Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EPME(2) > EPME > Flashcards

EPME Flashcards

1
Q

What is step 7 of ORM?

A

Monitor Situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is step 3 of ORM?

A

Assess Risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is step 1 of ORM?

A

Define Mission Tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define step 6 of ORM?

A

Execute decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is step 2 of ORM?

A

Identify Hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is step 4 of ORM?

A

Identity options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is step 5 of ORM?

A

Evaluate risk vs gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The ability to conform to rules, regulations and military standard?

A. Leadership
B. Professional Qualities
C. Conduct
D. Performance

A

Conduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When was the Coast Guard Chief Petty Officer grade established?

A

May 18, 1920

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a member has a waiver for a beard, what are the grooming requirements?

A. 1/8”
B. 1/4”
C. 1/2”
D. 3/4”

A

B. 1/4”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An incident occurred that resulted in property damage of approximately $150,000. This would be a Class __ mishap?

A
B
C
D

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A human relations council is required at units of ___ or more full time personnel?

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sexual harassment training is required every _____?

A

1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Human relations awareness training is required every ______?

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the max bulk of women’s hair?

A

2”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the max length of men’s hair?

A

4”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the max bulk of men’s hair?

A

1 1/2”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who designates the PIO?

A

XO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The DPRI consists of _______ chapters?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A member of the command designated to conduct a preliminary inquiry based on offenses alleged on the CG-4910?

A

PIO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
E 7/8/9 performance evaluation factors are grouped into how many categories?
2
3
4
5
A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A member’s ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?

Conduct
Leadership
Military
Performance

A

Military

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do you put in the enclosures box (Macros II) of you have no enclosures to attach?

A. None
B. Leave blank
C. Initials
D. Check marks

A

B. Leave blank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In a memorandum in the “REF” field, what is the first item denoted with?

A. 1
B. a
C. A
D. I

A

B. a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What law added Senior Chief and Master Chief Petty Officer?

A

Public Law 85-422

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ability to direct, guide, develop, influence and support others in the performance of work?

Military
Leadership
Conduct
Performance

A

Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A member’s willingness to acquire knowledge and the ability to use knowledge, skill and direction to accomplish work?

Performance
Leadership
Conduct
Military

A

Performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How far up are zippers supposed to be closed up on jackets?

1/4 way up
1/2 way up
2/3 way up
All the way up

A

2/3 way up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

$20,000 - $200,000 in damages, non fatal injury or occupational illness that results in any loss of time from work beyond the day or shift on which it occurred?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

A

Class C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How long can a woman’s fingernails be?

A

1/4” inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who is the Co-Program manager for enlisted professional and career development with the Director of Reserve and Training?

A

MCPOCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many major headquarter directorates report to the Commandant?

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Those qualities that the Coast Guard values in its people?

Leadership
Professional Qualities
Conduct
Performance

A

Professional Qualities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the width of the tie bar?

A

3/16”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When rolling sleeves on the ODU, how wise should the cuff be?

How far off the elbow should the cuff be?

A

3”

2”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who is responsible for advising and assisting the Commandant in the overall administration of the service?

A

Chief of Staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What year were the Senior Chief and Master Chief pay grades added?

A

1958

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The CG provides alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation program on how many levels?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How long does Level 3 care normally take?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Who must sign any alcohol incident entries?

A

CO and member

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If you are an E4 or E5, you must not have any unseat mark in the conduct category for the previous ____ months?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

After _____ all E7 must successfully complete either the CG CPO Academy or other DOD senior enlisted academy in or to compete for E8?

A

January 1, 1999

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the minimum total years of service to advance to E-8?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the minimum total yeas of service to advance to E9?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the minimum active service requirements to be advanced from E6 to E9?

A

24 months in pay grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the minimum service requirements to be advanced from E5 to E6?

A

12 months in pay grade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many different types of P&D are there?

A

33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How many types of administrative marks can be entered on a CG-3307?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What court martial rule limits your ability to probable cause search and seizures?

A

Court martial 315

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many hours per day can you assign EMI?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many competencies are contained in the three CG leadership categories?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to National Security?

