EPPP

Question 1

What is the primary assumption of psychodynamic therapy?

Answer 1

Human behavior is motivated largely by unconscious processes

This assumption underscores many psychodynamic theories, highlighting the significance of unconscious influences on behavior.

Question 2

List the three components of Freudian personality.

Answer 2

• Id (pleasure principle)
• Ego (reality principle)
• Superego (internalization of societal values)

These components interact to shape human behavior and personality.

Question 3

What are defense mechanisms according to Freudian theory?

Answer 3

Unconscious processes that deny or distort reality

Examples include repression, projection, and reaction formation.

Question 4

What is Adler’s teleological approach?

Answer 4

Behaviors are motivated by future goals, not past events

This perspective emphasizes the importance of future aspirations in shaping behavior.

Question 5

Define ‘style of life’ in Adler’s individual psychology.

Answer 5

The specific way a person compensates for inferiority to achieve superiority

This concept is central to understanding individual behavior in Adlerian therapy.

Question 6

What does Jung’s concept of the collective unconscious refer to?

Answer 6

A repository of latent memory traces from generations, containing archetypes

Archetypes are universal symbols that influence individual experiences.

Question 7

What is the goal of Jung’s individuation process?

Answer 7

Integration of conscious and unconscious aspects of the psyche

This leads to the development of a unique identity.

Question 8

What is Object Relations Theory primarily concerned with?

Answer 8

The innate drive for seeking relationships with others

Key figures include Klein, Mahler, and Kernberg who contributed to this theory.

Question 9

What is the separation-individuation phase according to Mahler?

Answer 9

A developmental stage where a child explores and develops a permanent sense of self

This phase typically occurs around 4-5 months of age.

Question 10

What are the three facilitative conditions of Person-Centered Therapy?

Answer 10

• Unconditional positive regard
• Genuineness/congruence
• Accurate empathic understanding

These conditions are essential for fostering client growth and self-actualization.

Question 11

What does Gestalt therapy emphasize?

Answer 11

Awareness of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in the ‘here and now’

It aims to help clients take responsibility for their own experiences.

Question 12

What is the main focus of existential therapy?

Answer 12

Personal choice and responsibility to develop a meaningful life

It addresses ultimate concerns such as freedom, power, and meaning.

Question 13

Fill in the blank: In Reality Therapy, people are responsible for their _______.

Answer 13

[choices]

This approach emphasizes the importance of understanding how choices impact mental health.

Question 14

What are the six stages of change in the transtheoretical model?

Answer 14

• Precontemplation
• Contemplation
• Preparation
• Action
• Maintenance
• Termination

These stages describe the process individuals go through when changing behavior.

Question 15

What is the primary goal of interpersonal therapy?

Answer 15

Symptom reduction and improved interpersonal functioning

It focuses on current social relationships and problem areas.

Question 16

Define ‘double-blind communication’.

Answer 16

Conflicting negative injunctions that lead to confusion and can contribute to schizophrenia

This communication pattern prevents individuals from seeking help or commenting on the situation.

Question 17

What is the primary goal of structural family therapy?

Answer 17

Restructuring the family to adapt to stressors

It addresses issues related to family boundaries and hierarchies.

Question 18

List the three chronic boundary problems identified in structural family therapy.

Answer 18

• Detouring
• Stable coalition
• Triangulation

These problems can inhibit family functioning and adaptability.

Question 19

What is the focus of strategic family therapy?

Answer 19

Alleviating current symptoms by altering family transactions and organization

This approach emphasizes the role of communication in dysfunctional behaviors.

Question 20

What does the term ‘projective identification’ refer to in Object Relations Family Therapy?

Answer 20

When a family member projects old introjects onto another family member

This can lead to dysfunctional interactions and misunderstandings within the family.

Question 21

What are the formative stages in group therapy according to Yalom?

Answer 21

• Orientation
• Conflict
• Development of cohesiveness

These stages outline the progression of group dynamics and therapeutic factors.

Question 22

What is the main focus of feminist therapy?

Answer 22

Nonsexist therapeutic approaches and self-in-relation theory

This therapy emphasizes the importance of understanding women’s experiences and societal roles.

Question 23

What are the three formative stages in group therapy according to Yalom?

Answer 23

1. Orientation, hesitant participation, search for meaning, dependency
2. Conflict, dominance, rebellion
3. Development of cohesiveness

Question 24

What are the therapeutic factors identified by Yalom?

Answer 24

• Instillation of hope
• Universality
• Altruism
• Learning
• Guidance
• Identification
• Catharsis
• Cohesiveness
• Self-understanding

Question 25

What is the role of the therapist in group therapy?

Answer 25

Creation and maintenance of group, culture building, activation and illumination of the here-and-now

Question 26

True or False: Yalom considers concurrent individual and group therapy necessary for all clients.

Answer 26

False

Question 27

What can prescreening reduce regarding group therapy?

Answer 27

Dropout rates (10-35%)

Question 28

What is the focus of Feminist Therapy?

Answer 28

Power differences between women and men and their impact on behavior

Question 29

What are maladaptive behaviors considered to be related to in Feminist Therapy?

Answer 29

Transitional feminine roles or conflicts inherent to these roles

Question 30

What are the goals of Feminist Therapy?

Answer 30

Identifying and altering oppressive forces in society that affect clients' lives, empowerment

Question 31

Fill in the blank: Nonsexist therapy focuses more on _______ factors and modifying personal behavior.

Answer 31

individual

Question 32

What does the Self-in-relation theory propose?

Answer 32

Many gender differences can be traced to differences in mother-daughter and mother-son relationships

Question 33

What is hypnosis effective for?

Answer 33

* Chronic pain * Acute stress disorder * Anxiety * Obesity * Insomnia

Question 34

What are the proposed benefits of acupuncture?

Answer 34

Release of endorphins, alteration in blood flow, effective for pain

Question 35

What does reflexology aim to restore?

Answer 35

The body’s balance and energy flow

Question 36

What are the three types of prevention in community psychology?

Answer 36

* Primary * Secondary * Tertiary

Question 37

What is the Health Belief Model?

Answer 37

Proposes that health behaviors are influenced by readiness to act, evaluation of benefits/costs, and cues to action

Question 38

What is the first stage of the consultation process?

Answer 38

Entry

Question 39

What is the difference between efficacy and effectiveness research?

Answer 39

Efficacy: controlled trials; Effectiveness: real-world applicability

Question 40

Who conducted the first meta-analysis in psychotherapy research?

Answer 40

Smith, Glass, and Miller

Question 41

What is the dose-dependent effect in therapy?

Answer 41

Improvement levels off at around 26 sessions

Question 42

What are the most common problems among older adults?

Answer 42

* Anxiety * Cognitive impairment * Depression

Question 43

What is the focus of psychosocial interventions for IPV survivors?

Answer 43

* Access to physical resources * Safety * Psychoeducation

Question 44

What is the placebo effect?

Answer 44

Providing participants with nonspecific factors of psychotherapy which impact outcomes

Question 45

What is the difference between alloplastic and autoplastic interventions?

Answer 45

* Alloplastic: changes in environment * Autoplastic: changes in individual

Question 46

What is cultural encapsulation?

Answer 46

When therapists define everyone’s reality according to their own cultural assumptions

Question 47

What does the multisystems model address?

Answer 47

Multiple systems and empowers family by utilizing its strengths

Question 48

What are the four categories of acculturation status according to Barry?

Answer 48

* Integration * Assimilation * Separation * Marginalization

Question 49

What is the significance of worldview in therapy?

Answer 49

It reflects how a person perceives their relationship to nature, other people, and institutions

Question 50

What is the main goal of identity development models?

Answer 50

To understand the stages individuals go through in developing their racial or cultural identity

Question 51

What is internalized oppression?

Answer 51

Acting against the system and embracing a negative self-perception

Question 52

What is heterosexism?

Answer 52

Cultural ideologies promoting hostility against LGBTQAI+ individuals

Question 53

What is the split-self syndrome?

Answer 53

Polarizing oneself into 'good' and 'bad' parts regarding identity

Question 54

What is Stage 1 of the Identity Development Model (Atkinson)?

Answer 54

Conformity – positive toward dominant culture, negative attitudes towards own culture; therapist from majority group ## Footnote This stage reflects an individual's alignment with the dominant cultural norms while rejecting their own cultural identity.

Question 55

What occurs in Stage 2 of the Identity Development Model (Atkinson)?

Answer 55

Dissonance – confusion and conflict over the contradictory positive and negative attitudes toward the self and toward others of the same and other groups, prefer therapist of color ## Footnote This stage involves a struggle with conflicting feelings about one's identity and the identities of others.

Question 56

Describe Stage 3 of the Identity Development Model (Atkinson).

Answer 56

Resistance and Immersion: rejection of dominant, positive attitude toward own culture, prefer therapist of same culture ## Footnote This stage signifies a strong embrace of one's own culture and a rejection of the dominant culture.

Question 57

What is the focus of Stage 4 in the Identity Development Model (Atkinson)?

