EPPP Flashcards

1
Q

mesosystem

A

the interaction or links between various microsystems

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2
Q

attachment before 1yo: critical or sensitive period?

A

sensitive

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3
Q

Piaget’s four stages (+ ages)

A

sensorimotor (birth-2yo)

preoperational (2-7yo)

concrete operational (7-11yo)

formal operational (11yo+)

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4
Q

At what age does object permanence develop?

A

3-4mo (some say as late as 8mo)

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5
Q

decalage

A

unevenness in a child’s cognitive development

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6
Q

At what age and stage does conservation develop?

A

7-11yo / concrete operational

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7
Q

Kohlberg’s three stages (+ ages)

A

preconventional morality (4-10yo)

conventional morality (10yo+)

postconventional morality (13yo+ to never)

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8
Q

preconventional morality (+ age)

A

rules and punishment 4-10yo

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9
Q

conventional morality (+ age)

A

conforming to rules to get approval from others 10yo+

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10
Q

postconventional morality (+ age)

A

moral decisions based on what is right, fair, or just 13yo+ to never

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11
Q

What was Carol Gilligan known for?

A

alternatives to Kohlberg’s theory of morality that were more female value focused (e.g., caring and compassion instead of justice and fairness)

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12
Q

Freud & Erikson’s stages

A
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13
Q

behavioral contrast

A

when someone has been reinforced for two different behaviors, and reinforcement is withdrawn for one behavior, the frequency of the other behavior will increase

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14
Q

Premack principle

A

high-frequency behaviors used to reinforce low-frequency behaviors

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15
Q

primary vs. secondary vs. tertiary prevention

A

primary: prevents the problem or disorder from occurring all together
secondary: early identification and prompt treatment of a disorder or problem that already exists
tertiary: minimizing long-term consequences of a chronic condition

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16
Q

empirical criterion keying

A

a method for choosing items on a test based on the ability to distinguish between groups (e.g., depressed vs. nondepressed)

(used by the MMPI)

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17
Q

percentiles for +1, +2, and +3 SDs (z-scores)

A

+1 SD: 84th percentile

+2 SD: 97.5 percentile

+3 SD: 99.99 percentile

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18
Q

adverse impact (I/O)

A

the 80% (or 4/5ths) rule: the percentage of minorities selected must be at least 4/5 of the percentage of non-minorities selected

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19
Q

Griggs vs. Duke Power Company

A

(1971) ruled unfair to use tests that measured broad abilities (in which whites scored higher than minorities) for decisions of hiring and promotions

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20
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

productivity increases when workers are observed

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21
Q

Theory X vs. Y vs. Z

A

Theory X: assumes workers are lazy and must be coerced and directed

Theory Y: assumes that people find satisfaction with their work and that control and punishment are not necessary to bring about good performance

Theory Z: three critical Japanese management strategies

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22
Q

LPC theory: when are low LPC and high LPC most effective as leaders?

A

low LPC: most effective as leaders in situations that are either highly favorable or unfavorable

high LPC: most effective as leaders in moderately favorable situations

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23
Q

Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory

A

different factors account for job satisfaction vs. job dissatisfaction

lower level needs: job context (only dissatisfaction)

upper level needs: job content (only satisfaction)

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24
Q

job enrichment vs. job enlargement

(and, how do each affect satisfaction and performance?)

A

job enrichment: gives employees a greater role in planning and performing their work; increases satisfaction and performance

job enlargement: expands the variety of tasks performed without increasing responsibility or autonomy; increases satisfaction but only slightly affects job performance

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25
Q

human factors approach

A

concerned with physical aspects of a job

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26
Q

ideal size of a group for group effectiveness

A

5-7 people

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27
Q

What do compressed work weeks improve?

a) turnover
b) satisfaction
c) productivity

A

turnover and satisfaction

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28
Q

alloplastic vs. autoplastic

A

alloplastic: blaming the external environment
autoplastic: blaming oneself

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29
Q

partial vs. semipartial (part) correlations

A

partial: effect of a third variable is removed from both variables
semipartial: effect of a third variable is removed from only one of the original variables

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30
Q

MMPI-2 scales: L, F, K

A

L: lie scale (high score = trying to present oneself favorably)

F: fake bad (psychosis, high distress, or cry for help)

K: guardedness (high scores = more guarded / positive)

*K correction corrects for guardness*

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31
Q

DNA and RNA have been associated with…

A

memory

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32
Q

James-Lange theory of emotion

A

bodily reaction, which is then interpreted as emotion

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33
Q

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

A

body’s response is not important in emotion (since the thalamus sends simulatneous signals to body and cortex)