A. classified
B. Secret
C. Top secret
D. Confidential

A

C. Top secret

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to National Security?

A

Secret

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to National Security?

A

Confidential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is line 6 of a CG message?

A

From

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is line 7 of a CG Message?

A

To

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is line 8 of a CG Message?

A

Info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is line 9 of a CG Message?

A

XMT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is line 12 of a CG Message?

A

Subject/BT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the most amount of lines that the subject line can take up?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the maximum characters per line in a CG Message?

A

69

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is line 5 of a CG Message?

A

Precedence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How often is the DPRI published?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What chapter of the DPRI lists all publications numerically?

A

Chapter 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A CG written communication that initiates or governs actions, conduct or procedure?

A. Instruction
B. Manual
C. Notice
D. Directive

A

Directive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How many types of directives are there?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Manuals must contain _____ pages or more?

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Manuals must be reviews now often by their originators?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

_____ are cancelled after 12 months if an earlier cancellation date is not specified?

A

Notice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How many categories are the Safety and Environmental Health Inspection Checklist divided into?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In proper verbal communications, how long should you make eye contact?

A

1-3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

At what DB level are you required to wear single hearing protection?

A

85DB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

At what FB level are you required to wear double hearing protection?

A

105DB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How long must a confined space be ventilated before entry?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Counseling must take place no later than ____ days following the employee review period?

A

21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the recommended hours of sleep that a person needs to combat stress?

A

7-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the latest that a supervisor can route an employee review to the marking official?

A

9 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How many Air Stations are there in the CG?

A

26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Aviation services are provided by over ____ aviators?

A

800

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How many enlisted people are in CG Aviation?

A

2500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the age requirement for the CG Academy?

A

17-22 with no dependents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the age limit for PPEP?

A

21 not yet 31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the age requirements for OCS?

A

21-26

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How long is OCS?

A

17 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What medal is awarded for “Distinguished themselves in armed enemy conflict by extraordinary heroism not justifying the Medal of Honor award”?

A

Navy Cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What medal is awarded for “Serving on active duty CG who distinguishes themselves by heroism not involving actual conflict with an enemy”?

A

Coast Guard Medal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What medal is awarded for “Rescued of extreme and heroic daring in saving or attempting to save another from drowning”?

A

Gold Life Saving Medal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What medal is awarded for “Distinguish themselves after December 6, 1941 by heroic actions, meritorious achieve, service not involving participation in aerial flight while engaged in enemy action”?

A

Bronze Star

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What medal is awarded for “Service rendered comparable to thar required for the Distinguished Service Medal, but lesser in duty?

A

Legion of Merit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What medal is awarded for “Extraordinary heroism not justifying the award of Medal of Honor, while engaged in military operations against an enemy of the US”?

A

Silver Star

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What medal is awarded for “Exceptionally meritorious service to the US in duty of great responsibility”?

A

CG Distinguished Service Medal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Who was bestowed the title of the Bravest Women in America?

A

Ida Lewis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What Master Chief Petty Officer had 44 years of service and served on 34 different vessels?

A

Donald Horsely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When was the CG Reserve created?

A

1941

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

When was the women’s CG Reserve created?

A

1942

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What percent of the 214,000 people that served in WWII were reservists?

A

92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Where and when was the first organized reserve unit?

A

Boston 1950

98
Q

How many branches of training are available to the auxiliarists?

A

5

99
Q

Today’s auxiliary is divided into how many groups?

A

4

100
Q

Overall, the supervision of the auxiliary is the responsibility of ______?

A

Assistant Commandant of Operations

101
Q

A flotilla consists of _____ or more qualified people?

A

15

102
Q

A division is composed of usually _____ or more flotillas?

A

5

103
Q

How many miles of coastline does the US have?

A

95,00

104
Q

When did the first African American female enter SPAR?

A

1945

105
Q

When did the Coast Guard promote the first Master Chief Petty Officer?

A

1958

106
Q

Who was the first Coast Guard Master Chief?