Answer 57

Introspection: uncertainty about rigidity of beliefs in Stage 3, conflicts between loyalty and responsibility toward one’s group and personal autonomy, prefer therapist from own group, but open ## Footnote This stage involves reflection on one's beliefs and a balance between group loyalty and personal growth.

Question 58

What characterizes Stage 5 of the Identity Development Model (Atkinson)?

Answer 58

Integrative Awareness: sense of self-fulfillment with regard to their cultural identity, strong desire to eliminate oppression, multicultural perspective, prefer therapist with same values/attitudes/beliefs ## Footnote This stage reflects a comprehensive understanding and acceptance of one's cultural identity.

Question 59

What is the Pre-encounter stage in the Black Racial Identity Development Model (Cross)?

Answer 59

Race and racial identity have low salience, assimilation substage – adopted the mainstream identity, anti-Black substage – accepted negative beliefs about Black people, prefer White therapist ## Footnote Individuals in this stage are often unaware of their racial identity and may internalize negative stereotypes.

Question 60

What happens during the Encounter stage in the Black Racial Identity Development Model (Cross)?

Answer 60

Exposure to single significant race-related event leads to greater cultural awareness and interest in developing Black identity, prefer therapist of same race ## Footnote This stage is often triggered by a pivotal experience that raises awareness of racial identity.

Question 61

Describe the Immersion-Emersion stage in the Black Racial Identity Development Model (Cross).

Answer 61

Race/racial identity high salience, immersion substage – idealizes Black people/culture with rage toward White people, emersion substage – individual rejects all aspects of White culture, begins internalizing a Black identity ## Footnote This stage represents a deep engagement with Black identity and a rejection of White cultural influences.

Question 62

What occurs in the Internalization stage of the Black Racial Identity Development Model (Cross)?

Answer 62

Race has high salience, adopted one of three identities: pro-Black, non-racist (Afrocentric), biculturist orientation (both Black and White identity), or multiculturalist orientation (integrates Black identity with two or more salient racial identities) ## Footnote Individuals begin to develop a stable racial identity that incorporates various aspects of their experience.

Question 63

What is the Contact status in the White Racial Identity Development Model (Helms)?

Answer 63

Little awareness of racism and their racial identity, denial, obliviousness ## Footnote This stage reflects a lack of understanding regarding race and its implications.

Question 64

What characterizes the Disintegration status in the White Racial Identity Development Model (Helms)?

Answer 64

Increasing awareness of race and racism leads to confusion/emotional conflict, over-identifying with POC, act paternalistic, suppression of information and ambivalence ## Footnote Individuals begin to confront their awareness of racial issues but struggle with their implications.

Question 65

What is the Reintegration status in the White Racial Identity Development Model (Helms)?

Answer 65

Attempts to resolve moral dilemmas associated with the disintegration status by idealizing White society and denigrating POC, selective perception and out-group distortion ## Footnote This stage often involves a retreat to a more comfortable racial identity while rejecting others.

Question 66

What occurs during the Pseudo-Independence status in the White Racial Identity Development Model (Helms)?

Answer 66

Personally jarring event causes person to question their racist views and acknowledge role that White people have had in racism, selective perception and reshaping reality ## Footnote This stage signifies a critical reflection on personal beliefs about race.

Question 67

Describe the Immersion-Emersion status in the White Racial Identity Development Model (Helms).

Answer 67

Explores what it means to be White, confronts biases, understands White privilege, hypervigilance and reshaping ## Footnote Individuals engage deeply with their racial identity and the privileges associated with it.

Question 68

What defines the Autonomy status in the White Racial Identity Development Model (Helms)?

Answer 68

Internalization of a non-racist White identity that includes an appreciation and respect for racial differences/similarities, flexibility and complexity ## Footnote This stage reflects a mature understanding of race and identity.

Question 69

What are the four types of interactions based on a White therapist’s identity?

Answer 69

* Parallel interaction * Progressive interaction * Regressive interaction * Crossed interaction ## Footnote These interactions depend on the level of racial identity development of both the therapist and the client.

Question 70

What is Stage 1 of the Affectional orientation identity development model (Troiden)?

Answer 70

Sensitization/Feeling Different – individual feels different from peers (middle childhood) ## Footnote This stage marks the beginning of awareness of one's sexual orientation.

Question 71

What happens in Stage 2 of the Affectional orientation identity development model (Troiden)?

Answer 71

Self-recognition /Identity confusion: realizes that they are attracted to people of the same sex, turmoil/confusion (puberty) ## Footnote Individuals experience confusion and emotional turmoil regarding their sexual identity.

Question 72

Describe Stage 3 of the Affectional orientation identity development model (Troiden).

Answer 72

Identity assumption -becomes more certain of gay identity, trying to “pass”, aligning selves with gay community, acting in stereotypical “gay” ways ## Footnote This stage involves embracing one's identity and engaging with the community.

Question 73

What is the focus of Stage 4 in the Affectional orientation identity development model (Troiden)?

Answer 73

Commitment/identity integration – adopted a way of life congruent with a gay identity and publicly disclose their identity ## Footnote This stage signifies a full acceptance and public acknowledgment of one's sexual orientation.

Question 74

What is the first stage of D’Augelli’s Model of LGB identity development?

Answer 74

Exiting Heterosexual Identity: recognizing one’s identity as not het, coming out as LGB ## Footnote This stage represents the first steps in acknowledging a non-heterosexual identity.

Question 75

What occurs during the Developing a personal LGB identity status in D’Augelli’s Model?

Answer 75

Individuals learn from others what it means to be LGB while challenging internalized myths ## Footnote This stage involves education and self-discovery regarding one’s sexual orientation.

Question 76

Describe the Developing a LGB social identity stage in D’Augelli’s Model.

Answer 76

Goal of this process is to develop a support network of people who know and accept one’s orientation ## Footnote Building a community and support system is crucial in this stage.

Question 77

What happens in the Becoming a LGB offspring stage of D’Augelli’s Model?

Answer 77

Disclosing one’s identity to their parents ## Footnote This stage marks a significant moment in the coming out process.

Question 78

What is the focus of the Developing a LGB intimacy status in D’Augelli’s Model?

Answer 78

Lack of cultural scripts about LGB intimate relationships, forces the emergence of personal, couple-specific, community norms ## Footnote This stage addresses the unique challenges faced in LGB relationships.

Question 79

What characterizes the Entering a LGB community stage in D’Augelli’s Model?

Answer 79

Commitment to political and social action, changing social barriers ## Footnote This stage emphasizes activism and community involvement.

Question 80

What is the first stage of transgender identity development?

Answer 80

Mind-body dissonance ## Footnote This stage reflects the initial recognition of a disconnect between gender identity and physical appearance.

Question 81

What occurs during the second stage of transgender identity development?

Answer 81

Compensate, manage and hide conflicting identities ## Footnote Individuals navigate the complexities of their identities in this stage.

Question 82

Describe the third stage of transgender identity development.

Answer 82

Transitioning ## Footnote This stage involves taking steps to align one's physical appearance with their gender identity.

Question 83

What are key terms in Research-Based Consultation Models and Processes?

Answer 83

* EBTs * Telepsychology * Healthcare systems * Health promotion * Resilience * Triangular model ## Footnote These terms are essential for understanding the context of consultation models.

Question 84

What are EBTs?

Answer 84

Evidence-Based Treatments that can be conveyed effectively in non-research and community-based settings ## Footnote EBTs are crucial for ensuring effective therapeutic practices.

Question 85

Define telepsychology.

Answer 85

Provision of psychological services using telecommunication technologies ## Footnote Telepsychology has become increasingly relevant in modern therapeutic practices.

Question 86

What is a key consideration in telepsychology regarding client symptomology?

Answer 86

Inclusion and exclusion criteria for clients – more complex/severe symptomology more difficult to treat via telehealth ## Footnote Certain conditions may present challenges in a telehealth context.

Question 87

What is a significant challenge in rapport-building during telepsychology?

Answer 87

Telehealth can dilute the rapport-building process, attend to how you present on camera ## Footnote Maintaining a strong therapeutic relationship is crucial, even in a virtual setting.

Question 88

What is the recommended telepsychology environment?

Answer 88

When possible, have an in-person location ## Footnote Having a backup plan for emergencies is important in telehealth.

Question 89

What is a documented emergency plan in telepsychology?

Answer 89

A plan that outlines procedures for handling emergencies during teletherapy sessions ## Footnote This is essential for client safety.

Question 90

What are the three healthcare system models?

Answer 90

* Private model * Beveridge model (public) * Bismarck model (mix of private and public funds) ## Footnote Understanding these models helps in navigating healthcare systems.

Question 91

What is health promotion?

Answer 91

Various efforts to encourage healthy behaviors – mass media ads, internet-based education ## Footnote Health promotion strategies are crucial for public health.

Question 92

Define resilience in a psychological context.

Answer 92

Psychological capacity to cope with socio-environmental challenges ## Footnote Resilience is essential for mental health and well-being.

Question 93

What does the Triangular model in contemporary theories of supervision emphasize?

Answer 93

Organizational policies and professional knowledge form the foundation with the supervisor relationship at the core with ultimate emphasis on providing services to the clients ## Footnote This model highlights the importance of supervision in effective client service.

Question 94

What does DSM-5-TR stand for?

Answer 94

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition, Text Revision

Question 95

What type of approach does DSM-5-TR use for mental disorders?

Answer 95

Categorical approach

Question 96

What does 'diagnostic uncertainty' indicate in DSM-5-TR?

Answer 96

Indicates uncertainty in diagnosis using terms like 'other specified disorder' or 'unspecified disorder'

Question 97

What is a provisional specifier in DSM-5-TR?

Answer 97

Used when there is not enough information to confirm a diagnosis, but full criteria will likely be met

Question 98

What are cross-cutting symptom measures used for?

Answer 98

To monitor progress in treatment and assess symptoms important across mental health diagnoses

Question 99

What does WHODAS 2.0 assess?

Answer 99

Individual's ability levels in 6 domains: understanding and communicating, getting around, self-care, getting along with people, life activities, participation in society

Question 100

What is the cultural formulation interview (CFI)?

Answer 100

A 16-question interview aimed to gather information on client's views regarding social/cultural context of their problems

Question 101

What are cultural syndromes?

Answer 101

Clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular cultural group

Question 102

What defines an Intellectual Development Disorder?

Answer 102

1) Deficits in intellectual functions, 2) Deficits in adaptive functioning, 3) Onset during developmental period

Question 103

What is the typical age range for the onset of childhood-onset fluency disorder (stuttering)?

Answer 103

Between 2-7 years

Question 104

What are the diagnostic criteria for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?

Answer 104

1) Persistent deficits in social communication, 2) Restricted and repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, and activities

Question 105

What is the gender prevalence for ADHD?

Answer 105

More prevalent in males (2:1 in children, 1.6:1 in adults)

Question 106

What are the three subtypes of ADHD?

Answer 106

* Predominantly inattentive * Predominantly hyperactive-impulsive * Combined presentation

Question 107

What is required for a diagnosis of Specific Learning Disorder?

Answer 107

Duration of 6 months, related to reading, writing, or math, beginning during school-age years

Question 108

What characterizes Tourette's disorder?

Answer 108

Presence of at least one vocal and multiple motor tics, lasting at least 1 year before age 18

Question 109

What is behavioral pediatrics?

Answer 109

A branch of behavioral medicine focused on psychological aspects of children's medical illnesses

Question 110

What are the main symptoms of schizophrenia?

Answer 110

* Delusions * Hallucinations * Disorganized thinking * Grossly disorganized or abnormal motor behavior * Negative symptoms

Question 111

What is the prevalence rate of schizophrenia?

Answer 111

0.3-0.7%, slightly lower for females

Question 112

What is the dopamine hypothesis in relation to schizophrenia?

Answer 112

Schizophrenia is a result of elevated dopamine and/or oversensitive dopamine receptors

Question 113

What defines Bipolar I Disorder?

Answer 113

One manic episode for at least 1 week with associated symptoms

Question 114

What is the average age of first episode for Bipolar I Disorder?

Answer 114

22 years

Question 115

What are the symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)?

Answer 115

Presence of 5 symptoms nearly every day for 2 weeks, including depressed mood or loss of interest

Question 116

What is the risk factor for suicide related to age?

Answer 116

Males aged 75+ have the highest rate of suicide

Question 117

What are early warning signs of suicidal thoughts/behavior?

Answer 117

* Threatening self-harm or suicide * Writing/talking about death * Seeking means * Making preparations

Question 118

What is the gender demographic with higher suicide attempts?

Answer 118

Female – higher attempts

Question 119

Which racial group has the highest rate of suicide attempts?

Answer 119

American Indian/Alaska Native followed by White

Question 120

What marital statuses are associated with higher suicide rates?

Answer 120

Divorced, separated, widowed

Question 121

Name some groups with higher than average suicide attempts.

Answer 121

* Veterans * Rural areas * People in certain industries (mining, construction) * LGBTQ

Question 122

What percentage of people who die by suicide have made at least one previous attempt?

Answer 122

60-80%

Question 123

List three early warning signs of suicidal behavior.

Answer 123

* Threatening self-harm or suicide * Writing/talking about death/suicide * Seeking means, making preparations

Question 124

What life stressors are commonly linked to suicidal behavior?

Answer 124

* Failure at work/school * Rejection * Living alone * Isolation

Question 125

Which psychiatric disorders are associated with higher suicide risk?

Answer 125

* Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) * Bipolar Disorder

Question 126

What personality traits correlate with suicidal behavior?

Answer 126

* Hopelessness * Perfectionism

Question 127

What biological factor is correlated with suicide risk?

Answer 127

Low serotonin levels

Question 128

What is the purpose of hospitalization in suicide intervention?

Answer 128

For someone who has attempted suicide or is at imminent risk

Question 129

What is outpatient crisis intervention used for?

Answer 129

Moderate risk for suicide, addressing social isolation, lethal means access, relieving anger/anxiety, finding reasons to live

Question 130

What is safety planning in the context of suicide prevention?

Answer 130

An effective intervention strategy

Question 131

What is separation anxiety disorder characterized by?

Answer 131

Excessive fear about separation from home or attachment figures

Question 132

What are three symptoms of separation anxiety disorder?

Answer 132

* Recurrent distress when anticipating/experiencing separation * Persistent fear about being alone * Complaints of physical symptoms

Question 133

What is the duration requirement for separation anxiety disorder in children/teens and adults?

Answer 133

* 4 weeks in children/teens * 6 months in adults

Question 134

What is school refusal associated with?

Answer 134

Intense anxiety about going to school, often accompanied by physical symptoms

Question 135

What is specific phobia?

Answer 135

Intense fear of a specific object or situation, leading to avoidance or enduring it with marked distress

Question 136

What is the minimum duration for symptoms of specific phobia?

Answer 136

6 months

Question 137

What factors contribute to the etiology of phobias?

Answer 137

* Biological factors * Cognitive factors * Classical conditioning

Question 138

What is the two-factor theory in the context of phobias?

Answer 138

Attributes phobias to avoidance conditioning, combining classical and operant conditioning

Question 139

What are the treatment options for specific phobias?

Answer 139

* Exposure with response prevention * Behavioral techniques * Cognitive techniques

Question 140

What constitutes Social Anxiety Disorder?

Answer 140

Fear/anxiety about social situations where one may be scrutinized or negatively evaluated

Question 141

What is the minimum duration for symptoms of Social Anxiety Disorder?

Answer 141

At least 6 months

Question 142

What are some treatments for Social Anxiety Disorder?

Answer 142

* Exposure with response prevention * Social skills training * Cognitive restructuring * SSRIs/SNRIs * Propranolol

Question 143

What characterizes panic disorder?

Answer 143

Recurrent unexpected panic attacks followed by persistent concern about additional attacks or their consequences

Question 144

What is the prevalence of panic disorder in teens/adults?

Answer 144

2-3% with females having double the rate of males

Question 145

What is the treatment of choice for panic disorder?

Answer 145

Cognitive behavioral interventions that incorporate exposure

Question 146

What defines agoraphobia?

Answer 146

Marked fear about at least two specific situations where escape might be difficult

Question 147

What is generalized anxiety disorder characterized by?

Answer 147

Excessive worry about multiple events or activities that is difficult to control for at least 6 months

Question 148

What is the treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?

Answer 148

* Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) * Pharmacotherapy

Question 149

What are the key features of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

Answer 149

* Obsessions: unwanted intrusive thoughts * Compulsions: behaviors the person feels driven to perform

Question 150

What are the treatment options for OCD?

Answer 150

* Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) * SSRIs * Thought stopping

Question 151

What is Body Dysmorphic Disorder?

Answer 151

Preoccupation with a perceived defect in appearance that is minor or unobservable by others

Question 152

What is hoarding disorder characterized by?

Answer 152

Difficulty discarding possessions, causing cluttered living areas

Question 153

What is Reactive Attachment Disorder?

Answer 153

Inhibited and emotionally withdrawn behavior towards adult caregivers due to insufficient care

Question 154

What are the symptoms of PTSD?

Answer 154

* Exposure to traumatic event * Intrusive thoughts * Avoidance of reminders * Negative changes in mood and cognition

Question 155

What is the treatment for PTSD?

Answer 155

* Comprehensive cognitive-behavioral intervention * SSRIs * Cognitive incident stress debriefing (CISD) * EMDR (controversial)

Question 156

What characterizes acute stress disorder?

Answer 156

Symptoms that occur after exposure to a traumatic event lasting from 3 days to 1 month

Question 157

What is an adjustment disorder?

Answer 157

Emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to psychosocial stressors within 3 months of stressor onset

Question 158

What is prolonged grief disorder?

Answer 158

Intense yearning for the deceased and preoccupation with thoughts or memories of the deceased lasting at least 12 months

Question 159

What is dissociative identity disorder?