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34
Q

Schacter’s two-factor theory of emotion

A

emotion is attributed to two factors: physical arousal and a cognitive labeling of the physical arousal

*proposes people look to external rather than internal cues for labeling emotions*

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35
Q

Rosenthal effect

A

self-fulfilling prophecy: expectations influence performance (e.g., being told you’re gifted before taking a test and doing better)

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36
Q

Zeigarnik effect

A

remembering unfinished business more than completed

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37
Q

ERG theory

A

three needs of existence, relatedness, & growth

(related to Maslow)

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38
Q

VIE theory

A

people will behave in ways based on their perceived expectancy of success and rewards (Vroom)

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39
Q

fluoxetine

A

Prozac

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40
Q

sertraline

A

Zoloft

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41
Q

citalopram

A

Celexa

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42
Q

escitalopram

A

Lexapro

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43
Q

duloxetine

A

Cymbalta

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44
Q

paroxetine

A

Paxil

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45
Q

neuroleptic

A

antipsychotic

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46
Q

What does the Solomon Four-Group design ward against?

A

effects of testing

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47
Q

Klinefelter’s Syndrome

A

man with an extra X chromosome

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48
Q

Thorndike’s Law of Effect

A

re: random behavior: if behavior is followed by a pleasurable consequence, it’s strengthened (also originally included that if it’s followed by a negative consequence, it’s less likely to occur in the future)

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49
Q

Tolman

A

proposed that all behavior is purposive and can occur without reinforcement; also, latent learning

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50
Q

emic

A

role of environment: using the context of cultural background to understand a person

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51
Q

etic

A

within-person: assumes there are universal principles underlying

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52
Q

nomothetic

A

observations of groups

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53
Q

idiographic

A

closely observing one or a few individuals

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54
Q

“brady” (prefix)

A

slow

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55
Q

Wolpe

A

systematic desensitization

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56
Q

Kappa coefficient

A

interrater reliability

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57
Q

left hemisphere

A

verbal + motor control

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58
Q

In which area of the brain is Broca’s area?

A

left frontal lobe

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59
Q

parietal lobes - function?

A

sensory / somatosensory

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60
Q

temporal lobes - function?

A

auditory

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61
Q

occipital lobes - function?

A

visual cortex

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62
Q

thalamus - function?

A

sensory relay center for all senses except smell (it’s critical in the perception of pain)

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63
Q

hypothalamus - function?

A

connected to the endocrine system; maintains homeostasis, including sleep-wake cycle (regulated by the suprachiasmic nucleus, or SCN)

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64
Q

basal ganglia - function?

A

regulation and coordination of movement (via inhibitory functions)

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65
Q

Which areas of the basal gangila are implicated in Huntington’s and Parkinson’s, respectively?

A

Huntington’s: caudate nucleus & putamen

Parkinson’s: substantia nigra

66
Q

ataxia

A

lack of coordination of voluntary movements (the hallmark of cerebellar disease)

67
Q

pons & medulla - function?

A

sleep, respiration, movement, cardiovascular activity

68
Q

reticular activating system (RAS) - function?

A

sleep-wake cycle

69
Q

acetylcholine (Ach)

A

voluntary movement

memory & cognition

70
Q

dopamine (DA)

A

thought, movement, & emotion

reward system of the brain

71
Q

L-Dopa (Levadopa)

A

a precursor to dopamine used to treat the movement components of Parkinson’s

72
Q

norepinephrine (NE)

A

mood (depression & mania)

pain perception & sleep

73
Q

serotonin

A

mood disorders (deficiencies implicated in depression)

dysregulation of serotonin associated with suicidality and impulsivity

74
Q

methylphenidate

A

Ritalin

75
Q

5 stages of grief (Kubler Ross)

A

DABDA

denial

anger

bargaining

depression

acceptance

76
Q

Beck’s cognitive triad

A

negative thoughts about self, world, and future

77
Q

MANOVA - multiple independent or dependent variables?

A

multiple dependent variables

78
Q

ataxia vs. apraxia

A

ataxia - medical condition (lack of coordination)

apraxia - agnosia (cannot do a familiar purposeful movement)

79
Q

introjects

A

internalized images of significant others from the past

80
Q

Self-Verification Theory

A

people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept

(people prefer to be right rather than happy)

81
Q

Thurstone

A

primary mental abilities

(that individuals possess varying degrees of subcomponents of intelligence)

82
Q

functional amnesia

A

losing autobiographical memory

(due to psychological, not medical, reasons)

83
Q

Sue & Sue’s Minority Identity Development Model

A
  1. conformity
  2. dissonance
  3. resistance & immersion
  4. integrative awareness
84
Q

declarative memory

A

explicit, long-term memories that one can consciously recall

85
Q

utilization review

A

to save money in healthcare

86
Q

What is the risk of the same diagnosis of schizophrenia for identical vs. fraternal twins?