A

Jack Kerwin

107
Q

Who was the first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Coast Guard?

A

Charles Calhoun

108
Q

In what year were women integrated in the Coast Guard?

A

1973

109
Q

What year were all Officer and Enlisted career fields open to women?

A

1978

110
Q

When was the first Chief Petty Officers Academy?

A

1982

111
Q

When was the first woman admitted to OCS?

A

1973

112
Q

When did the Revenue Cutter Service and Life Saving Service merge?

A

1915

113
Q

When was the Revenue Cutter Service began?

A

August 4, 1790

114
Q

How many cutters initially made up the RCS?

A

10

115
Q

When was the first woman eligible for isolated units?

A

1981

116
Q

When did combat exclusion end for women?

A

1973

117
Q

How many organizations were joined for form the modern CG?

A

5

118
Q

To rescue immigrants from vessels ravished by winter storms, a federal lifesaving service was initiated in _____?

A

1848

119
Q

What Cutter has the record of the largest amount of immigrants rescued from a single vessel?

A

Dauntless

120
Q

When was the National Strike Force created?

A

1973

121
Q

What year did the Exxon Valdez oil spill take place?

A

1989

122
Q

How many people were lost during the Titanic sinking?

A

1500

123
Q

When was the lighthouse service federalized?

A

1789

124
Q

At the time the Lighthouse Service was federalized, how many lighthouses were there?

A

1000

125
Q

Who is the only man in history to have received both the Medal of Honor and the Gold Life Saving Medal?

A

Marcus Hanna

126
Q

What title of the US Code cites that the Coast Guard is a military service?

A

14

127
Q

About how many people make up the CG Auxiliary?

A

8000

128
Q

What year was Desert Storm/Shield?

A

1990-1991

129
Q

When did Desert Shield transition into Desert Storm?

A

January 17, 1991

130
Q

During Operation Liberty Shield, the CG increased patrols by ____ %

A

50%

131
Q

How many cutters did the Revenue Cutter Service operate along our southern coast in the Caribbean Sea?

A

8

132
Q

What war started the role of the CG augmenting the Navy with shallow draft craft during the time of war?

A

War of 1812

133
Q

Who were we fighting in the War of 1812?

A

England

134
Q

What was the first war that steamships were used?

A

Mexican-American War

135
Q

During the War of 1812, which Cutter ran ashore on Long Island, whose crew dragged her guns to a high bluff and fought the British ship from there?

A

Eagle

136
Q

What was saw a higher percentage of CG personnel killed than any other US military service?

A

WWI

137
Q

When was the Mexican-American War declared?

A

May 13, 1846

138
Q

In the _____ War, our cutters performed the Navy duties of blockade duty along the Chesapeake Bay, Atlantic Coast and the Potomac.

A

Civil War

139
Q

When did Spain declare war on the US?

A

April 24, 1898

140
Q

When did the US enter WWI!

A

April 2, 1917

141
Q

What war was the entire CG transferred to the Navy?

A

WWI

142
Q

When did WWI end?

A

1918

143
Q

How many cutters were transferred on lend-lease to Great Britain during WWII?

A

10

144
Q

Who made the first naval capture of WWII?

A

Northland

145
Q

In WWII, how many enemy subs were sunk by CH manned ships?

A

11

146
Q

In WWII how many enemy subs were sunk by CG aircraft?

A

1

147
Q

When did Douglas Munro die?

A

September 27, 1942

148
Q

During what war did Douglas Munro perform his heroic actions?

A

WWII

149
Q

When was the first time in CG Reserve history that involuntary overseas mobilization occur?

A

Desert Storm/Desert Shield

150
Q

After WWII what date did the CG return to the Treasury Dept?

A

January 1, 1946

151
Q

How many district offices are in the Atlantic Area?

A

5

152
Q

How many district office are in the Pacific Area?

A

4

153
Q

How many units report directly to HQ?

A

35

154
Q

In what years was the Quasi War fought?

A

1798-1799

155
Q

How long was the US involved with WWI?

A

1.5 years

156
Q

How many star admirals lead the PAC and LANT areas?

