychological tests including the MMPI-2. A. the use of computerized interpretations is prohibited by ethical guidelines - Incorrect The use of automated interpretation services is not prohibited by ethical guidelines as long as certain standards are met by both the service and the users of the service. B. computerized scoring and interpretation services are notoriously unreliable - Incorrect The quality of computer interpretations varies from service to service, and it cannot be concluded that all computerized interpretations are "notoriously unreliable." D. because of their objectivity,‭ ‬computerized interpretations are preferable to subjective interpretations - Incorrect The information provided by computerized interpretations is limited and the accuracy of the interpretation depends on the quality of the service. Therefore, it cannot be concluded that computerized interpretations are necessarily the preferred method of score interpretation. (Ethics Online Q - 5123)

Question 287

``` A non-custodial parent asks Dr.‭ ‬Maxine Miller,‭ ‬a school psychologist,‭ ‬for the results of the tests she recently administered to his‭ ‬5th grade son. ‭ ‬If Dr.‭ ‬Miller complies with the father’s request,‭ ‬she will have acted: A. legally and ethically. B. legally but unethically. C. illegally and unethically. D. illegally but ethically. ```

Answer 287

A. legally and ethically - (CORRECT) The laws relevant to this situation vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but, in general, non-custodial parents have the right to obtain information about their children. In California, for example, the law states that "Notwithstanding any other provision of law, access to records and information pertaining to a minor child, including but not limited to medical, dental, and school records, shall not be denied to a parent because such parent is not the child's custodial parent" (Civil Code 4600.5). The rights of non-custodial parents may be limited in terms of obtaining psychological services for their children. However, custody status does not necessarily affect access to certain kinds of information. (Ethics Online Q - 5207)

Question 288

To be consistent with ethical requirements,‭ ‬David DeFoe,‭ ‬a psychology intern,‭ ‬must do which of the following when a supervisor has legal responsibility for his work‭? A. He must tell his clients that he is a psychology intern. B. He must tell his clients that his work is being supervised. C. He must provide clients with information about his education and experience. D.He must indicate his status on his business card.

Answer 288

A. He must tell his clients that he is a psychology intern - (CORRECT) This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines which require interns (trainees) to inform their clients of their professional status. Note that Standard 10.01(c) of the Ethics Code also requires that Mr. DeFoe provide clients with the name of his supervisor. B. He must tell his clients that his work is being supervised - Incorrect Telling clients that he is being supervised would not be adequate since this would not clearly indicate that he is an intern. (Ethics Online Q - 5190)

Question 289

``` Teddy Roosevelt was weak and ill as a child but grew up to be a robust adult and coined the term‭ “‬rugged individualism.‭” ‬He also became associated with the slogan‭ “‬speak softly but carry a big stick.‭” ‬This outcome is predicted by‭ _________ ‬theory of personality. A. Adler’s B. Rogers’s C. Perls’s D. Jung’s ```

Answer 289

A. Adler’s - (CORRECT) According to Adler, real or imagined organ inferiority leads to feelings of inferiority. However, people can respond to these feelings in a constructive way and pursue goals that help them achieve superiority. This is a fairly simple question as long as you recall that Adler is associated with the concepts of "feelings of inferiority" and "striving for superiority." (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4472)

Question 290

Hypnosis is best described as a response to suggestion involving: A. a measurable physiological change. B. an alteration in memory,‭ ‬mood,‭ ‬and perception. C. increased compliance to situational demands. D. a state of‭ “‬artificial sleep.‭”

Answer 290

B. an alteration in memory,‭ ‬mood,‭ ‬and perception - (CORRECT) M. T. Orne & D. F. Dinges, for example, conclude that the unusual behaviors exhibited by hypnotized people reflect alterations in memory, perception, and mood that occur in response to suggestion (Hypnosis, in H. I. Kaplan & B. J. Sadock (eds.), Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry/V, Baltimore, Williams Wilkins, 1989). The mechanism underlying hypnosis continues to elude researchers but is generally believed to be related to increased suggestibility. A. a measurable physiological change - Incorrect No physiological mechanism has been consistently linked to the hypnotized state. C. increased compliance to situational demands - Incorrect Behaviors similar to those elicited from hypnotized individuals can also be elicited from non-hypnotized people in certain situations, suggesting that increased compliance to situational demands does not adequately explain the state of hypnosis. D. a state of‭ “‬artificial sleep.‭” - Incorrect This was the explanation offered by James Braid in the late 1840s but is no longer considered valid. (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4475)