A

identical: 46%
fraternal: 17%

87
Q

Validity is never higher than…

A

the square root of the reliability coefficient

88
Q

Does high validity assume high reliability or does high reliability assume high validity?

A

High validity assumes high reliability

89
Q

When is a factorial ANOVA used?

A

When there is more than one independent variable

90
Q

Donald Super

A

career development can be described in terms of progress through a developmental sequence of vocational stages

8 life roles

91
Q

response cost

A

negative punishment: when someone loses something (e.g., a token, privileges) for misbehavior

92
Q

What is the concordance rate of Bipolar I Disorder for identical vs. fraternal twins?

A

identical: 75-80%
fraternal: 10-25%

93
Q

Ellis

A

Rational-Emotive Therapy and “irrational beliefs”

94
Q

DRO

A

Differential Reinforcement for Other behaviors

(a combination of extinction and reinforcement)

95
Q

reciprocity hypothesis

A

people tend to like others who like them

96
Q

AAI categories

A

Adult Attachment Interview

  • autonomous
  • dismissing (contradictions and lapses in memory); have avoidant
  • preoccupied (confused, incoherent); have anxious

*** can ALSO be labeled as unresolved/disorganized ***

97
Q

What is the average effect size in psychotherapy research?

A

0.85

98
Q

What did Ellen Berschied’s research on relationships focus on?

A

how features of a relationship’s exterior influences relationship satisfaction

99
Q

seizures - types and features

A

Partial seizures: simple partial and complex partial seizures

Generalized seizures: grand mal (tonic clonic) and petit mal (absence) seizures

Simple partial seizures: electrical abnormalities in a focal area of the brain only; patient usually remains conscious

Complex partial seizures: begin with aura, then staggering, purposeless movements, and aimless wandering; consciousness is frequently impaired.

Grand mal seizures (tonic-clonic seizures): dramatic seizures that involve convulsions

Petit mal (absence seizures): begin with a brief change in level of consciousness, followed by blinking or rolling of the eyes, a blank stare, and slight mouth movements

100
Q

What are the outcomes of successful navigation of each of Erikson’s stages?

A
101
Q

prospective memory

A

remembering that one had planned to do something at a particular time

102
Q

anosagnosia

A

the lack of awareness of a disability or the lack of awareness of the nature of one’s illness

103
Q

How many years must documentation related to HIPAA be maintained?

A

6 years

104
Q

discriminant analysis

A

predicts group membership

105
Q

The most likely outcome of fetal malnutrition is…

A

reduced number of neurons

106
Q

What does Tiedeman and O’Hara’s theory of career development focus on?

A

differentiation and integration

107
Q

What does Holland’s vocational theory focus on?

A

knowledge of oneself + knowledge of the working world

108
Q

limbic system

A

emotions & memory

109
Q

What is the dopamine hypothesis?

A

schizophrenia results from an excess of dopamine

110
Q

akathisia

A

dysphoria, restlessness and agitation

(most common side effect of traditional antipsychotics)

111
Q

the Buckley Amendment

A

(1974) protected the privacy of student records

112
Q

centrism (per Piaget)

A

the preoperational child’s inability to focus on more than one aspect of a problem at a time

113
Q

Troiden’s model of gay and lesbian development

A
  1. sensitization: feels different from peers and internalizes a negative self-concept
  2. identity confusion: internal conflict
  3. identity assumption: managing social stigma
  4. commitment
114
Q

primary memory

A

a subtype of short-term memory, the memory that simply holds 7 +/- 2 bits of information for up to 30 seconds

115
Q

multiple baseline design

A

treatment is applied sequentially or consecutively across subjects, situations, or behaviors

116
Q

the Latin Square

A

the most sophisticated counterbalanced testing design

117
Q

schizoid vs. schizotypal personality disorder

A

schizoid: detachment from social relationships, and a restricted range of emotions; indifferent to interpersonal relationships

schizotypal: discomfort with and reduced capacity for close relationships, as well as oddities in cognition, ideation, appearance, and behavior

118
Q

avoidant personality disorder

A

a pattern of social discomfort and inhibition, fear and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, and feelings of inadequacy

119
Q

peripheral vs. central route

(elaboration likelihood model of persuasion)

A

peripheral: a focus on the speaker’s appearance, attractiveness, eloquence, and expertise

central: paying attention to the core message

120
Q

Rosenstock’s Health Belief Model

A

how perceptions of vulnerability and beliefs about illness influence health behaviors

121
Q

the Stanford-Binet

A

a verbal test of intelligence that is especially useful for assessing giftedness and mental retardation in children

122
Q

confidence intervals / normal distribution area under the curve for +/- 1, 2, and 3 SDs

A

+/- 1 SD: 68

+/- 2 SD: 95

+/- 3 SD: 99

123
Q

referent power

A

based on identification with and liking of someone

124
Q

cataplexy

A

brief episodes of sudden, bilateral loss of muscle tone, most often in association with intense emotion (part of narcolepsy)

125
Q

most common cause of mental retardation

A

embryonic problems

126
Q

face validity

A

what a test appears superficially to measure

127
Q

Finger agnosia is a hallmark symptom of what syndrome?

A

Gerstmann’s

128
Q

A Jacksonian seizure is a type of what kind of seizure?

A

a simple partial seizure

129
Q

redintegration

A

a type of remembering that occurs when something (e.g., a smell) unlocks a rapid chain of memories

130
Q

What is the hallmark of quasi-experimental design?

A

non-random assignment

131
Q

What kind of validity does non-random assignment affect?

A

internal validity

132
Q

external validity

A

generalizability of the results

133
Q

internal validity

A

whether something other than treatment may have caused the results

134
Q

Melanie Klein

A

Object Relations: treatment focus is on recognizing and modifying the impact of problematic early object-relationships / social relations

135
Q

neo-Freudians

A

e.g., Horney, Sullivan

view psychological disturbance as the result of faulty learning and as consisting of a characterologically maladaptive style of interacting with the environment

136
Q

Adler

A

disturbance is viewed as a result of a faulty life-style involving a struggle for power

137
Q

ego psychology

A

e.g., Anna Freud; Hartmann

focus on capacities for integration and adaptation and what is interfering with these processes

138
Q

idioms of distress

A

culturally-preferred ways of expressing distress

139
Q

orthogonal vs. oblique

A

orthogonal: variables are not correlated with each other

oblique: variabes are correlated with each other

140
Q

constructivism (per Piaget)

A

a person develops new knowledge by interacting with objects and events in the environment

141
Q

Are language impairment and/or intellectual impairment required for the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder?

A

no

142
Q

multifinality

A

similar initial conditions (e.g., severe childhood abuse) may result in different outcomes (i.e., developing PTSD or not developing PTSD)

143
Q

At which of Piaget’s stages does the ability for reversability develop?

A

concrete operations

144
Q

Eta is the coefficient of choice for what kind of relationship?

A

curvilinear

145
Q

the three components of Taylor-Russell tables

A

base rate, selection ratio, and criterion-related validity

146
Q

Does Ritalin affect dopamine or serotonin levels?

A

dopamine

147
Q

Jackson’s model of Black Identity Development

A
  1. passive-acceptance
  2. active-resistance
  3. redirection
  4. internalization
148
Q

Cross’s model of Black Identity Development

A
  1. preencounter
  2. encounter
  3. immersion-emersion
  4. internalization
  5. internalization-committment
149
Q

Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model

A
  1. contact
  2. disintegration
  3. reintegration
  4. psudo-independence
  5. immersion/emersion
  6. autonomy
150
Q

cultural paranoia

A

healthy suspiciousness that is based on real experiences of racism

151
Q

In Piaget’s framework, at what age do children shift from heteronomous morality to autonomous morality?

A

10yo

heteronomous: thinking rigidly about morality

autonomous: more flexibility

152
Q

the two substages of Kohlberg’s preconventional morality

A
  1. Punishment-Obedience (avoiding punishment)
  2. Instrumental Hedonism (hoping good deeds will be rewarded)
153
Q

the two substages of Kohlberg’s conventional morality

A
  1. Good Boy / Good Girl
  2. Law and Order
154
Q

the two substages of Kohlberg’s postconventional morality

A
  1. Morality of Contract, Individual Rights, and Democratically Accepted Laws
  2. Morality of Individual Principles of Conscience
155
Q

What are left vs. right hemisphere strokes associated with?

A

left: depression

right: apathy and indifference

156
Q

What compound do you need to minimize ingestion of if on an MAOI?

A

tyramine

157
Q

One key advantage of item-response theory?

A

can compare a subject’s performance on two measures that have different types or number of items, or are scored differently

158
Q

item response theory

A

used to calculate to what extent a specific item on a test correlates with an underlying construct

159
Q

classical test theory

A

tries to explain and deal with error so that tests are more reliable

160
Q

Per Sue and Sue, Western society has ____ locus of control and ____ locus of responsibility

A

internal & internal