EPPP Flashcards

Survive

1
Q

Which non-stimulant medication alleviates symptoms of ADHD?

A) Methylphenidate
B) Atomoxetine
C) Pemoline
D) Dextroamphetamine

A

B) Atomoxetine (Strattera)

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2
Q

Which of the following is true regarding sensory memory?

A) It has a limited capacity
B) It can hold information for up to 30 seconds
C) It is also referred to as primary memory
D) It is a representation of external stimuli

A

D) It is a representation of external stimuli

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3
Q

The effectiveness of EMDR in the tx of PTSD is due to:

A) exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli
B) Changes to the functioning of the brain due to lateral eye movement stimulation.
C) Unconditional Positive Regard
D) Placebo Effect

A

A) exposure to anxiety-provoking stimuli

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4
Q

Which of the following would be used to determine how well an examinee did on a test in terms of a specific standard of performance?

A) Norm-referenced interpretation
B) Criterion-referenced interpretation
C) Domain-referenced interpretation
D) Objectives-referenced interpretation

A

B) Criterion-referenced interpretation

The external criterion is the standard of performance. Not the norm, which only compares one’s performance to others who have taken the test.

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5
Q

From the perspective of rational emotive therapy (RET), emotional disturbances are maintained primarily by:

A) self-indoctrination
B) environmental consequences
C) social pressure
D) denial

A

A) self-indoctrination - the process by which we internalize our parents’ critical attitudes.

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6
Q

With respect to productivity, cohesive groups are associated with:

A) low levels of productivity for the group
B) high levels of productivity for the group
C) high levels of productivity when management is supportive
D) high levels of productivity when management is hostile or indifferent

A

C) high levels of productivity when management is supportive

When management is hostile, cohesive groups will work together to lower productivity to stick it to the man.

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7
Q

The APA’s position on notification of partners of clients/patients with HIV is consistent with its emphasis on:

A) duty to protect
B) confidentiality
C) informed consent
D) protection from civil or criminal liability

A

B) confidentiality

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8
Q

Divorce rates are highest for women who:

A) have a higher level of education and marry at a younger age
B) Have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age
C) Have a higher level of education and marry at an older age
D) Have a lower level of education and marry at an older age

A

B) Have a lower level of education and marry at a younger age

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9
Q

A colleague is interested in studying the effects of aging on IQ scores. The research design to recommend is:

A) longitudinal
B) cross-sectional
C) cross-sequential
D) multiple baseline

A

C) cross-sequential - it combines both cross-sectional and longitudinal aspects and is on the best scientific footing.

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10
Q

Which of the following is achieved during the operations stage?

A) magical thinking
B) decentration
C) symbolic thought
D) object permanence

A

B) decentration - meaning centration is no longer a problem. This is a concrete operational achievement.

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11
Q

A therapist routinely waives co-payments for all low-income clients. This is:

A) unethical unless the client is on welfare
B) ethical, if the psychologist does so to create a slifing scale
C) unethical
D) ethical

A

C) unethical - key word is “Co-payments,” which means working with an insurance company. This is insurance fraud.

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12
Q

The research suggests that, to control excessive aggression in children, the best approach is:

A) Time-out and other behavioral techniques
B) opportunities for catharsis
C) explaining the consequences of aggressive acts
D) social skills training

A

D) social skills training - so they learn appropriate ways to behave.

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13
Q

Which of the following theorists related career development to ego identity development?

A) Anna Freud
B) Super
C) Holland
D) Tiederman and O’Hara

A

D) Tiederman and O’Hara

Based on Erickson’s psychosocial theory of ego identity. Differentiation is learning your career is a poor fit; reintegration is identification with one’s career.

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14
Q

You learn of an ethical violation from a colleague. Informal resolution fails. Your duty is to:

A) Report colleague to ethics committee or licensure board.
B) Take no further action, so that confidentiality will be protected.
C) Report if the violation is serious.
D) Report unless confidentiality rights will be violated in the process.

A

D) Report unless confidentiality rights will be violated in the process.

Remember: confidentiality is king!

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15
Q

Reactance describes:

A) client behavior that inhibits progress in therapy.
B) emphasizing undesirable thoughts and behaviors.
C) Refusing to comply with a suggestion.
D) Turning back onto oneself what one wants to do to others.

A

C) Refusing to comply with a suggestion.

A is resistance. Reactance is increasing resistance in the face of perceived pressure.