Question 291

``` Which of the following values is least characteristic of Asians and Asian Americans‭? A. shame B. self-control C. egalitarianism D. fatalism ```

Answer 291

C. egalitarianism - (CORRECT) Egalitarianism conflicts with traditional Asian values including the value of filial piety. M. K. Ho identified 7 values that are characteristic of traditional Asian cultures and that may also apply to many Asian Americans: filial piety (respect for parents); shame; self-control; assumption of the middle position (consensus); awareness of the social milieu; fatalism; and inconspicuousness (Minority Children and Adolescents in Therapy, Newbury Park, CA, Sage, 1992). A. shame - Incorrect This is one of the values identified by Ho and others. B. self-control - Incorrect This has also been identified as a traditional Asian value. D. fatalism - Incorrect This is another value that is characteristic of Asian cultures. (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4399)

Question 292

``` A‭ ‬14-year old boy is arrested for the third time for shoplifting.‭ ‬His mother seems unconcerned and says‭ "‬he's just going through a phase.‭" ‬His father decides to go fishing on the day of the boy's court hearing,‭ ‬and his sister says she can't attend his court hearing because she has too much homework.‭ ‬From the perspective of structural family therapy,‭ ‬this family is best described as: A. disengaged. B. closed. C. emotionally‭ "‬cut-off.‭" D. skewed. ```

Answer 292

A. disengaged - (CORRECT) From the perspective of Minuchin's structural family therapy, relationships in this family are characterized by a high degree of disengagement. The family members described in this question do not seem to be involved in or concerned about the lives of other members. B. closed - Incorrect A closed system does not interact with the environment. Although this family might be a closed system, this is not what is implied by the information given in the question. C. emotionally‭ "‬cut-off.‭" - Incorrect Emotional cutoff is associated with Bowen, not Minuchin, so it is not the best answer of those given. D. skewed - Incorrect Marital skew is a term used by Lidz to describe a situation in which spouses attempt to maintain their marriage even though this requires a distortion of reality. (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4476)

Question 293

Family therapy is probably contraindicated in which of the following situations? A. The presenting problem involves long-term marital conflict. B. Family members attribute their problems to one of the members. C. One of the family members has severe depression. D. One of the family members has anorexia or bulimia.

Answer 293

C. One of the family members has severe depression - (CORRECT) Depression has been linked to a variety of factors including heredity, biochemical abnormalities, learned helplessness, hostility or aggression turned inward, and illogical schemata. It has not, however, been consistently linked with any particular family factor; and family therapy, therefore, would not be particularly useful as a treatment for this disorder. Family therapy is generally contraindicated when one family member's disturbance, while affecting the family, is basically unrelated to family processes or structure or is so disruptive that it would interfere with the success of therapy. A. The presenting problem involves long-term marital conflict - Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation. B. Family members attribute their problems to one of the members - Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation. D. One of the family members has anorexia or bulimia - Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation since eating disorders (especially anorexia and bulimia) have been linked to family factors. (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4430)

Question 294

According to Carl Rogers,‭ ‬a therapist is‭ “‬congruent‭” ‬when the therapist: A. is able to accurately‭ “‬reflect‭” ‬the client’s feelings. B. avoids becoming‭ ‬“emotionally triangulated‭” ‬with the client. C. avoids making judgments about the client’s behaviors. D. is authentic and‭ ‬nondefensive.

Answer 294

D. is authentic &‭ ‬nondefensive - (CORRECT) Congruence involves being genuine, authentic, and nondefensive. Rogers proposed that, for therapy to be effective, the therapist must provide three facilitative conditions – unconditional positive regard, congruence (genuineness), and accurate empathic understanding. A. is able to accurately‭ “‬reflect‭” ‬the client’s feelings - Incorrect This sounds more like accurate empathic understanding. B. avoids becoming‭ ‬“emotionally triangulated‭” ‬with the client - Incorrect This does not describe congruence. C. avoids making judgments about the client’s behaviors - Incorrect This describes unconditional positive regard. (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4452)

Question 295

Practitioners of Gestalt psychotherapy consider a client’s desire to talk about his/her past as: A. a useful strategy for helping the client understand the present. B. a way for the client to avoid coming to terms with the present. C. the‭ "‬second layer‭" ‬of therapy. D. a way for achieving‭ "‬closure‭" ‬near the end of therapy.

Answer 295

B. a way for the client to avoid coming to terms with the present - (CORRECT) Gestalt therapists do not deny the significance of the past. However, in therapy, they encourage clients to stay in the present even when discussing past events or feelings since focusing on the past is viewed as a way to avoid the present. Knowing that Gestaltians focus on the here-and-now in therapy would have helped you identify the correct response to this question. (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4394)

Question 296

``` For practitioners of humanistic psychotherapy,‭ ‬psychopathology is the result of: A. blocked potential. B. ‭"‬dis-integration.‭" C. unresolved conflicts. D. severe trauma. ```

Answer 296

A. blocked potential - (CORRECT) Neurosis and psychosis are generally viewed as the result of interference with the natural potential for growth and self-actualization. Therapists classified as humanists share a belief in the inherent capacity for humans to grow toward the achievement of their potential (i.e., to achieve self-actualization). (Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4467)

Question 297

You are conducting a multiple regression analysis and find that one of your predictors has a negative regression coefficient.‭ ‬This means that: A. you should eliminate that predictor from the regression equation. B. the predictor has an inverse relationship with the criterion. C. the predictor is uncorrelated with the other predictors included in the analysis. D. you have made a mistake in your data entry or calculations.

Answer 297

B. the predictor has an inverse relationship with the criterion - CORRECT A negative sign means that there is an inverse (negative) correlation between the predictor and the criterion. The size and sign of a predictor’s regression coefficient are related to the nature of the correlation between the predictor and criterion. A. you should eliminate that predictor from the regression equation - Incorrect A negative sign does not mean there is anything wrong with the predictor. C. the predictor is uncorrelated with the other predictors included in the analysis - Incorrect This is not implied by a negative regression coefficient. D. you have made a mistake in your data entry or calculations - Incorrect A negative regression coefficient is a possibility and, therefore, is not necessarily indicative of a data entry or calculation error. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4885)

Question 298

Statistical regression is a potential threat to a study’s internal validity when: A. there is a statistically different number of participants in the study’s treatment groups. B. there is a statistically significant difference in the number of participants who drop out of the different treatment groups during the course of the study. C. participants are selected for inclusion in the study because of their extremely high or low scores on the pretest. D. the researcher‭ ‬is unable to‭ ‬randomly assign participants to the different treatment groups.

Answer 298

C. participants are selected for inclusion in the study because of their extremely high or low scores on the pretest - CORRECT When participants are chosen for inclusion in a study because of their extreme scores on the pretest, it is likely that their scores will “regress to the mean” on the post-test, regardless of the effects of the treatment. This can make it difficult to ascertain the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extreme scores to “regress to the mean” on retesting – i.e., for examinees who obtained extremely high or extremely low scores on a measure to obtain scores closer to the mean when retested. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4879)

Question 299

In the context of research design,‭ ‬external validity refers to the researcher’s ability to: A. manipulate the independent variable. B. randomly assign participants to treatment groups. C. determine whether there is a causal relationship between variables. D. generalize the results of the study to other individuals,‭ ‬settings,‭ ‬and conditions.

Answer 299

D. generalize the results of the study to other individuals,‭ ‬settings,‭ ‬and conditions - CORRECT External validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a study to groups, settings, and conditions other than those used in the study. Random selection of participants from the population is one factor that helps ensure adequate external validity in terms of generalizability to other individuals. Two standards are used to judge the validity of a research study – internal and external validity. A. manipulate the independent variable - Incorrect The ability to manipulate the independent variable has a direct impact on a study’s internal validity, which refers to the ability to determine if the independent variable has affected the dependent variable. B. randomly assign participants to treatment groups - Incorrect Random assignment is important for internal validity. C. determine whether there is a causal relationship between variables - Incorrect This response describes internal (not external) validity. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4889)

Question 300

``` When the correlation between high school students‭’ ‬GPA and amount of time they spend studying each week is‭ ____‬,‭ ‬this means that about‭ ‬15%‭ ‬of variability in GPA is accounted for by amount of time spent studying. A. .02 B. .15 C. .39 D. .85 ```

Answer 300

C. .39 - CORRECT To simplify the task for this question, you could calculate the square root of .16 (rather than .15). The square root of .16 is .40, so the square root of .15 will be slightly less than .40. Therefore, of the numbers listed in the answers, the best estimate of shared variability is .39. To determine the amount of variability in one variable that is explained by variability in another variable (i.e., the amount of shared variability), you must square the correlation coefficient. Conversely, to determine the correlation coefficient when the shared variability is known, you must calculate the square root of the shared variability. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4841)

Question 301

On the basis of the results of the t-test a psychologist uses to analyze the data she collects,‭ ‬the psychologist concludes that her results are‭ "‬significant at the‭ ‬.01‭ ‬level.‭" ‬This means that: A. there is a‭ ‬1%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly reject the null hypothesis. B. there is a‭ ‬1%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly retain the null hypothesis. C. there is a‭ ‬99%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly reject the null hypothesis. D. there is a‭ ‬99%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly retain the null hypothesis.