Answer 159

Presence of two or more distinct personality states with recurrent gaps in recall of ordinary events

Question 160

What is dissociative amnesia?

Answer 160

Inability to recall important personal information often related to trauma

Question 161

What distinguishes somatic symptom disorder?

Answer 161

One or more somatic complaints causing distress, with excessive thoughts and behaviors related to symptoms

Question 162

What is the duration requirement for somatic symptom disorder?

Answer 162

6 months or more

Question 163

What is the main feature of illness anxiety disorder?

Answer 163

Worry about having a serious illness in the absence of somatic symptoms

Question 164

What defines functional neurological symptoms disorder (conversion disorder)?

Answer 164

Disturbance in motor or sensory functioning with no medical evidence

Question 165

What is factitious disorder?

Answer 165

Falsifying symptoms for self or others without external reward

Question 166

What distinguishes malingering from factitious disorder?

Answer 166

Malingering involves intentional symptom production for external reward

Question 167

What is anorexia nervosa characterized by?

Answer 167

Restriction of food intake resulting in significantly low body weight and intense fear of weight gain

Question 168

What is the treatment for anorexia nervosa?

Answer 168

* Weight gain * Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) * Family-based treatments

Question 169

What is bulimia characterized by?

Answer 169

Recurrent binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain

Question 170

What is the treatment for bulimia?

Answer 170

* Gain control over eating * Modify dysfunctional beliefs about food * CBT * Nutritional counseling

Question 171

What is binge eating disorder?

Answer 171

Recurrent binge eating without compensatory behaviors

Question 172

What is enuresis?

Answer 172

Bedwetting or inappropriate urination occurring at least twice a week for 3 months

Question 173

What is the treatment for enuresis?

Answer 173

Bell and pad method, also some medications

Question 174

What is insomnia disorder?

Answer 174

Difficulty initiating or maintaining sleep occurring at least 3 times a week for 3 months

Question 175

What is hypersomnolence disorder?

Answer 175

Excessive sleepiness despite adequate sleep, occurring at least 3 times a week for 3 months

Question 176

What characterizes narcolepsy?

Answer 176

Recurrent episodes of the need to sleep occurring at least 3 times a week for 3 months

Question 177

What are non-REM sleep arousal disorders?

Answer 177

Disorders occurring during Stage 3 or 4 sleep, such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors

Question 178

What is erectile disorder?

Answer 178

Difficulty obtaining or maintaining an erection during sexual activity for at least 6 months

Question 179

What is genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder?

Answer 179

Recurrent difficulties with vaginal penetration and pelvic pain occurring for at least 6 months

Question 180

What defines premature ejaculation?

Answer 180

Ejaculation occurring within 1 minute or before desired for at least 6 months

Question 181

What is gender dysphoria?

Answer 181

Incongruence between one's assigned gender and experienced gender lasting at least 6 months

Question 182

What are paraphilic disorders?

Answer 182

Disorders involving atypical sexual interests, such as frotteuristic disorder and transvestic disorder

Question 183

What are the symptoms of Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)?

Answer 183

* Angry/irritable mood * Argumentative/defiant behavior * Vindictiveness

Question 184

What is Intermittent Explosive Disorder characterized by?

Answer 184

Behavioral outbursts due to inability to control aggressive impulses

Question 185

What defines conduct disorder?

Answer 185

Behavior that violates the basic rights of others, including aggression and deceitfulness

Question 186

What is the etiology of conduct disorder according to Moffit?

Answer 186

* Life-course persistent type * Adolescence-limited type

Question 187

What is a common treatment for substance use disorders?

Answer 187

* Medication and therapy * Cognitive Behavioral Therapy * Family/couple therapy * 12-step programs

Question 188

What is the relapse prevention effect?

Answer 188

Viewing relapse as a mistake due to specific, external, controllable factors

Question 189

What defines alcohol withdrawal delirium?

Answer 189

Prominent issues with attention, awareness, and cognition following reduction/stoppage of alcohol use

Question 190

What is major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease characterized by?

Answer 190

Insidious onset and gradual progression of impairment in cognitive domains

Question 191

What are the stages of Alzheimer's disease?

Answer 191

* Stage 1: Anterograde amnesia, deficits in visuospatial skills * Stage 2: Increasing retrograde amnesia, agitation, and cognitive decline

Question 192

What is required for a definite diagnosis of major neurocognitive disorder?

Answer 192

Autopsy or brain biopsy.

Question 193

List the symptoms of Stage 1 of major neurocognitive disorder (1-3 years).

Answer 193

* Anterograde amnesia * Deficits in visuospatial skills (wandering) * Indifference * Irritability/sadness * Anomia

Question 194

What are the symptoms of Stage 2 of major neurocognitive disorder (2-10 years)?

Answer 194

* Increasing retrograde amnesia * Flat/labile mood * Restlessness/agitation * Delusions * Fluent aphasia * Acalculia * Apraxia

Question 195

What characterizes Stage 3 of major neurocognitive disorder (8-12 years)?

Answer 195

* Severe deterioration in intellectual functioning * Apathy * Limb rigidity * Incontinence

Question 196

What are the etiological factors for major neurocognitive disorder?

Answer 196

* Abnormal levels of Acetylcholine * Genetic factors * Lower levels of education * Diabetes * Depression * Traumatic brain injury (TBI) * Down syndrome

Question 197

What are the treatment options for major neurocognitive disorder?

Answer 197

* Group therapy * Behavioral techniques * Antipsychotic medications * Antidepressants * Environmental manipulation to enhance memory/cognitive functioning

Question 198

What is the defining feature of vascular neurocognitive disorder?

Answer 198

Evidence of a cerebrovascular disease from history or exam.

Question 199

What characterizes the course of vascular neurocognitive disorder?

Answer 199

* Acute onset with partial recovery * Stepwise decline * Progressive course with fluctuations in severity of symptoms

Question 200

What are the effects of neurocognitive disorder due to HIV?

Answer 200

* Impaired concentration/memory * Slowed psychomotor speed * Apathy and depression * Tremor * Clumsiness * Movement disorders

Question 201

What defines Cluster A personality disorders?

Answer 201

Odd or eccentric behaviors.

Question 202

Describe paranoid personality disorder.

Answer 202

* Distrust/suspiciousness * Interprets behaviors of others as malevolent * Bears grudges * Hostile * Quickly reacts out of anger

Question 203

What is the main characteristic of schizoid personality disorder?

Answer 203

Detachment from interpersonal relationships and restricted range of emotional expression.

Question 204

What distinguishes schizotypal personality disorder?

Answer 204

* Pervasive social and interpersonal deficits * Discomfort in close relationships * Eccentricities in cognition, perception, behavior

Question 205

What defines Cluster B personality disorders?

Answer 205

Emotional and erratic behaviors.

Question 206

What are the criteria for antisocial personality disorder?

Answer 206

* Disregard for and violation of the rights of others * Occurred since age 15 * Failure to conform to social norms * Deceitfulness * Impulsivity * Irritability and aggressiveness

Question 207

What is a common age range for borderline personality disorder?

Answer 207

19-34 years.

Question 208

What is the etiology of borderline personality disorder?

Answer 208

* Disturbance in attachment in early development * Adverse unpredictable caregiver-child interactions * Biosocial model – invalidating environment

Question 209

What are the characteristics of histrionic personality disorder?

Answer 209

* Emotionality * Attention-seeking * Discomfort when not center of attention * Sexually inappropriate behaviors * Exaggerated expression

Question 210

What defines narcissistic personality disorder?

Answer 210

* Grandiosity * Need for admiration * Lack of empathy * Exploitative behavior

Question 211

What characterizes Cluster C personality disorders?

Answer 211

Anxiety and fear-based behaviors.

Question 212

What are the symptoms of avoidant personality disorder?

Answer 212

* Social inhibition * Feelings of inadequacy * Hypersensitivity to negative evaluation * Fear of criticism/rejection

Question 213

What defines dependent personality disorder?

Answer 213

* Need to be taken care of * Submissive clinging behavior * Fear of separation * Helpless/uncomfortable when alone

Question 214

What are the characteristics of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)?

Answer 214

* Preoccupation with orderliness * Perfectionism * Mental/interpersonal control that limits flexibility * Worry about details/rules

Question 215

What are ethical standards in psychology?

Answer 215

Mandatory enforceable standards that govern psychologist’s behavior in all settings ## Footnote The general principles and preamble are considered aspirational.

Question 216

What should psychologists do when there is a conflict between ethical and legal requirements?

Answer 216

Resolve the conflict in a way that is in keeping with the basic principles of human rights.

Question 217

What are pro bono services?

Answer 217

Professional services provided without charge.

Question 218

Are pro bono services required for psychologists?

Answer 218

Recommended but not required.

Question 219

What is Principle A of the general principles?

Answer 219

Beneficence and Nonmalificence.

Question 220

What does Principle A state?

Answer 220

Do no harm, and benefit those with whom you work, minimize harm when conflicts occur.

Question 221

What is the focus of Principle B?

Answer 221

Fidelity and responsibility.

Question 222

What does Principle B emphasize?

Answer 222

Establish relationships of trust and uphold professional standards of conduct.

Question 223

What is the key concept of Principle C?

Answer 223

Integrity.

Question 224

What does Principle C promote?

Answer 224

Accuracy, honesty, and truthfulness.

Question 225

What is the focus of Principle D?

Answer 225

Justice.

Question 226

What does Principle D ensure?

Answer 226

Fairness and justice entitle all persons the access to and benefit from the contributions of psychology.

Question 227

What rights are emphasized in Principle E?

Answer 227

Respect for people’s rights and dignity.

Question 228

What does Standard 1 address?

Answer 228

Resolving Ethical Issues.

Question 229

What action should be taken in case of ethical violations by colleagues?

Answer 229

First handle the matter informally. If substantial harm has been done, make a formal report.

Question 230

What is the definition of competence in Standard 2?

Answer 230

Determined by education, training, experience, etc.

Question 231

What is vicarious liability?

Answer 231

Supervisors and employers may be legally responsible for the actions of their supervisees/employees.

Question 232

What is required of psychologists regarding personal problems?

Answer 232

Refrain from initiating activities when personal problems interfere with professional activities.

Question 233

What is the recommended approach when a patient stirs up troubling feelings?

Answer 233

Better to refer the patient than to treat the individual themselves.

Question 234

How is sexual harassment defined?

Answer 234

Behaviors that are sexual in nature, unwelcome, offensive, and create a hostile work environment.

Question 235

What should be considered in resolving multiple relationships?

Answer 235

Consultation and discussing potential conflicts with the client.

Question 236

What are the three factors to consider regarding multiple relationships according to Gottlieb?

Answer 236

* Power differential * Duration of the relationship * Clarity of termination

Question 237

What are the elements of informed consent?

Answer 237

* Capacity * Comprehension * Voluntariness

Question 238

What is the definition of privacy?

Answer 238

Freedom of individuals to choose when and how to share their beliefs/behaviors/options.

Question 239

What is confidentiality in psychology?

Answer 239

Obligation of psychologists to protect clients from unauthorized disclosure of information.

Question 240

What is privilege in the context of legal proceedings?

Answer 240

Legal concept that protects a client’s confidentiality.

Question 241

What are acceptable breaches of confidentiality?

Answer 241

* Client is a danger to themselves * Client is a danger to others * Client is the perpetrator or victim of child abuse

Question 242

What must psychologists do regarding limits of confidentiality?

Answer 242

Share the limits of confidentiality at the outset of therapy.

Question 243

What is required regarding client testimonials?

Answer 243

Not banned, but prohibits soliciting testimonials from current therapy clients.

Question 244

What is the recommendation for record keeping duration?

Answer 244

Keep records until 7 years after the last date of services for adults, 3 years after a minor reaches age of majority.

Question 245

What is prohibited regarding billing for services?

Answer 245

Psychologists must NOT bill third party payors for services that they have not rendered.

Question 246

What is required regarding informed consent for research?

Answer 246

Must include purpose of the research, right to decline, risks, limits of confidentiality, potential benefits.

Question 247

What is deception in research?

Answer 247

Justified use of deception if prospective value of the study outweighs the need for fully informed consent.

Question 248

What must be ensured when conducting research with animal subjects?

Answer 248

Handling of animals complies with laws and professional standards.

Question 249

What type of credit is given in publication?

Answer 249

Based on each person’s contribution rather than their status.

Question 250

What must psychologists indicate regarding assessment results?

Answer 250

Must indicate limitations to their conclusions.

Question 251

What should be done with test data?

Answer 251

Protect integrity and security of test materials and provide data to clients when appropriate.

Question 252

What is the definition of informed consent for therapy?

Answer 252

Provide clients with all information that might influence their decision to participate in therapy.

Question 253

What factors should be considered regarding sexual intimacies with clients?

Answer 253

* Amount of time that has passed * Nature, duration, intensity of therapy * Circumstances of termination * Likelihood of adverse impact on client

Question 254

What should psychologists do if they need to terminate therapy?

Answer 254

Provide referrals and pretermination counseling.

Question 255

What do the general guidelines for providers of psychological services include?

Answer 255

Aspirational principles for all providers of psychological services.

Question 256

What is the focus of specialty guidelines for forensic psychology?

Answer 256

Recognize potential conflicts of interest and threats to objectivity in multiple relationships.

Question 257

What is required when providing psychological services to culturally diverse populations?

Answer 257

Be aware of the limits of competence and seek consultation when necessary.

Question 258

What can psychologists do if a client objects to an examination ordered by the court?

Answer 258

Conduct the exam even if the client objects or does not consent ## Footnote Psychologists may postpone the exam and notify the retaining party about the examinee’s unwillingness to proceed.

Question 259

What is the primary focus of child custody evaluations?

Answer 259

Determining the psychological best interests of the child ## Footnote Child's welfare is of paramount importance.

Question 260

What should psychologists be aware of when working with culturally diverse populations?

Answer 260

Limits of competence, self-awareness, and cultural biases ## Footnote They should seek consultation and make referrals as necessary.

Question 261

What is required for informed consent in psychological evaluations?

Answer 261

Attempt to obtain informed consent using understandable language ## Footnote If unable, provide an explanation and seek assent from examinee.

Question 262

What is the role of a fact witness in court?

Answer 262

Testifies to what they have seen, heard, or observed ## Footnote Not allowed to offer opinions.

Question 263

Define 'competence to stand trial'.

Answer 263

Defendant lacks sufficient present ability to consult with their lawyer ## Footnote Based on mental illness.

Question 264

What are the static and dynamic risk factors for predicting violence?

Answer 264

Static: age at first violent offense, parent criminality Dynamic: substance use, social support, impulse control ## Footnote Past history of violence is the most important predictor.

Question 265

What should psychologists do when responding to a subpoena?

Answer 265

Determine if the subpoena is legally valid; if valid, consult with the client before disclosure ## Footnote If client does not consent, negotiation or seeking guidance from the court may be necessary.

Question 266

What is HIPAA's Privacy Rule?

Answer 266

Requires providers to inform patients of privacy policies and secure patient records ## Footnote Does not require authorization for routine treatment, payment, or operations.

Question 267

What is the purpose of cost-benefit analysis?

Answer 267

Comparing costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms ## Footnote Used to evaluate the financial efficacy of psychological interventions.

Question 268

What is the definition of 'insanity' in a legal context?

Answer 268

Person is not guilty by reason of insanity if they lack substantial capacity to appreciate wrongfulness ## Footnote Due to mental illness.

Question 269

What factors are associated with sexual misconduct in psychology?

Answer 269

Male gender, age in 40s, prior non-sexual boundary crossing ## Footnote These factors increase the risk of misconduct.

Question 270

What should psychologists consider regarding telepsychology?

Answer 270

Develop skills for telepsychology technologies and assess suitability for clients ## Footnote Informed consent is critical for telehealth services.

Question 271

Fill in the blank: The legal right given to a person to be responsible for another person is known as _______.

Answer 271

Guardianship

Question 272

What are the guidelines for maintaining confidentiality in telepsychology?

Answer 272

Inform clients of risks to confidentiality and secure data transmission ## Footnote Breaches must be reported to clients.

Question 273

What is the difference between expert witness and fact witness?

Answer 273

Expert witness offers opinions based on specialized knowledge; fact witness provides testimony based on observations ## Footnote Expert witnesses can address hypothetical scenarios.

Question 274

True or False: Psychologists can provide opinions on a person’s psychological characteristics without conducting an examination.

Answer 274

False

Question 275

What are the conditions for a malpractice claim?

Answer 275

Plaintiff must prove a standard of care existed and was deviated from ## Footnote Evidence is required to establish a claim.

Question 276

What is the significance of cultural awareness in psychological practice?

Answer 276

Helps eliminate biases that may impact work with clients ## Footnote Psychologists should strive for self-awareness.

Question 277

What should be done if a psychologist cannot practice in a client’s requested language?

Answer 277

Make an appropriate referral or offer a translator ## Footnote A trained paraprofessional from the client’s culture may also be utilized.

Question 278

What is a cost-utility analysis?

Answer 278

Evaluates interventions by comparing costs with the value of outcomes in terms of healthy years of life ## Footnote Used to assess the effectiveness of health interventions.

Question 279

What are ethical standards in psychology?

Answer 279

Mandatory enforceable standards that govern psychologist’s behavior in all settings ## Footnote The general principles and preamble are considered aspirational.

Question 280

What should psychologists do when there is a conflict between ethical and legal requirements?

Answer 280

Resolve the conflict in a way that is in keeping with the basic principles of human rights.

Question 281

What are pro bono services?

Answer 281

Professional services provided without charge.

Question 282

Are pro bono services required for psychologists?

Answer 282

Recommended but not required.

Question 283

What is Principle A of the general principles?