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16
Q

According to Beck’s cognitive theory of depression:

A) cognitive distortions only occur during depression.
B) cognitive distortions are gradually made.
C) only depressed people have cog. distortions about relationships.
D) depressed individuals manifest the cognitive triad of distortions: guilt, anxiety, and hopelessness.

A

B) cognitive distortions are gradually made.

Process of elimination. The depressive triad is actually negative views of the self, the world, and the future.

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17
Q

What is the most significant problem with using a series of t-tests to analyze a data set?

A) Experimenter-wise error (Type I error)
B) Difficulty distinguishing main from interaction effects.
C) Low power (1 - beta)
D) Violating assumptions for use in parametric tests.

A

A) Experimenter-wise error (Type I error)

The key word is SERIES. The more t-tests you do, the more Type I error inflates.

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18
Q

A chronic pain patient is tested and found to be free of Axis 1 disorders, but still has substantial pain. A doctor would most likely prescribe:

A) an antipsychotic
B) an antidepressant
C) an anxiolytic
D) a narcotic painkiller.

A

B) an antidepressant

Antidepressants help people with chronic pain. Narcotic painkillers are used for ACUTE pain, not CHRONIC pain.

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19
Q

The best predictor of alcohol use in adolescents is:

A) attitude of peers and parents towards alcohol.
B) level of alcohol use by parents and peers
C) parental attitudes towards alcohol and level of use by peers
D) level of alcohol use by parents and attitude of peers towards alcohol.

A

B) level of alcohol use by parents and peers

Actual USE by both is the best predictor.

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20
Q

The period of attachment during the first year of life most resembles:

A) imprinting
B) a sensitive period
C) a critical period
D) zone of proximal development

A

B) a sensitive period. If an infant does not attach, they can still form attachments with support. It is not a CRITICAL period (meaning that damage done would be irreversible).

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21
Q

Performance on which of the following tasks is likely to be enhanced by being observed:

A) Atypical tasks
B) Difficult tasks
C) Novel Tasks
D) Routine Tasks

A

D) Routine Tasks

People watching us do new or difficult things tends to result in WORSE performance due to pressure.

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22
Q

Which of the following is considered to be the best tx for agoraphobia:

A) Flooding
B) Systematic Desensitization
C) Implosive Therapy
D) Classical Extinction

A

A) Flooding: exposure to feared stimulus (in vivo or imaginal) with response prevention.

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23
Q

The best way to remember a list of words is to:

A) generate synonyms for each word
B) generate antonyms for each word
C) visualize each word
D) generate a list of acoustically similar words.

A

C) visualize each word.

Note: A and B describe the same type of aid and both can’t be correct. And visual > aural from a depth of processing perspective

24
Q

A father nods and smiles as he is teaching his daughter to tie her shoelaces. His nods and smiles are an example of:

A) discriminative stimulus
B) a primary reinforcer
C) a secondary reinforcer
D) generalized conditioned reinforcer

A

C) a secondary reinforcer. PRIMARY reinforcers are reinforcing to EVERYONE (food, water, sex, etc). Nods and smiles are reinforcing, but not to everyone.

25
Q

Which of the following is not consistently associated with flex-time?

A) increased morale
B) decreased absenteeism
C) decreased tardiness
D) increased productivity

A

D) increased productivity.

It’s good for many work-related concerns, but it has NOT been consistently tied to boosted productivity in the research.

26
Q

A confabulation response on the Rorschach is most indicative of:

A) a thought disorder
B) Asperger’s syndrome
C) cognitive impairment
D) malingering

A

C) cognitive impairment

27
Q

Which of the following would likely be included in a tx based on Rehm’s Self-Control theory of depression?

A) modifying dysfunctional thought patterns.
B) Self-monitoring
C) Adjusting self-object needs
D) Adjusting self-reinforcement behaviors

A

C) Adjusting self-object needs - theory blends the cognitive and behavioral. The hint: C is psychodynamic and clearly differs in orientation from the other three.

28
Q

According to Patterson, delinquency results in part from poor parenting, such as threats and criticism, and non-contingent punishment and reinforcement. A direct consequence is that the child:

A) develops low self-esteem
B) develops depressed mood
C) learns to control others through coercive methods
D) does not develop impulse control and an appropriate social conscience.

A

C) learns to control others through coercive methods

A and B are INDIRECT results; they come from subsequent peer rejection. A is not a feature of Patterson’s coercion model of aggression.

29
Q

You overhear people talking about you. Person A is complementary. Person B is initially complementary and then derogatory. Person C is initially derogatory and then complimentary. You will probably like:

A) Person A best.
B) Person B best
C) Person C best.
D) all three equally.

A

C) Person C best.