Answer 301

A. there is a‭ ‬1%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly reject the null hypothesis - CORRECT Significance at the .01 level means that there is a 1% chance that the obtained value (e.g., the mean or the difference between means) could have occurred by chance alone given the value specified in the null hypothesis. In other words, there is a 1% probability that the null hypothesis will be incorrectly rejected (that a Type I error will be made). The level of significance (alpha) determines the location of the boundary between the regions of likely and unlikely values in the sampling distribution. When results are significant at the chosen level of significance, this means that the results are in the region of unlikely values and that the null hypothesis should be rejected. B. there is a‭ ‬1%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly retain the null hypothesis - Incorrect The probability of incorrectly retaining the null hypothesis (i.e., of retaining a false null hypothesis) is equal to beta, not alpha. C. there is a‭ ‬99%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly reject the null hypothesis - Incorrect See explanation for response a. D. there is a‭ ‬99%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly retain the null hypothesis - Incorrect Because the results are statistically significant, the psychologist will reject (not retain) the null hypothesis. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4846)

Question 302

``` When the relationship between the predictor‭ (‬the X variable‭) ‬and the criterion‭ (‬the Y variable‭) ‬is curvilinear and both variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale,‭ ‬the appropriate correlation coefficient is: A. phi. B. tau. C. rho. D. eta. ```

Answer 302

D. eta - CORRECT Eta is used to measure the relationship between two continuous (interval or ratio) variables when their relationship is nonlinear. The choice of a correlation coefficient is based on several factors including the scale of measurement of the variables and the shape of the relationship between them (linear vs. non-linear). A. phi - Incorrect The phi coefficient is appropriate when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies. B. tau - Incorrect Kendall’s tau is appropriate when both variables are measured on an ordinal scale. C. rho - Incorrect Rho (also known as the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient) is used when both variables are measured as ranks. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4844)

Question 303

When using multiple regression,‭ ‬multicollinearity occurs when: A. the predictors are highly correlated with one another. B. the criterion measures are highly correlated with one another. C. there is a low correlation between the predictors and the criterion. D. there is a high‭ (‬significant‭) ‬correlation between the predictors and the criterion.

Answer 303

A. the predictors are highly correlated with one another - CORRECT The term multicollinearity is used to describe high correlations between predictors (X variables). When choosing predictors for a multiple regression equation, the optimal condition is for each predictor to explain unique variability in the criterion. When predictors are correlated, this condition is violated. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4871)

Question 304

The denominator term in the F-ratio is‭ ‬reduced in magnitude by: A. decreasing within-group variability. B. increasing within-group variability. C. increasing between-group variability and decreasing within-group variability. D. decreasing between-group variability and increasing within-group variability

Answer 304

A. decreasing within-group variability - CORRECT Within-group variability is a measure of error; and decreasing within-group variability decreases error and the magnitude of the denominator of the F-ratio. The mean square within (MSW) is the denominator of the F-ratio and, as its name implies, is a measure of within-group variability. B. increasing within-group variability - Incorrect This would increase the size of the denominator of the F-ratio. C. increasing between-group variability and decreasing within-group variability - Incorrect MSW is a measure of within-group variability and isn't affected by between-group variability. D. decreasing between-group variability and increasing within-group variability - Incorrect (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4886)

Question 305

``` An organizational psychologist has been hired by a manufacturing company to develop a selection battery that will help the company answer the following question:‭ "‬What group‭ (‬assembly-line workers or clerical workers‭) ‬does the job applicant most closely resemble‭?" ‬Which of the following multivariate techniques would be useful for this purpose‭? A. discriminant analysis B. multiple regression C. factor analysis D. path analysis ```

Answer 305

A. discriminant analysis - CORRECT A discriminant analysis (also known as discriminant function analysis) involves using scores on two or more predictors to predict an individual's membership in a criterion group – i.e., it is used when the criterion is measured on a nominal scale. There are several methods for combining predictor scores to estimate performance or status on a criterion. When the criterion (Y variable) is group membership, discriminant analysis is an appropriate method. B. multiple regression - Incorrect Multiple regression is used to combine scores on several predictors to predict or estimate performance or status on a criterion that is measured on an interval or ratio scale. C. factor analysis - Incorrect Factor analysis is used to determine the underlying factors (attributes) that are assessed by set of measures. D. path analysis - Incorrect Path analysis is used to test a model of the causal links among a set of variables. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4874)

Question 306

``` Autocorrelation is most likely to be a problem when using which of the following research designs‭? A. time-series B. factorial C. between groups D. Solomon four-group ```

Answer 306

A. time-series - CORRECT Of the research designs listed in the answers, repeated measurement of the dependent variable is characteristic only of the time series design, which is a type of repeated measures (within subjects) design. Autocorrelation refers to the correlation between measurements of the dependent variable when it is repeatedly administered to the same participants. Autocorrelation is a problem in repeated measures designs because it can artificially inflate the value of the inferential statistic and thereby increase the probability of making a Type I error. B. factorial - Incorrect Factorial designs include two or more independent variables and do not necessarily involve repeated measurements of the dependent variable. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4866)

Question 307

LISREL‭ (‬linear structural relations analysis‭) ‬would be the appropriate method of analysis if your causal model: A. includes measured‭ (‬observed‭) ‬attributes only. B. includes latent traits only. C. includes both measured‭ (‬observed‭) ‬attributes and latent traits. D. includes both correlated and uncorrelated attributes.

Answer 307

C. includes both measured‭ (‬observed‭) ‬attributes and latent traits. - CORRECT In contrast to path analysis models, which predict the causal relationships among measured attributes only, LISREL models incorporate both measured attributes and latent traits. LISREL, a structural equation (causal) modeling technique, is used to test causal hypotheses about relationships among measured variables and the latent traits those variables are believed to measure. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4882)

Question 308

``` In a cross-sectional study designed to assess the effects of age on reaction time,‭ ‬you have adults belonging to different age groups respond to visual stimuli on a computer screen.‭ ‬A colleague suggests that the results of your study might be confounded by the fact that older participants may have less experience using a computer than do younger participants.‭ ‬This potential source of error is best described as a: A. Rosenthal effect. B. Hawthorne effect. C. carryover effect. D. cohort effect. ```

Answer 308

D. cohort effect - CORRECT “Cohort effect” refers to the confounding effects of intergenerational differences in experience or other characteristics. Cohort effects can be a source of error in cross-sectional studies (such as the study described in this question). Your colleague is predicting that your research findings will be confounded by differences in computer experience that are related to differences in age. This is often a problem in cross-sectional research. A. Rosenthal effect - Incorrect The Rosenthal effect is another name for the self-fulfilling prophecy effect and is not relevant to this situation. B. Hawthorne effect - Incorrect The Hawthorne effect refers to the tendency of research participants to act in atypical ways because they are participating in a research study (e.g., because of the novelty of the situation or the special attention they are receiving). C. carryover effect - Incorrect A carryover effect is a potential problem in within-subjects research. It occurs when exposure to one level of an independent variable impacts how participants respond to another level of the independent variable. (Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4868)

Question 309

An examinee who makes a number of confabulatory responses on the Rorschach has overgeneralized from a part of the inkblot to the whole. Such responses suggest which of the following? A. a need for immediate gratification B. high intelligence and creativity C. a high degree of defensiveness or denial D. brain damage, intellectual disability, or emotional disturbance

Answer 309

D. brain damage, intellectual disability, or emotional disturbance - As noted in the question, an examinee makes a confabulatory response (DW) when he/she overgeneralizes from a part of the inkblot to the whole inkblot -- e.g., "It looks like my father because of those eyes. My father had those same penetrating eyes." In this situation, the examinee has overgeneralized a detail of the inkblot ("penetrating eyes") so that the entire inkblot reminds him of his father. (Psych Assessment)

Question 310

A psychologist obtains a statistically significant F-ratio for the interaction between two independent variables. This means that: A. the effects of one variable are significant across all levels of the second variable. B. the effects of one variable are contingent on the level of the second variable. C. the main effects of both variables are statistically significant. D. the two variables are statistically significant only when considered jointly.

Answer 310

B. the effects of one variable are contingent on the level of the second variable - Correct - This is another way of saying that the effects of one variable are different at different levels of another variable, which is the definition of an interaction. (Stats & Res Design)