A

3 star

157
Q

What infection control approach was developed by the CDC?

A

Universal

158
Q

During decontamination, who’s should obtain confirmation from corpsman/emt that the medical kids have been inventories and that all used equipment has been accounted for?

A

Watch Captain

159
Q

What thickness should latex gloves be?

A

18mm

160
Q

What status is the aircraft in until it has been decontaminated?

A

Charlie

161
Q

How many FPCON levels are there?

A

5

162
Q

What FPCON Level is capable of being maintained indefinitely?

A

Alpha

163
Q

What FPCON is set when an in I deny occurs or intelligence is received?

A

Charlie

164
Q

What FPCON is declared when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorists activity exists?

A

Bravo

165
Q

What FPCON is set when a terrorist attack has occurred in the immediate area?

A

Delta

166
Q

What FPCON is normally declared as a local warning?

A

Delta

167
Q

What is the maximum number of characters in the subject line of official correspondence?

A

10

168
Q

What percentage of mishaps are due to unsafe acts of people?

A

88%

169
Q

What percentage of accidents are due to unsafe conditions?

A

10%

170
Q

The US water and ecosystem make up _____ of the world’s fishing industry?

A

1/5

171
Q

How many missions does the CG have?

A

11

172
Q

How many roles the CG have?

A

5

173
Q

Our maritime border extends out to ______ Mike’s?

A

200

174
Q

How many vertical stripes are on the CG ensign?

A

16

175
Q

What year was the Revenue Cutter Service formed?

A

1790

176
Q

When did the US adopt battle streamers?

A

1968

177
Q

How many battle streamers does the CG have?

A

34

178
Q

What is the color of the Command Master Chief’s badge?

A

Gold

179
Q

Who does the Civil Rights Officer report to?

A

CO

180
Q

A senior assistant to the USPHS is equivalent to a ____?

A

LT

181
Q

A senior in the USPHS is equivalent to a ____?

A

CDR

182
Q

An assistant in the USPHS is equivalent to a ____?

A

LTJG

183
Q

A Director on the USPHS is equivalent to a ____?

A

Captain

184
Q

A Junior Assistant in the USPHS is equivalent to a _____?

A

Ensign

185
Q

A Full in the USPHS is equivalent to a _____?

A

LCDR

186
Q

What is the bomb threat condition where you have the exact location and time?

A

Bomb Condition III

187
Q

What is the bomb condition where you have no location and no time?

A

Bomb Condition I

188
Q

What is the bomb threat condition where you have the exact location and no time?

A

Bomb Condition II

189
Q

What color is a danger flag?

A

Red

190
Q

What color is an out of calibration tag?

A

Orange

191
Q

How are the serial numbers for Danger, Caution, Out of Calibration and Out of Commission tags determined?

A

Reset to 001 at the beginning of each fiscal year.

192
Q

How often should an audit of the tag put log be conducted?

A

Once every two weeks

193
Q

Who does the Commandant report directly to?

A

Secretary of Homeland Security

194
Q

When did the rate of Petty Officer become official?

A

1808

195
Q

When was the MCPOG established?

A

August 17, 1969

196
Q

What article gives Petty Officers apprehension authority?

A

7

197
Q

How long does the Appeal Authority have to review and act on an appeal?

A

15 calendar days

198
Q

Used to offset lodging and meal expenses when a member is required to occupy temporary lodging in CONUS in connection with a PCS?

A

TLE

199
Q

Used primarily for OUTCONUS moves. Provides to partially reimburse a member for more than normal expenses occurred?

A

TLA

200
Q

Normally TLA is authorized for a period of not more than _____ days.

A

60

201
Q

What is the maximum allowable percentage for TLE advance?

A

80% of total entitlement

202
Q

What is the maximum amount of proceed time for a “No Haste” in reporting?

A

4 days

203
Q

What is the maximum amount of proceed time for a “proceed without delay” reporting?

A

2 days

204
Q

How close to a PCS move can you get advanced pay?

A

30 days

205
Q

After arriving at your new PDS, how long do you have to request advance pay?