We feel we have “gained” most from people who go from disliking to liking us.

30
Q

A teacher rewards students for reading books. Students tend to read the designated amount and no more, and then report that their enjoyment of reading has diminished. This can best be explained by:

A) behavioral contrast
B) overjustification
C) satiation
D) the Premarck principle

A

B) overjustification - what happens when we’re rewarded to do things we’d do without reinforcement. This drops intrinsic motivation because it becomes tied to external rewards.

31
Q

Tremors are a significant side effect of which medication?

A) Elavil
B) Lithium
C) Prozac
D) Paxil

A

B) Lithium - severe tremor can indicate lithium toxicity, which can be very dangerous and requires immediate attention.

32
Q

The most commonly used measure of operant behavior is:

A) Response time
B) Response Rate
C) Response Magnitude
D) Response Latency

A

B) Response Rate. Different schedules (fixed/variable, interval/ratio) all effect response RATES differently!

33
Q

Say Ainsworth, an avoidant infant exposed to the strange situation will be most likely to:

A) avoid the stranger and cling to mom
B) cry when mom leaves and avoid her on return.
C) avoid crying when mom leaves and rush to greet her when she returns.
D) avoid the mother on her return.

A

D) avoid the mother on her return - remember, attachment style pertains to the relationship with the mother. Avoidant infants don’t cry, and avoid mom when she returns.

34
Q

the concept of instrumental learning was introduced by:

A) Thorndike
B) Pavlov
C) Tolman
D) Kohler

A

A) Thorndike - remember his law of effect: behaviors with positive consequences are likely to be repeated. If the behavior works, keep doing it!

35
Q

DNA and RNA are associated with genetic coding. Research has also supported the finding that DNA and RNA have an effect on:

A) social behavior
B) consciousness
C) emotions
D) memory

A

D) memory - this is a common EPPP question!

36
Q

Research has looked at the harmful effects of maternal stress and anxiety in the fetus and newborn. The most consistent finding is:

A) lower IQ in the newborn
B) premature births
C) reduced sensory sensitivity in the infant
D) increased crying in the newborn

A

D) increased crying in the newborn - mom’s anxiety gets passed to the baby.

37
Q

Which best describes the relationship between HIPAA and state law?

A) HIPAA is federal and supersedes state law.
B) Overall, HIPAA tends to be stricter than state law.
C) State law supersedes HIPAA unless HIPAA is more stringent or state and federal law are contradictory
D) state lay supersedes HIPAA when state and federal law contradict.

A

C) State law supersedes HIPAA unless HIPAA is more stringent or state and federal law are contradictory - remember, the strictest law hold pride of place, whichever it is.

38
Q

A woman gets into a car accident, hits her head on the windshield and loses consciousness. She comes to see you a week later with anxiety, difficulty sleeping, and with memory and concentration problems. This is most likely due to:

A) Acute Stress Disorder
B) A head injury
C) Somatoform Disorder
D) Malingering

A

B) A head injury - this is a postconcussion syndrome. It’s not A because there would need to be other PTSD sxs present (re-experiencing, avoidance, etc.).

39
Q

Which theorist believes that maladaptive behavior results from people’s attempts to make up for perceived or real disabilities as children?

A) Freud
B) Adler
C) Horney
D) Jung

A

B) Adler - who came up with the Inferiority Complex.

40
Q

A Child is diagnosed with Mathematics Disorder but does not actually have it. This is most likely because of:

A) The student’s lack of interest in math.
B) The student being a girl.
C) Poor instruction by the teacher.
D) Peer pressure

A

C) Poor instruction by the teacher. It’s not A because a good instructor would generate interest.

41
Q

Symptoms of PMS are most prominent:

A) immediately preceding and during the first few days of menses.
B) During menses
C) During ovulation
D) During and immediately after menses.

A

A) immediately preceding and during the first few days of menses. Remember, the “P” in PMS stands for “Pre-“

42
Q

Brainstorming is most likely to be effective when it is done:

A) in a large group format
B) by individuals independently
C) in a small group format
D) in the presence of the company president.

A

B) by individuals independently - believe it or not. Perhaps because there’s no group pressure to suppress weird ideas?

43
Q

Which of the following about temporal conditioning is true?

A) The CS is presented and there is a brief delay after which the US is presented.
B) The US is presented and there is a brief delay after which the CS is presented.
C) The US is presented on a fixed schedule.
D) The CS is presented on a fixed schedule.

A

C) The US is presented on a fixed schedule. In TEMPORAL conditioning, TIME becomes the CS. Think of a dog salivating as it becomes closer to a rigidly scheduled feeding time.

44
Q

Research on goal-setting theory suggests that:

A) applicable to the performance of males but not females.
B) Applicable to females only in managerial-level jobs.
C) Applicable to females when goals are set participatively but not assigned.
D) Applicable to both males and females whether goals are set participatively or are assigned.

A

D) Applicable to both males and females whether goals are set participatively or are assigned.

45
Q

The four main stages of neural development are:

A) meiosis, mitosis, migration, and myelination
B) mitosis, meiosis, differentiation, myelination
C) differentiation, mitosis, migration, myelination
D) proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination

A

D) proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination

Grow, move, specialize, efficiency

46
Q

A lab subject heard a woman fall and cry for help. IN this “lady in distress” experiment, a person is least likely to help when tested with:

A) no others present
B) a stranger
C) a passive confederate
D) a friend

A

C) a passive confederate

47
Q

When comparing feminist therapy to a more psychodynamic approach, feminist therapy:

A) disallows the mother’s role
B) takes factors other than a woman’s view of herself into consideration’
C) relies much more on the emphasis of the biological mother
D) encourages women to call men to task for oppression of women.

A

B) takes factors other than a woman’s view of herself into consideration

It empowers women to become more self-defining, to stretch beyond preordained social roles.

48
Q

Compared to American families as a whole, American families of Chinese and FIlipino descent:

A) have higher divorce rates
B) have lower divorce rates
C) have higher divorce rates and more families with a female head
D) have lower divorce rates and fewer families with a female head

A

D) have lower divorce rates and fewer families with a female head.

Because the divorce rate is lower, there are fewer families where mom runs the show.

49
Q

Research suggests minority adolescents are more likely that whites to be in which stage of ethnic identity development:

A) identity achievement
B) moratorium
C) foreclosure
D) identity diffiusion

A

C) foreclosure - commitment to one’s ethnicity without really knowing what that means.

50
Q

Brief dynamic therapies are least likely to involve:

A) focus on specific problems
B) an emphasis on restoring the person to a previous level of functioning.
C) an attempt to engender insight into the unconsciousness
D) the use of techniques such as free association and dream interpretation

A

B) an emphasis on restoring the person to a previous level of functioning.

This is the goal of crisis intervention. Also, psychodynamic perspective sees one’s usual functioning as inherently pathological, remember!

51
Q

In the classical conditioning paradigm, backward conditioning has been found to be:

A) ineffective.
B) moderately effective
C) more effective than simultaneous conditioning.
D) more effective than delayed conditioning.

A

A) ineffective. - ringing the bell after presenting the food just means Spot will ignore the bell.

52
Q

Wernicke’s, Broca’s, and Conduction Aphasia share which of the following difficulties?

A) Repeating what is said.
B) word prosody.
C) Reception
D) Expression

A

A) Repeating what is said. This problem applies to all three. Prosody isn’t affected by ANY of them!

53
Q

Significant evidence of retrograde and anterograde amnesia, restlessness, and fluent aphasia are most characteristic of which stage of Alzheimer’s Dementia?

A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth

A

B) Second - beyond simple short-term memory loss, but not at the level of severe impairment in most areas (stage 3). There is no 4th stage.

54
Q

Hypnosis would least likely be used in the treatment of:

A) Substance Use
B) OCD
C) Specific Phobia
D) Chronic Pain

A

B) OCD - hypnosis isn’t indicated for those with difficulty relinquishing control, as in OCD. Same goes for paranoia.

55
Q

Overcorrection typically involves:

A) restitution, guided movement, and positive practice
B) restitution, positive practice, negative reinforcement
C) positive practice, cognitive reattribution, and community reintegration
D) Restitution, negative reinforcement, cognitive reattribution.

A

A) restitution, guided movement, and positive practice

Restitution: fix what you did wrong.
Positive practice: practice adaptive replacement behaviors repeatedly.

56
Q

According to Brady, the best tx for reducing phobic anxiety is one that entails:

A) in vivo exposure to the anxiety-producing stimulus
B) systematic desensitization and imaginal exposure
C) hierarchical implosion therapy
D) graded participant modeling

A

A) in vivo exposure to the anxiety-producing stimulus

The more similar the intervention to reality, the better.

57
Q

From the perspective of Beck’s cognitive therapy, suicidal individuals are characterized by a high degree of hopelessness coupled with:

A) maladaptive interpretations
B) poor problem-solving skills
C) the “cognitive triad”
D) impulsivity

A

B) poor problem-solving skills