Answer 283

Beneficence and Nonmalificence.

Question 284

What does Principle A state?

Answer 284

Do no harm, and benefit those with whom you work, minimize harm when conflicts occur.

Question 285

What is the focus of Principle B?

Answer 285

Fidelity and responsibility.

Question 286

What does Principle B emphasize?

Answer 286

Establish relationships of trust and uphold professional standards of conduct.

Question 287

What is the key concept of Principle C?

Answer 287

Integrity.

Question 288

What does Principle C promote?

Answer 288

Accuracy, honesty, and truthfulness.

Question 289

What is the focus of Principle D?

Answer 289

Justice.

Question 290

What does Principle D ensure?

Answer 290

Fairness and justice entitle all persons the access to and benefit from the contributions of psychology.

Question 291

What rights are emphasized in Principle E?

Answer 291

Respect for people’s rights and dignity.

Question 292

What does Standard 1 address?

Answer 292

Resolving Ethical Issues.

Question 293

What action should be taken in case of ethical violations by colleagues?

Answer 293

First handle the matter informally. If substantial harm has been done, make a formal report.

Question 294

What is the definition of competence in Standard 2?

Answer 294

Determined by education, training, experience, etc.

Question 295

What is vicarious liability?

Answer 295

Supervisors and employers may be legally responsible for the actions of their supervisees/employees.

Question 296

What is required of psychologists regarding personal problems?

Answer 296

Refrain from initiating activities when personal problems interfere with professional activities.

Question 297

What is the recommended approach when a patient stirs up troubling feelings?

Answer 297

Better to refer the patient than to treat the individual themselves.

Question 298

How is sexual harassment defined?

Answer 298

Behaviors that are sexual in nature, unwelcome, offensive, and create a hostile work environment.

Question 299

What should be considered in resolving multiple relationships?

Answer 299

Consultation and discussing potential conflicts with the client.

Question 300

What are the three factors to consider regarding multiple relationships according to Gottlieb?

Answer 300

* Power differential * Duration of the relationship * Clarity of termination

Question 301

What are the elements of informed consent?

Answer 301

* Capacity * Comprehension * Voluntariness

Question 302

What is the definition of privacy?

Answer 302

Freedom of individuals to choose when and how to share their beliefs/behaviors/options.

Question 303

What is confidentiality in psychology?

Answer 303

Obligation of psychologists to protect clients from unauthorized disclosure of information.

Question 304

What is privilege in the context of legal proceedings?

Answer 304

Legal concept that protects a client’s confidentiality.

Question 305

What are acceptable breaches of confidentiality?

Answer 305

* Client is a danger to themselves * Client is a danger to others * Client is the perpetrator or victim of child abuse

Question 306

What must psychologists do regarding limits of confidentiality?

Answer 306

Share the limits of confidentiality at the outset of therapy.

Question 307

What is required regarding client testimonials?

Answer 307

Not banned, but prohibits soliciting testimonials from current therapy clients.

Question 308

What is the recommendation for record keeping duration?

Answer 308

Keep records until 7 years after the last date of services for adults, 3 years after a minor reaches age of majority.

Question 309

What is prohibited regarding billing for services?

Answer 309

Psychologists must NOT bill third party payors for services that they have not rendered.

Question 310

What is required regarding informed consent for research?

Answer 310

Must include purpose of the research, right to decline, risks, limits of confidentiality, potential benefits.

Question 311

What is deception in research?

Answer 311

Justified use of deception if prospective value of the study outweighs the need for fully informed consent.

Question 312

What must be ensured when conducting research with animal subjects?

Answer 312

Handling of animals complies with laws and professional standards.

Question 313

What type of credit is given in publication?

Answer 313

Based on each person’s contribution rather than their status.

Question 314

What must psychologists indicate regarding assessment results?

Answer 314

Must indicate limitations to their conclusions.

Question 315

What should be done with test data?

Answer 315

Protect integrity and security of test materials and provide data to clients when appropriate.

Question 316

What is the definition of informed consent for therapy?

Answer 316

Provide clients with all information that might influence their decision to participate in therapy.

Question 317

What factors should be considered regarding sexual intimacies with clients?

Answer 317

* Amount of time that has passed * Nature, duration, intensity of therapy * Circumstances of termination * Likelihood of adverse impact on client

Question 318

What should psychologists do if they need to terminate therapy?

Answer 318

Provide referrals and pretermination counseling.

Question 319

What do the general guidelines for providers of psychological services include?

Answer 319

Aspirational principles for all providers of psychological services.

Question 320

What is the focus of specialty guidelines for forensic psychology?

Answer 320

Recognize potential conflicts of interest and threats to objectivity in multiple relationships.

Question 321

What is required when providing psychological services to culturally diverse populations?

Answer 321

Be aware of the limits of competence and seek consultation when necessary.

Question 322

What can psychologists do if a client objects to an examination ordered by the court?

Answer 322

Conduct the exam even if the client objects or does not consent ## Footnote Psychologists may postpone the exam and notify the retaining party about the examinee’s unwillingness to proceed.

Question 323

What is the primary focus of child custody evaluations?

Answer 323

Determining the psychological best interests of the child ## Footnote Child's welfare is of paramount importance.

Question 324

What should psychologists be aware of when working with culturally diverse populations?

Answer 324

Limits of competence, self-awareness, and cultural biases ## Footnote They should seek consultation and make referrals as necessary.

Question 325

What is required for informed consent in psychological evaluations?

Answer 325

Attempt to obtain informed consent using understandable language ## Footnote If unable, provide an explanation and seek assent from examinee.

Question 326

What is the role of a fact witness in court?

Answer 326

Testifies to what they have seen, heard, or observed ## Footnote Not allowed to offer opinions.

Question 327

Define 'competence to stand trial'.

Answer 327

Defendant lacks sufficient present ability to consult with their lawyer ## Footnote Based on mental illness.

Question 328

What are the static and dynamic risk factors for predicting violence?

Answer 328

Static: age at first violent offense, parent criminality Dynamic: substance use, social support, impulse control ## Footnote Past history of violence is the most important predictor.

Question 329

What should psychologists do when responding to a subpoena?

Answer 329

Determine if the subpoena is legally valid; if valid, consult with the client before disclosure ## Footnote If client does not consent, negotiation or seeking guidance from the court may be necessary.

Question 330

What is HIPAA's Privacy Rule?

Answer 330

Requires providers to inform patients of privacy policies and secure patient records ## Footnote Does not require authorization for routine treatment, payment, or operations.

Question 331

What is the purpose of cost-benefit analysis?

Answer 331

Comparing costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms ## Footnote Used to evaluate the financial efficacy of psychological interventions.

Question 332

What is the definition of 'insanity' in a legal context?

Answer 332

Person is not guilty by reason of insanity if they lack substantial capacity to appreciate wrongfulness ## Footnote Due to mental illness.

Question 333

What factors are associated with sexual misconduct in psychology?

Answer 333

Male gender, age in 40s, prior non-sexual boundary crossing ## Footnote These factors increase the risk of misconduct.

Question 334

What should psychologists consider regarding telepsychology?

Answer 334

Develop skills for telepsychology technologies and assess suitability for clients ## Footnote Informed consent is critical for telehealth services.

Question 335

Fill in the blank: The legal right given to a person to be responsible for another person is known as _______.

Answer 335

Guardianship

Question 336

What are the guidelines for maintaining confidentiality in telepsychology?

Answer 336

Inform clients of risks to confidentiality and secure data transmission ## Footnote Breaches must be reported to clients.

Question 337

What is the difference between expert witness and fact witness?

Answer 337

Expert witness offers opinions based on specialized knowledge; fact witness provides testimony based on observations ## Footnote Expert witnesses can address hypothetical scenarios.

Question 338

True or False: Psychologists can provide opinions on a person’s psychological characteristics without conducting an examination.

Answer 338

False

Question 339

What are the conditions for a malpractice claim?

Answer 339

Plaintiff must prove a standard of care existed and was deviated from ## Footnote Evidence is required to establish a claim.

Question 340

What is the significance of cultural awareness in psychological practice?

Answer 340

Helps eliminate biases that may impact work with clients ## Footnote Psychologists should strive for self-awareness.

Question 341

What should be done if a psychologist cannot practice in a client’s requested language?

Answer 341

Make an appropriate referral or offer a translator ## Footnote A trained paraprofessional from the client’s culture may also be utilized.

Question 342

What is a cost-utility analysis?

Answer 342

Evaluates interventions by comparing costs with the value of outcomes in terms of healthy years of life ## Footnote Used to assess the effectiveness of health interventions.

Question 343

What is job analysis?

Answer 343

A systemic method for collecting information needed to describe job requirements ## Footnote It serves as a basis for developing criterion measures and supports recruitment, selection, planning, and training.

Question 344

What are the methods of job analysis?

Answer 344

* Observing employees perform * Interviewing employees/supervisors/others * Reviewing company records * Job diary

Question 345

What are job-oriented methods?

Answer 345

Methods that provide information about the traits of the tasks performed on the job.

Question 346

What are worker-oriented methods?

Answer 346

Methods that provide information about the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics needed to perform the job.

Question 347

What is job evaluation?

Answer 347

Determining the relative worth of jobs to set salaries and wages.

Question 348

What is the purpose of job evaluations?

Answer 348

To establish comparable worth and ensure people performing work of comparable value receive comparable pay.

Question 349

What are the types of criterion measures?

Answer 349

* Objective (direct) measures * Subjective measures

Question 350

What are objective measures?

Answer 350

Quantitative measures of production such as units produced, sold, rejected, absenteeism, and tardiness.

Question 351

What are subjective measures?

Answer 351

Ratings that reflect the judgment of the rater, such as ratings by supervisors, peers, or self-ratings.

Question 352

What is the ultimate criterion?

Answer 352

An accurate and complete measure of performance.

Question 353

What is the actual criterion?

Answer 353

The way that performance is actually measured.

Question 354

What does relevance refer to in criterion measures?

Answer 354

The actual criterion’s construct validity, or the degree to which it measures the ultimate criterion.

Question 355

What is deficiency in the context of criterion measures?

Answer 355

The degree to which an actual criterion does NOT measure all aspects of the ultimate criterion.

Question 356

What is contamination in criterion measures?

Answer 356

Occurs when an actual criterion assesses factors other than those it was designed to measure.

Question 357

What are relative techniques in subjective criterion measures?

Answer 357

Comparative techniques requiring the rater to compare the performance of two or more employees to each other.

Question 358

What are absolute techniques in subjective criterion measures?

Answer 358

Provide information on a ratee’s performance without reference to other employees.

Question 359

What is the paired comparison technique?

Answer 359

A relative technique where the rater compares each ratee with every other ratee in pairs.

Question 360

What is forced distribution in rating techniques?

Answer 360

A relative technique assigning ratees to a limited number of categories based on normal distribution.

Question 361

What is the critical incident technique?

Answer 361

An absolute technique that derives a checklist of critical incidents for evaluation.

Question 362

What is a forced-choice rating scale?

Answer 362

An absolute technique with 2-4 alternatives that are considered about equal in desirability.

Question 363

What is a graphic rating scale?

Answer 363

An absolute technique where the rater indicates performance level on a Likert-type scale.

Question 364

What is a behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)?

Answer 364

An absolute technique identifying independent dimensions of job behavior with behavioral anchors.

Question 365

What is leniency/strictness bias?

Answer 365

When a rater avoids the middle range of a rating scale, rating all employees either high or low.

Question 366

What is central tendency bias?

Answer 366

When a rater consistently uses only the middle range of the rating scale.

Question 367

What is halo bias?

Answer 367

When a rater’s evaluation of an employee on one dimension impacts evaluations on other unrelated dimensions.

Question 368

What is frame-of-reference (FOR) training?

Answer 368

Training to improve rating accuracy by providing raters with a common understanding of job performance.

Question 369

What is reliability in the context of predictor evaluation?

Answer 369

The extent to which performance on a measure is unaffected by measurement error.

Question 370

What is validity in the context of predictor evaluation?

Answer 370

The degree to which the measure actually assesses what it was designed to assess.

Question 371

What are the steps in evaluating criterion-related validity?

Answer 371

* Conduct a job analysis * Select/develop the predictor * Administer the predictor and criterion * Correlate predictor and criterion scores * Check for adverse impact * Evaluate incremental validity * Cross-validate with a new sample

Question 372

What is adverse impact?

Answer 372

When a selection test discriminates against members of a legally protected group, resulting in different selection rates.

Question 373

What is the 80% (4/5s) rule?

Answer 373

A rule often used to determine if a procedure has an adverse impact.

Question 374

What is differential validity?

Answer 374

When there is a significant difference in validity obtained for subgroups.

Question 375

What is unfairness in selection procedures?

Answer 375

When members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on the predictor than members of another group.

Question 376

What is business necessity in the context of adverse impact?

Answer 376

Proving that the measure is job-related and required for the safe operation of the business.

Question 377

What is a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ)?

Answer 377

A characteristic that is essential to the job, such as gender for specific roles.

Question 378

What is incremental validity?

Answer 378

The increase in decision-making accuracy achieved by using the predictor for selection decisions.

Question 379

What is the selection ratio?

Answer 379

The ratio of job openings to job applicants.

Question 380

What is the base rate?

Answer 380

The percent of employees performing satisfactorily without the predictor, ranging from 0 to 1.0.

Question 381

What do Taylor-Russell tables estimate?

Answer 381

The percent of new hires that will be successful as employees based on validity coefficients, selection ratios, and base rates.

Question 382

What is multiple regression in combining predictors?

Answer 382

A method where predictor scores are weighted and summed to yield an estimated criterion score.

Question 383

What is multiple cutoff in selection methods?

Answer 383

A noncompensatory method where a minimum score on each predictor must be obtained.

Question 384

What are general mental ability tests (GMA tests)?

Answer 384

Tests that produce the highest validity coefficients across jobs/job settings.

Question 385

What are job knowledge tests?

Answer 385

Tests that have validity coefficients similar or even larger than those for GMA.

Question 386

What are personality tests used for in organizations?

Answer 386

Useful predictors, with the Big 5 personality traits being the best predictor of job performance.

Question 387

What are interest inventories based on?

Answer 387

The premise that applicants whose interest profiles resemble successful employees will perform best.

Question 388

What is biodata (biographical data)?

Answer 388

Assumes that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior.

Question 389

What is job analysis?

Answer 389

A systemic method for collecting information needed to describe job requirements.

Question 390

What are the methods of job analysis?

Answer 390

* Observing employees * Interviewing employees/supervisors/others * Reviewing company records * Job diary

Question 391

What is the difference between job-oriented and worker-oriented methods?

Answer 391

* Job-oriented methods – provide info about the traits of tasks performed. * Worker-oriented methods – provide info about the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics needed.

Question 392

Define job evaluation.

Answer 392

Determining the relative worth of jobs to set salaries and wages.

Question 393

What is the purpose of job evaluations?

Answer 393

To establish comparable worth and eliminate gender differences in wages.

Question 394

What are objective criterion measures?

Answer 394

Quantitative measures of production such as units produced, sold, rejected, absenteeism, tardiness.

Question 395

What are subjective criterion measures?

Answer 395

Ratings that reflect the judgment of the rater, such as ratings by supervisors, peers, or self-ratings.

Question 396

Differentiate between ultimate and actual criterion.

Answer 396

* Ultimate – an accurate and complete measure of performance. * Actual – the way that performance is actually measured.

Question 397

What does contamination refer to in criterion measures?

Answer 397

Occurs when an actual criterion assesses factors other than those it was designed to measure.

Question 398

What is the paired comparison rating technique?

Answer 398

A relative technique where the rater compares each ratee with every other ratee in pairs on a dimension of job performance.

Question 399

What is the forced distribution rating technique?

Answer 399

A relative technique that assigns ratees to a limited number of categories based on normal distribution.

Question 400

Define the critical incident technique.

Answer 400

An absolute technique that derives a checklist of critical incidents to evaluate performance.

Question 401

What is the graphic rating scale?

Answer 401

An absolute technique where the rater indicates performance on a Likert-type scale.

Question 402

What is frame-of-reference (FOR) training?

Answer 402

Training to improve rating accuracy by providing raters with a common understanding of job performance.

Question 403

What is the 80% (4/5s) rule?

Answer 403

Often used to determine if a selection procedure has an adverse impact on a protected group.

Question 404

What is incremental validity?

Answer 404

The increase in decision-making accuracy achieved by using a predictor for selection decisions.

Question 405

What are Taylor-Russell tables used for?

Answer 405

To estimate the percent of new hires that will be successful based on validity coefficients, selection ratios, and base rates.

Question 406

List the predictors used in organizations.

Answer 406

* General mental ability tests * Job knowledge tests * Personality tests * Interest inventories * Biodata * Interviews * Work samples * Assessment centers

Question 407

What are the four levels of evaluation criteria for training programs?

Answer 407

* Reaction criteria * Learning criteria * Behavioral criteria * Results criteria

Question 408

What is the purpose of utility analysis?

Answer 408

To evaluate the effectiveness of training programs and estimate institutional gain or loss.

Question 409

What are the stages of Super's lifespan theory of career development?

Answer 409

* Growth (0-14 years) * Exploration (14-25) * Establishment (25-45) * Maintenance (45-65) * Disengagement (65+)

Question 410

Define RIASEC.

Answer 410

A model emphasizing the importance of matching an individual's personality to the work environment characteristics: Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, and Conventional.

Question 411

What is the Theory of Work Adjustment (TWA)?

Answer 411

A theory linking satisfaction and job outcomes to the correspondence between worker traits and job environment.

Question 412

What is survivor syndrome?

Answer 412

Depression, anxiety, guilt, and decreased job satisfaction experienced by employees remaining after downsizing.

Question 413

What does the Hawthorne Effect refer to?

Answer 413

Improvement in job performance resulting from psychological and social factors related to participation in a research study.

Question 414

What are the principles of effective training?

Answer 414

* Provide feedback * Overlearning * Frequent opportunities for active practice * Opportunities for distributed practice * Appropriate learning focus * Promote transfer of training

Question 415

What is the purpose of needs assessment in training program development?

Answer 415

To identify goals and determine if training is needed, including organization, task/job, person, and demographic analysis.

Question 416

What is Theory Y?

Answer 416

View work as being as natural as play and assume that employees are capable of self-control and self-direction

Question 417

What factors contribute to performance in organizations?

Answer 417

Performance = f(ability + motivation + environment)

Question 418

What are the five basic instinctual needs in Maslow's Need-Hierarchy Theory?

Answer 418

* Physiological * Safety * Social (belongingness, trust) * Esteem * Self-actualization

Question 419

What are the three needs in ERG Theory (Alderfer)?

Answer 419

* Existence * Relatedness * Growth

Question 420

What are the three needs identified by McClelland's Need Theory?

Answer 420

* Need for achievement (nACH) * Need for power * Need for affiliation

Question 421

What does Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory identify?

Answer 421

* Lower-level needs (dissatisfaction when unfulfilled) * Higher-level needs (increase job satisfaction and motivation when fulfilled)

Question 422

What is job enrichment according to Herzberg?

Answer 422

Combining several jobs into a larger job so that an employee performs a meaningful unit of work

Question 423

What does Goal Setting Theory state about employee motivation?

Answer 423

Employees are motivated to achieve goals they have consciously accepted and are committed to

Question 424

What is the relationship between specific goals and productivity?

Answer 424

Specific and moderately difficult goals produce higher levels of productivity than easy, general, or ambiguous goals

Question 425

What does Equity Theory emphasize?

Answer 425

The impact of social comparison on motivation and the importance of perceived equity in inputs and outcomes

Question 426

What are the components of Expectancy Theory (VIE)?

Answer 426

* High expectancy (effort leads to performance) * High instrumentality (performance leads to rewards) * Positive valence (rewards are desirable)

Question 427

What are the four processes of Social-Cognitive Theory (SCT)?

Answer 427

* Goal setting * Self-observation * Self-evaluation * Self-reaction

Question 428

What factors determine job satisfaction?

Answer 428

* Worker characteristics * Job factors

Question 429

What are the three types of organizational commitment?

Answer 429

* Affective commitment * Continuance commitment * Normative commitment

Question 430

What are the characteristics of effective leaders according to leader behavior?

Answer 430

* Consideration * Initiating structure

Question 431

What is Contingency Theory in leadership?

Answer 431

Leadership effectiveness results from the interaction between leader’s style and situational favorableness

Question 432

What is Cognitive Resource Theory?

Answer 432

The impact of a leader’s intelligence and experience on performance is moderated by the stressfulness of the situation

Question 433

What is the Path-Goal Theory of leadership?

Answer 433

An effective leader helps identify paths for subordinates to achieve personal and organizational goals

Question 434

What are the four leadership styles defined in Situational Leadership?

Answer 434

* Telling * Selling * Participating * Delegating

Question 435

What are the decision-making styles in the Vroom-Yetton-Jago Normative Model?

Answer 435

* AI (autocratic) * AII (autocratic) * CI (consultative) * CII (consultative) * G (Group)

Question 436

What characterizes transformational leaders?

Answer 436

Ability to recognize the need for change, create a vision, and accomplish change effectively

Question 437

What are group norms?

Answer 437

Standard rules of conduct that maintain uniformity of behavior among group members

Question 438

What is group cohesiveness?

Answer 438

Refers to the group’s solidarity

Question 439

What are the types of group tasks?

Answer 439

* Additive task * Compensatory task * Disjunctive task * Conjunctive task * Discretionary task

Question 440

What are the five stages of group development?

Answer 440

* Forming * Storming * Norming * Performing * Adjourning

Question 441

What are the characteristics of centralized and decentralized communication networks?

Answer 441

* Centralized: all communication passes through a central person * Decentralized: information flows freely between members

Question 442

What is groupthink?

Answer 442

Suspension of critical thinking that can occur in highly cohesive groups

Question 443

What is the rational-economic model of decision-making?

Answer 443

Proposes that decision-makers maximize benefits by systematically searching for options

Question 444

What is the difference between binding and voluntary arbitration?

Answer 444

* Binding arbitration: parties agree to accept the settlement * Voluntary arbitration: parties agree only to the arbitration process

Question 445

What are the three strategies for overcoming resistance to change?

Answer 445

* Rational-empirical strategy * Normative-re-educative strategy * Power-coercive strategy

Question 446

What is a change agent?

Answer 446

An individual responsible for guiding the change effort

Question 447

What is the difference between an internal and external change agent?

Answer 447

Internal change agent is a member of the organization; external change agent is a consultant from outside

Question 448

What methods can be used for data collection in organizational change?

Answer 448

* Questionnaires and surveys * Interviews * Direct observation * Secondary sources (archival)

Question 449

What does the rational-empirical strategy involve?

Answer 449

Providing information to individuals who are rational and will act in their self-interest

Question 450

What is the normative-re-educative strategy?

Answer 450

Utilizing peer pressure and sociocultural norms through group discussions

Question 451

What does the power-coercive strategy entail?

Answer 451

Using power and authority to coerce employees to comply with change plans

Question 452

Define organizational justice.

Answer 452

The notion of fairness within an organization

Question 453

What are the three types of organizational justice?

Answer 453

* Procedural justice * Distributive justice * Interactional justice

Question 454

What is procedural justice?

Answer 454

Fairness in the way a procedure or policy is implemented

Question 455

What is distributive justice?

Answer 455

The fairness of the outcomes of an organizational procedure or policy

Question 456

What is interactional justice?

Answer 456

How people feel about the quality and content of person-to-person interactions

Question 457

What is automation?

Answer 457

A broad category describing an entire class of technologies

Question 458

What does AI stand for?

Answer 458

Artificial Intelligence

Question 459

List the steps for the assessment of organizations.

Answer 459

* Determine central purpose of evaluation * Create questions about performance, capacity, motivation, environment * Choose methodology (qualitative and quantitative) * Include findings from internal and external reviews

Question 460

What are self-assessments used for?

Answer 460

When the objective is organizational development

Question 461

What are the three approaches to program evaluation?

Answer 461

* Goals-based * Process-based * Outcomes-based

Question 462

Define organizational culture.

Answer 462

The shared values, beliefs, and norms within an organization

Question 463

What is power distance?

Answer 463

The extent to which people accept an unequal distribution of power

Question 464

What does uncertainty avoidance mean?

Answer 464

Willingness and ability to tolerate ambiguity and uncertainty

Question 465

What is individualism in the context of national culture?

Answer 465

The extent to which individuals are the basis of the social system

Question 466

What does masculinity refer to in cultural dimensions?

Answer 466

The value placed on assertiveness, independence, and competitiveness

Question 467

What is long-term orientation?

Answer 467

The extent to which people focus on the future versus the past or present

Question 468

What are the three levels of organizational culture?

Answer 468

* Observable artifacts * Espoused values and beliefs * Basic underlying assumptions

Question 469

What is person-organization fit (P-O fit)?

Answer 469

The extent to which individual values match those of the organization’s culture

Question 470

What is globalization?

Answer 470

Economic interdependence among countries through the cross-national flow of goods and services, capital, and people

Question 471

Define inclusive workplaces.

Answer 471

Places where employees feel they belong, are supported, and can participate in decision-making

Question 472

What does the Yerkes-Dodson Law state?

Answer 472

The relationship between level of arousal and performance is an inverted U shape

Question 473

What is fatigue in the workplace?

Answer 473

Reduced job proficiency on complex tasks and tasks requiring constant vigilance

Question 474

What is the demand-control model?

Answer 474

A model stating that job demands and job control are primary contributors to job stress

Question 475

What are job demands?

Answer 475

The requirements of the job in terms of workload, time pressures, and responsibility

Question 476

What is job control?

Answer 476

Worker’s autonomy and discretion for using different skills

Question 477

What is job burnout caused by?

Answer 477

Accumulated stress from overwork

Question 478

What is work-family conflict?

Answer 478

When the role demands of career and family are incompatible

Question 479

What is person-machine fit?

Answer 479

Performance resulting from the interaction between people and machines

Question 480

What does the Americans with Disabilities Act require?

Answer 480

Employers to make reasonable accommodations for employees with disabilities

Question 481

What is a compressed workweek?

Answer 481

Decreasing the number of days worked while increasing hours per day

Question 482

What is flextime?

Answer 482

A system allowing employees to choose their work hours within a core time

Question 483

What is shiftwork?

Answer 483

A work schedule that can negatively impact family roles and social activities

Question 484

What is the graveyard shift?

Answer 484

The night shift associated with social, health, and work-related problems

Question 485

What is remote work?

Answer 485

A work arrangement where employees work outside of traditional office settings