A

60 days

206
Q

After _____ failed login attempts in direct access, you will be locked out?

A

5

207
Q

A TONO beginning with a 13 would be _____?

A

Blanket or repeat

208
Q

A TONO beginning with an 11 would be _____?

A

TDY

209
Q

A TONO beginning with a 12 would be _____?

A

PCS, retirement or Discharge

210
Q

How soon after travel must you complete a travel claim?

A

3 days

211
Q

Administrative review of travel claims must happen within ____ days of receipt?

A

2 days

212
Q

Who is responsible for overall management of an Incident?

A

Incident Commander

213
Q

Who is responsible for developing and releasing information?

A

Liaison Officer

214
Q

Who is responsible for the management of all operations directly applicable to the primary missions?

A

Operations Section Chief

215
Q

How many Branch Directors are allowed in ICS?

A

Up to 5

216
Q

Who is responsible for implementing strategic aspects that relate to the overall incident strategy and providing logical support to helicopters operating on the incident?

A

Air Operations Branch Director

217
Q

Who is primarily responsible for the coordination of airborne aircraft operations when fixed wing/rotary wing aircraft are operating on an incident?

A

Air Operations Branch supervisor

218
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating tactical or logistical helicopter missions?

A

Helicopter coordinator

219
Q

Who is responsible for supporting and managing helibase and heliport operations and maintaining liaison with fixed wing air bases?

A

Air Support Group Supervisor

220
Q

The first Coast Guard Chief’s were the former station keepers of the ______?

A

Life Saving Stations

221
Q

The tool you can use to beat developed an action plane is ______?

A

A contingency diagram

222
Q

The tool you can use to separate the few major problems from the many minor ones is ______?

A

Pareto Chart

223
Q

The first uniform regulations were introduced in _____?

A

1830

224
Q

The Eagle, recaptured the American vessels Nancy and Mehitable in a memorable fight in 1799 with the French privateer, Revenge.

A

Quasi War

225
Q

The Cutter Bear was built in 1874 and sank in the North Atlantic in _____?

A

1963

226
Q

The Cutter Northland on September 12 captured the first German ship of the war, the Buskoe.

A

WWII

227
Q

The first Commandant was _____?

A

Alexander Fraser

228
Q

Twenty-six 82-foot CH cutters were deployed for Operation Market Time.

A

Vietnam War

229
Q

CG became part of the Dept. of Transportation on ______?

A

April 1, 1967

230
Q

Who was the first woman assigned as an Officer In Charge ashore and in what year?

A

Krysine Carbajal in 1989

231
Q

_______ single-handedly rescued 10 people from the grounded ship Priscilla on August 18, 1899 and was awarded the gold lifesaving medal.

A

Rasmus Midget

232
Q

What contains information that has continuing reference value or that requires continuing action, remain in effect until replaced or canceled by the originator or higher authority and is reviewed and validated by originators every four years?

A

Instruction

233
Q

In this war, cutters captured 18 prizes unaided and assisted in two other captures.

A

Quasi War

234
Q

During this war, the McCulloch served as both the escort and dispatch with Commodore George Dewey’s squadron.

A

Spanish-American War

235
Q

The CG was given responsibility for old weather operations in Greenland during ______?

A

WWII

236
Q

The first time ocean-going cutters augmented the Navy and CG surveillance forces was in ____?

A

Korean War

237
Q

What program has people continue in their civilian employment while serving on military duty?

A

Selective Reserve Direct Commission Program

238
Q

What program do you have to have special training and skills in specific fields to join the CG?

A

Direct Commission Program

239
Q

This information must be included on all correspondence in the CG because it serves as the file number.

A

SSIC

240
Q

Mishaps that are sufficiently serious to warrant form Mishap Analysis Board action are classified as ______?

A

Class B

241
Q

Maintenance and Logistics Commands personnel assigned to detached duty as part of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program are called _________?

A

Addiction Prevention Specialists

242
Q

The 21 leadership competencies are grouped into the three categories of:

A

Self Awareness, Working with Others and performance.

EPME(2) (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions